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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. His glycaemic control is satisfactory with metformin therapy, and his latest HbA1c is 54 mmol/mol (7.1%). During his recent clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured at 152/90 mmHg. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor was subsequently requested, and the results indicate an average blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Do nothing for now, monitor his blood pressure regularly
Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Explanation:Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to their renoprotective effect, even if the patient has stage 1 hypertension according to NICE guidelines. In contrast, for patients aged over 55 years without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line treatment.
Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of increasing dyspnoea with strenuous exercise. She has also had occasional chest pain on exertion.
On examination, she has an ejection systolic murmur. Following an examination and electrocardiogram (ECG) in primary care, she is referred for a cardiology review and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate screening method for her sister?Your Answer: Echocardiography
Explanation:Diagnosing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Methods and Limitations
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic heart condition that can lead to sudden death, especially in young athletes. Diagnosis of HCM is based on the demonstration of unexplained myocardial hypertrophy, which can be detected using two-dimensional echocardiography. However, the criteria for diagnosis vary depending on the patient’s size and family history. Genetic screening is not always reliable, as mutations are only found in 60% of patients. An abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) is common but nonspecific, while exercise testing and ventilation-perfusion scans have limited diagnostic value. It is important to consider the limitations of these methods when evaluating patients with suspected HCM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A mother has brought her 4-year-old son to see you as she is worried about a lump in his neck.
Which of the following characteristics would worry you the most and would warrant an urgent referral?Your Answer: Multiple lymph nodes in the cervical region, each of 1 cm in diameter
Correct Answer: Firm, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy
Explanation:When to Worry About Lymph Node Enlargement in Children
Lymphadenopathy, or lymph node enlargement, is a common occurrence in children. In most cases, it is benign and resolves on its own. However, there are certain characteristics that warrant urgent referral to a healthcare provider. These include non-tender, firm or hard lymph nodes, nodes larger than 2 cm, progressively enlarging nodes, general ill-health, fever or weight loss, involvement of axillary nodes (in the absence of local infection or dermatitis), or involvement of supraclavicular nodes.
It is important to note that these characteristics are particularly concerning if there is no evidence of local infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are a locum working in a practice for the first time. You are unfamiliar with the repeat prescribing system and have a pile of scripts to sign at the end of morning surgery.
You make a mental note to be extra careful with some prescriptions due to the possibility of prescribing errors.
Which medication is associated with the highest risk of severe monitoring error in elderly patients?Your Answer: Temazepam
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:GMC Study Finds Low Rate of Severe Prescription Errors
A recent study conducted by the General Medical Council (GMC) aimed to assess the prevalence of severe prescription errors in primary healthcare settings. The study utilized systemic reviews of literature, patient record assessments, root cause analysis, focus groups, and interviews with healthcare professionals. The results showed that only 0.18% of prescriptions were associated with severe errors, with the majority of errors related to warfarin prescribing and patients being prescribed medications they were allergic to.
The study, known as the PRACtICe study, provides valuable insights and learning points that may be tested in exams. It is recommended that individuals familiarize themselves with the study summary and conclusions in chapter 10 of the report. Overall, the study highlights the importance of ensuring accurate and safe prescribing practices in primary healthcare settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the tendon involved in de Quervain's tenosynovitis/tenovaginitis?
Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus
Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:De Quervain’s Disease: How to Examine and Test for it
De Quervain’s disease is a condition where the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed and thickened. To examine a patient with this condition, one can perform a Finkelstein’s test. This test involves the patient making a fist with their thumb tucked inside their fingers, and then bending their wrist towards their little finger. If the patient experiences pain on the thumb side of their wrist, it is likely that they have De Quervain’s tenosynovitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are asked to visit a 45-year-old construction worker at his worksite. He is known to drink five cans of beer per day and a number of shots of whiskey whilst socializing with his colleagues after work. His supervisor is concerned as he has become lethargic, confused and has taken to sitting down frequently.
On examination he has nystagmus, is restless and disorientated. He has edema, but his abdomen doesn't appear tense and he is afebrile. You get him to walk and he has truncal ataxia.
You think he should be admitted to hospital. How should he be treated?Your Answer: Pyridoxine replacement
Correct Answer: Thiamine replacement
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholism
Sudden deterioration in alcoholism can be caused by alcohol withdrawal or acute infection, such as spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. However, if confusion, nystagmus, and truncal ataxia are present, Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be considered. Thiamine replacement is crucial to prevent the development of Korsakoff’s psychosis, which can result in permanent short-term memory impairment. It is important to recognize and treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy promptly to prevent long-term neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?
