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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
      During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A Foundation Year 1 doctor stops you in the corridor to ask for...

    Incorrect

    • A Foundation Year 1 doctor stops you in the corridor to ask for some advice about prescribing and unwanted pharmacological effects of drugs in pregnancy.
      Which of the following list of potential pharmacological risks of drugs in pregnancy is true?

      Your Answer: NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) - maintains patency of ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Aspirin : kernicterus

      Explanation:

      Various drugs can have negative effects on pregnancy beyond the risk of birth defects. For example, aspirin should be used with caution in the third trimester due to the potential for impaired platelet function, hemorrhage, and increased blood loss during labor. High doses of aspirin may also lead to intrauterine growth restriction, closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns. Similarly, ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy unless absolutely necessary, as they can negatively impact fetal and neonatal blood pressure control and renal function. Thiazide diuretics should not be used to treat gestational hypertension, as they can cause neonatal thrombocytopenia, bone marrow suppression, jaundice, electrolyte imbalances, and hypoglycemia. NSAIDs should also be avoided during pregnancy unless the potential benefits outweigh the risks, as they can lead to closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus and delayed onset and increased duration of labor. Other drugs, such as b-blockers and carbimazole, can also have negative effects on pregnancy and should be used with caution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a statin medication. During the tests, his renal function is discovered to be impaired, and he is referred for further evaluation.
      Na+ 135 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 15 mmol/l
      Creatinine 152 µmol/l
      What sign would suggest that the man's condition is chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: A normal parathyroid level

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

      One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.

      In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      202.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and leg each lasting ten minutes, both within the space of 2 days. He did not attend the emergency department after the first episode. His only significant past medical history is hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 5mg OD. He has experienced one similar episode to this one year ago, but did not seek medical attention. His son is present who informs you that the patient has lost a significant amount of weight in the last year. On further questioning, he reports some haemoptysis lately. His blood pressure in the department was 170/90 mmHg initially.

      His bloods reveal:
      Hb 115 g/l
      Platelets 149 * 109/l
      WBC 13.1 * 109/l
      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 5.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 111 µmol/l
      CRP 15 mg/l
      ECG: Sinus tachycardia, rate 104/min

      What is the most appropriate management for this gentleman?

      Your Answer: Admit for CT head + aspirin

      Explanation:

      This question assesses the candidate’s understanding of TIA risk stratification. The individual meets the criteria for crescendo TIAs, having experienced two TIAs within a week. This necessitates prompt evaluation and imaging. Admission is recommended for any patient with a score of more than 4 on the ABCD2 scale or crescendo TIA.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) complaining of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) complaining of a headache and painless loss of vision in her left eye lasting for 5 minutes. Two days later, she developed sudden-onset, right-sided weakness affecting both upper and lower limbs and lasting for 30 minutes. Her past medical history includes mild hyperlipidemia. She is a non-smoker. There are no neurological abnormalities. Her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg and heart rate 80 bpm. There are no audible carotid bruits.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: TIA secondary to cardioembolism

      Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) secondary to carotid artery disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA) and its Possible Causes

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the brain is temporarily disrupted, leading to neurological symptoms that usually last for less than an hour. One of the most common causes of TIA is carotid artery disease, which accounts for up to 90% of cases. Symptoms of TIA due to carotid artery disease include contralateral motor and sensory disturbance, ipsilateral visual disturbance, and amaurosis fugax (monocular blindness). A carotid artery bruit in the neck may also be present.

      Migraine equivalents are another possible cause of TIA, but they are characterized by absent headache and slow spread of symptoms from one body part to the next. Unlike migraines, TIA episodes are sudden-onset and resolved within an hour.

      TIA can also be caused by cardioembolism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. However, this is unlikely in the absence of atrial fibrillation or significant cardiac disease.

      Small-vessel disease is another possible cause of TIA, but it is unlikely to account for both hemiparesis and visual loss. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) can also be associated with transient visual loss, but hemiparesis is not a feature. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, weight loss, and characteristic temporal headache are commonly present in GCA.

      In summary, TIA is a serious medical condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Understanding the possible causes of TIA can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female visited her doctor complaining of a 3-week history of excessive malodorous vaginal discharge. Microscopy revealed the presence of clue cells, and she was diagnosed with Gardnerella vaginalis-induced bacterial vaginosis.
      What would be the appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Nystatin

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Common Antibiotics and Antifungals: Uses and Dosages

      Metronidazole, Azithromycin, Co-amoxiclav, Fluconazole, and Nystatin are common antibiotics and antifungals used to treat various infections. Metronidazole is recommended for bacterial vaginosis and can be taken orally or applied topically. Azithromycin is used for Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and chancroid. Co-amoxiclav is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used for respiratory and urinary tract infections, among others. Fluconazole is an oral antifungal used for severe oral and vaginal candidiasis. Nystatin is an antifungal used for oral candidiasis. Dosages and treatment durations vary depending on the specific infection being treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 64-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to diabetes mellitus is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. In evaluating his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which of the following variables is not necessary for the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?