Your Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate
Explanation:Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010
In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.
It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.
Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.
The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.
Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 8
Correct
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What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers?
Your Answer: Hypertension + benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Alpha Blockers
Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly prescribed for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the smooth muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.
While alpha blockers can be effective in managing these conditions, they can also cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of alpha blockers include postural hypotension, drowsiness, dyspnea, and cough. Patients who are taking alpha blockers should be aware of these potential side effects and should speak with their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At her routine check-up, a 75 year old woman is discovered to have a serum sodium level of 128 mmol/L. Despite feeling fine, she is found to have hyponatraemia. What medication is the probable culprit for her condition?
Your Answer: Demeclocycline
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is often associated with the use of SSRIs.
The production or action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) can be increased by many drugs, leading to hyponatraemia. Commonly implicated drugs include thiazide diuretics, SSRIs, haloperidol, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, and carbamazepine.
SSRIs can cause the release of ADH, resulting in hyponatraemia. This side effect typically occurs within the first few weeks of treatment and resolves within two weeks of discontinuing the drug. The risk of hyponatraemia is higher in older patients and those taking diuretics in conjunction with SSRIs.
Side-Effects of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants. However, they can cause adverse effects, with gastrointestinal symptoms being the most common. Patients taking SSRIs are also at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, especially if they are also taking NSAIDs. To prevent this, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed. Hyponatraemia is another potential side-effect, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
Citalopram, a type of SSRI, has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose for citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. NICE guidelines recommend avoiding SSRIs and considering mirtazapine for patients taking warfarin/heparin. Triptans should be avoided with SSRIs.
When starting antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. For patients under the age of 30 years or at increased risk of suicide, they should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse.
When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, which can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with a 6-week history of fatigue and malaise. He has no significant medical history. His urine test reveals glucose, and a random venous plasma glucose level is 8.5 mmol/l. An oral glucose tolerance test is performed, which shows a baseline glucose level of 7.1 mmol/l and a level of 10.8 mmol/l at 120 minutes after glucose ingestion. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Diabetes, as confirmed by the combination of the random glucose and glycosuria
Correct Answer: Diabetes, as confirmed by the result of the OGTT at 120 minutes
Explanation:Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Role of Different Tests and Symptoms
When it comes to diagnosing diabetes mellitus, there are several tests and symptoms that healthcare professionals may consider. In this scenario, a patient presents with glycosuria and high random blood glucose levels, prompting further investigation. Here’s a breakdown of how different diagnostic criteria apply in this case:
– OGTT at 120 minutes: The patient’s glucose concentration two hours after ingesting a glucose solution is >11.1mmol/L, confirming the diagnosis of diabetes.
– Random glucose value alone: While the patient’s symptoms suggest diabetes, the random blood glucose level needs to be >11.1mmol/L or more to confirm the diagnosis.
– Combination of random glucose and glycosuria: Glycosuria alone is not diagnostic of diabetes, and the patient’s random glucose level is not high enough to confirm the diagnosis.
– Presence of glycosuria alone: Glycosuria can suggest the presence of diabetes, but it is not enough to confirm the diagnosis.
– Fasting glucose levels on OGTT: The patient’s fasting glucose level is under 7 mmol/L, which is below the diagnostic threshold for diabetes.In summary, diagnosing diabetes requires careful consideration of different tests and symptoms. While some indicators may suggest the presence of the condition, others are needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her mother noticed that she ‘looked yellow’. On examination, she is jaundiced, with dark urine and pale stools. Examination is otherwise normal. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy and birth, and the baby has had vitamin K.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Physiological jaundice
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Jaundice: Differential Diagnosis
Biliary atresia is a congenital condition that causes obstructive jaundice due to the obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary system. It presents soon after birth with persistent jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine. Physiological jaundice, which appears after 2-3 days of age, is a different condition that doesn’t cause changes in stool and urine color. Gallstones and Rhesus incompatibility can also present with obstructive jaundice, but they are less likely. Vitamin K deficiency is not a likely cause of neonatal jaundice if the child has received vitamin K soon after birth. Any term infant who is still jaundiced after 14 days (or preterm infants after 21 days) should be investigated for the underlying cause of their jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman comes in seeking post-coital contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse four days ago.