      Your Answer: Age

      Correct Answer: Serum urea

      Explanation:

      The eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate) is determined by several variables, including CAGE, which stands for Creatinine, Age, Gender, and Ethnicity.

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease: eGFR and Classification

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to filter waste products from the blood. Serum creatinine, a commonly used measure of kidney function, may not provide an accurate estimate due to differences in muscle mass. To address this, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation were developed to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account variables such as serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity.

      It is important to note that certain factors may affect the accuracy of eGFR results, such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent consumption of red meat. CKD can be classified based on eGFR, with stage 1 indicating a GFR greater than 90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage on other tests. Stage 2 indicates a GFR of 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage, while stage 3a and 3b indicate a moderate reduction in kidney function with GFR ranges of 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively. Stage 4 indicates a severe reduction in kidney function with a GFR range of 15-29 ml/min, while stage 5 indicates established kidney failure with a GFR less than 15 ml/min, which may require dialysis or a kidney transplant. It is important to note that if all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of flu-like symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of flu-like symptoms and myalgia. He has no significant medical history and is typically in good health. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show that he is positive for both Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgG and Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgM. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient at present?

      Your Answer: Pyrimethamine

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who are immunocompetent and have toxoplasmosis typically do not need to undergo treatment. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic disease that is primarily found in cats and is caused by Toxoplasmosis gondii protozoa. Symptoms of the disease in humans can include malaise, myalgia, and lymphadenopathy, or it may be asymptomatic. While most healthy individuals can clear the infection, it can lead to complications such as chorioretinitis, seizures, or anemia. These complications are more likely to occur in neonates born to mothers with acute infections or in patients with compromised immune systems. The patient’s blood test results indicate that they currently have an infection, but since they are immunocompetent, treatment is not necessary at this time.

      Toxoplasmosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, or broken skin. Cats are the primary carriers of the disease, but other animals like rats can also transmit it. In most cases, infected individuals do not show any symptoms. However, those who do may experience fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy, which are similar to infectious mononucleosis. Less common symptoms include meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. Serology is the preferred diagnostic method, and treatment is usually unnecessary unless the infection is severe or the patient is immunosuppressed.

      In immunocompromised patients, toxoplasmosis can cause cerebral toxoplasmosis, which accounts for about half of all cerebral lesions in HIV patients. Symptoms include constitutional symptoms, headache, confusion, and drowsiness. CT scans typically show single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions, and there may be a mass effect. Treatment involves pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine for at least six weeks. Immunocompromised patients may also develop chorioretinitis due to toxoplasmosis.

      Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the disease is transmitted from the mother to the unborn child. It can cause a range of effects, including neurological damage, cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, ophthalmic damage, retinopathy, and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Flecainide

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval

      The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.

      Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.

      Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.

      β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.

      In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely...

    Incorrect

    • In an elderly patient, which of the following is the single most likely statement indicating an increased risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Living with a long-term partner

      Correct Answer: A direct statement of intent to attempt suicide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Suicide Risk Factors

      Suicide is a complex issue with various risk factors that can contribute to its occurrence. One of the most obvious warning signs is a direct statement of intent to attempt suicide. It is important to take these statements seriously and seek help immediately.

      Physical illness, especially if it is prolonged and associated with pain and/or a poor prognosis, is also a well-recognized risk factor for suicide. Additionally, caring for a dying friend or relative can increase the risk, albeit to a lesser extent.

      Unemployment is another risk factor, as it can lead to feelings of hopelessness and financial strain. Living alone, particularly after a bereavement, can also indicate a higher risk, especially if the person was dependent on the deceased.

      While paranoid delusions can occur in depressive illness, they do not have any special significance in assessing suicide risk. However, approximately one in twenty people with schizophrenia attempt suicide, with a higher risk at the onset of the illness and if there is associated depressive illness.

      It is important to understand these risk factors and seek help if you or someone you know is struggling with suicidal thoughts. Remember, there is always hope and help available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness.
      During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 160/95 mmHg. The rest of the examination is normal. The General Practitioner decides to order routine blood tests. The results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 151 mmol
      Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol
      Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 70.5 µmol/l
      Random glucose 5.8 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate first-line investigation to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatraemia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, which is characterized by increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss due to high aldosterone levels. While muscle weakness and lethargy are common symptoms, they are only present in 40% of cases. Metabolic alkalosis is another common finding. Primary hyperaldosteronism is often caused by bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, rather than an adrenal adenoma. To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is recommended as the first-line investigation, followed by a high-resolution CT scan of the abdomen and adrenal vein sampling to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. While an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is useful for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, it is not relevant in this case. Urine dipstick and formal urinalysis would be helpful in identifying renal causes of secondary hypertension, but are not necessary in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule...

    Correct

    • What is one of the most important functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?

      Your Answer: Sodium reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule in the Nephron

      The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is a crucial part of the nephron, responsible for several important functions. One of its primary roles is the reabsorption of sodium, which occurs through active transport facilitated by the numerous mitochondria in the epithelial cells. This creates a concentration gradient that allows for the passive reabsorption of water. Glucose is also reabsorbed in the PCT through secondary active transport, driven by the sodium gradient. The PCT also regulates the pH of the filtrate by exchanging hydrogen ions for bicarbonate ions. Additionally, the PCT is the primary site for ammoniagenesis, which involves the breakdown of glutamine to α-ketoglutarate. Finally, the regulation of urine concentration occurs in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct under the influence of vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paranoid personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.

      Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of visual difficulties. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of visual difficulties. He reports having poor vision in low light conditions for a while, but now he is concerned as he is experiencing tunnel vision. He mentions that his grandfather had a similar issue and was declared blind when he was in his 50s. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitelliform macular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa

      Retinitis pigmentosa is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. The initial sign of this condition is often night blindness, which can progress to a loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy, a diagnostic test, reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. Retinitis pigmentosa is often associated with other diseases such as Refsum disease, Usher syndrome, abetalipoproteinemia, Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and Alport’s syndrome.

      To better understand retinitis pigmentosa, it is important to know that it is a genetic disorder that affects the retina’s ability to respond to light. This condition can lead to the death of photoreceptor cells in the retina, which are responsible for detecting light and transmitting visual information to the brain. As a result, individuals with retinitis pigmentosa may experience difficulty seeing in low light conditions, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness.

      In summary, retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. It is often associated with other diseases and can cause night blindness, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with hearing loss on the left and persistent tinnitus for a few weeks. On examination, an absent corneal reflex is noted.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss and Tinnitus: A Guide

      When patients present with hearing loss and tinnitus, it is important to consider the various potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. One possible cause is acoustic neuroma, a rare tumor that affects the Schwann cells of the nerve sheath in the cerebellopontine angle. Patients with acoustic neuroma typically experience unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, but vertigo is rare. Examination may reveal facial numbness, weakness, or ataxia, as well as absence of the corneal reflex.

      Another potential cause is Ménière’s disease, which is characterized by sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss. However, an absent corneal reflex is not associated with this condition.

      Otosclerosis is a form of conductive hearing loss that often presents in early adulthood, with symptoms including tinnitus and transient vertigo. Again, an absent corneal reflex is not typically observed.

      Vestibular neuronitis, which follows a febrile illness and causes sudden vertigo, vomiting, and prostration exacerbated by head movement, is not associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, or absent corneal reflexes.

      Finally, while impacted ear wax can cause tinnitus and hearing loss, it would not result in an absent corneal reflex on examination. By considering these various potential causes, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with hearing loss and tinnitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under the care of the Practice. The baby did not experience any significant complications, such as respiratory issues, after birth. How should routine childhood vaccinations be administered?

      Your Answer: Adjust schedule for gestational age

      Correct Answer: Give according to chronological age

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that premature babies receive their routine vaccinations based on their chronological age, without any adjustment for their gestational age. However, if a baby was born before 28 weeks of gestation, it is advisable to administer their initial immunizations while they are still in the hospital to minimize the risk of apnea.

      Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.

      Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of leg weakness after laughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of leg weakness after laughing with his friends. His friends also reported a brief collapse during a similar episode. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Cataplexy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cataplexy

      Cataplexy is a condition characterized by a sudden and temporary loss of muscle control triggered by intense emotions such as laughter or fear. It is commonly associated with narcolepsy, with around two-thirds of patients experiencing cataplexy. The symptoms of cataplexy can vary from mild buckling of the knees to complete collapse.

      This condition can be debilitating and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. It can also be challenging to diagnose, as the symptoms can be mistaken for other conditions such as seizures or fainting spells. Treatment options for cataplexy include medication and lifestyle changes, such as avoiding triggers that can cause emotional responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences bloating that is relieved by defecation and finds relief with hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan). She denies any weight loss and has no relevant family history. Coeliac disease screening was negative and both full blood count and CRP were normal. Despite being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and given dietary advice and antispasmodics, she disagrees with the diagnosis and requests further investigations. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Repeat full blood count

      Correct Answer: Reassure that further tests are not required at this stage

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use faecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening in symptomatic patients who are under the age of 60. This woman is displaying symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and has normal blood results, without any red flag symptoms. Repeating the full blood count is unlikely to provide any additional information. The use of steroids and azathioprine is not appropriate for treating irritable bowel syndrome, as they are typically used for ulcerative colitis, which is not likely in this case.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 20 - A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old...

    Incorrect

    • A father is worried about a swelling he has noticed on his two-day-old baby's head. The baby was delivered using forceps due to a prolonged second stage of labor. Upon examination, there is a swelling in the parietal region that does not cross the suture lines. The doctor informs him that it may take several weeks to resolve. What type of head injury is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/3) 33%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
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