Which one of these statements is true regarding post-coital contraception?Your Answer: Levonorgestrel cannot be repeated in the same month
Correct Answer: An IUD cannot be fitted more than five days from sexual intercourse
Explanation:Timing and Options for Emergency Contraception
When it comes to emergency contraception, timing is crucial. If ovulation can be estimated, an IUD can be inserted up to five days after the expected date of ovulation. On the other hand, levonorgestrel can be taken beyond the recommended 72-hour window, but its effectiveness may be reduced. It can also be repeated within the same menstrual cycle. In cases where condoms are the only form of contraception, additional levonorgestrel may be prescribed. However, it’s important to note that pharmacists will not sell levonorgestrel to males. By understanding the timing and options for emergency contraception, individuals can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You come across a pair of patients who are both under your care and are interested in starting a family. They are worried because their niece has Fragile X syndrome (FXS). They require additional details about it and would like a recommendation to a geneticist.
What is the characteristic linked with Fragile X syndrome?Your Answer: Life-threatening cardiovascular problems.
Correct Answer: Macroorchidism
Explanation:Macroorchidism is a common feature of Fragile X syndrome, which also presents with delayed developmental milestones and learning difficulties (typically with an IQ less than 70). Physical characteristics include a high forehead, facial asymmetry, a large jaw, and long ears. Diagnosis is often made by age 3 due to developmental delays. Life-threatening cardiovascular issues and full lips are not associated with FXS, but are seen in William’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome is characterized by decreased muscle tone and hypothyroidism.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects males more severely than females, with symptoms including learning difficulties, large low set ears, a long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also common in males with this syndrome. Females who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally through chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. Analysis of the number of CGG repeats using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis is also used to diagnose this disorder. Proper diagnosis and management can help individuals with fragile X syndrome lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman lives in a residential home in which some residents have influenza-like symptoms at the start of the influenza season. She has no chronic disease and no symptoms of influenza. The residents have not yet received seasonal influenza immunisation.
What is the single most suitable immediate prophylactic measure?
Your Answer: influenza vaccine
Correct Answer: Oseltamivir
Explanation:Treatment and Prevention of influenza: A Summary of NICE Recommendations
influenza is best prevented through vaccination, but in cases where the protective response is not quick enough, antiviral medications such as oseltamivir and zanamivir can be effective. These medications work by inhibiting viral neuraminidase and reducing the replication of influenza A and B viruses. They are most effective when started within a few hours of symptom onset and can reduce the duration of symptoms by about 1-1.5 days in otherwise healthy individuals.
Oseltamivir and zanamivir are also recommended for at-risk patients, including the elderly and those with chronic disease, to reduce the risk of complications from influenza. In addition, they can be used for post-exposure prophylaxis when influenza is circulating in the community or in exceptional circumstances when vaccination doesn’t cover the infecting strain.
It is important to note that amantadine is not recommended for the treatment or prevention of influenza. Overall, vaccination remains the most effective way to prevent illness from influenza, but antiviral medications can be a useful tool in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and the following results: ANA positive, double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) positive, rheumatoid factor positive and reduced C3, C4 complement levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Explanation:Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Screening Tests
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs in the body. It is more common in women, especially those aged between 15 and 35. SLE is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and autoantibodies, which can be detected through screening tests such as ESR, ANA, and anti-dsDNA antibodies. However, the diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of 11 criteria specified by the American College of Rheumatology, including rash, joint swelling, ANA positivity, and autoantibodies. The course of SLE is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and screening tests for SLE is crucial for early detection and management of this complex disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?Your Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services
Explanation:Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach
When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Idiopathic constipation
Explanation:Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis
Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.
2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.
3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.
4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.
5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.
In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You sample 100 patients' ages from your patient list and calculate the mean age to be 45 years old. This baseline data will be used before enrolling these patients on an exercise programme to measure the effect this has on age. The standard deviation of your data is 3. You wish to determine how accurate your estimate of the mean is likely to be.
What is the standard error of the mean?Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean
The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.
To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.
A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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For elderly patients who fast during Ramadan, what is the correct approach to managing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Patients taking metformin should have their doses halved during Ramadan
Correct Answer: Around 4 out of 5 patients Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan
Explanation:Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.
To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.
Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: S1-S2
Explanation:Understanding L5 and S1 Radiculopathy
L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy presents with pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.
When examining a patient with L5 radiculopathy, weakness may be observed in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also reduced on the lateral foot and posterior aspect of the leg. Meanwhile, patients with S1 radiculopathy may exhibit weakness in foot plantar flexion and toe flexion. Sensation is generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.
Understanding the differences between L5 and S1 radiculopathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions. Proper diagnosis and management can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried, she visits her family doctor with her father.
During examination, her face appears swollen and her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Urine dipstick testing shows a strong presence of blood and moderate protein. Her father mentions that she had a fever and cough about a week ago.
What is the best course of action for the doctor to take at this point?Your Answer: Routine paediatric/nephrology referral
Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric/nephrology admission
Explanation:Urgent Admission for a Patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis
Explanation:
A patient presenting with nephritic syndrome, including haematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and oedema, is likely suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, possibly post-streptococcal. This condition can lead to acute kidney injury and requires urgent investigation. Therefore, routine referral to paediatric nephrologists or urologists is not appropriate in this case. Instead, the patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for urgent investigation and management. While follow-up with paediatric nephrologists may be necessary, the acute presentation with hypertension and oedema requires immediate attention. A two-week rule referral for suspected malignancy is not indicated in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
ECG shows sinus rhythm.
CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Speech therapy
Correct Answer: Urgent ENT referral
Explanation:Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness
Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.
While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).
Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice, firm cervical nodes and difficulty in swallowing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Types of Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Characteristics
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the upper airway, with the larynx being the most likely location. Symptoms may include pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, and stridor in advanced cases. Small cell carcinoma of the larynx is rare. Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx is relatively rare and usually squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are common varieties of oesophageal cancer, with dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding being red flag features. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tonsillar cancer, with symptoms including a sore throat, ear pain, a foreign body sensation, bleeding, and a neck mass. Tonsillar enlargement may be the only sign if the tumour growth is below the surface, or there may be a fungating mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type I diabetes visits his General Practitioner complaining of horizontal diplopia that has lasted for 72 hours. He reports no pain. The images separate more widely when he looks to the right. Covering his right eye during right gaze causes the outer image to disappear. Which cranial nerve is the most likely to be affected? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Right abducens
Explanation:Common Causes and Effects of Cranial Nerve Palsies on Diplopia
Diplopia, or double vision, can be caused by various cranial nerve palsies. The effects of paresis on diplopia can be predicted by three rules. Firstly, the distance between the images is at a maximum in the direction of action of the paretic muscles. Secondly, paresis of the horizontally acting muscles tends to produce mainly horizontal diplopia. Lastly, the image projected further from the centre belongs to the paretic eye.
The most common causes of sixth nerve palsy in adults are diabetes, hypertension, atherosclerosis, trauma and idiopathic palsy. A right abducens (sixth nerve) palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that worsens on rightward gaze. On the other hand, a left abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that is more widely separated on looking to the left.
Trochlear nerve palsy causes weakness or paralysis to the superior oblique muscle resulting in vertical or torsional diplopia. A left trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical or torsional diplopia, while a right trochlear nerve palsy would have the same effect on the opposite eye.
A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic outward and downward position in the affected eye. The lateral rectus (innervated by the abducens nerve) maintains muscle tone in comparison with the paralysed medial rectus, causing outward displacement. The superior oblique muscle (innervated by the trochlear nerve) is not antagonised by the paralysed superior and inferior rectus muscles and the inferior oblique, causing downward displacement. There will also be ptosis and pupil dilation of the affected eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old man who has come to see you for the result of his recent colonoscopy. The report states:
Good bowel preparation, optimal views, no intraluminal mass seen appearances consistent with melanosis coli and confirmed on biopsy.
What is the cause of this gentleman's colonoscopy findings?Your Answer: Carcinoma in-situ
Correct Answer: Inflammatory colitis
Explanation:Melanosis Coli: A Benign Condition Caused by Laxative Use
Many gastroenterology departments now offer rapid access for endoscopy directly from primary care. Consequently, GPs increasingly have endoscopy reports sent back to them for patients who can be managed in primary care and do not need any further hospital input.
In this case, the endoscopy report identified melanosis coli, a benign condition that causes pigmentation of the colon wall. This condition is typically caused by long-term use of anthraquinone laxatives such as senna. The lesions are not due to melanin but rather a brown pigment called lipofuscin, which is deposited in macrophages in the colonic mucosa.
It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a feature of inflammatory colitis or diverticular disease. Colonic lesions are often biopsied, and as in this case, the biopsy confirms the clinical diagnosis and doesn’t suggest the presence of carcinoma.
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition that causes gastrointestinal polyps. Patients with this condition can display mucocutaneous pigmentation and perioral freckling. Polyps may undergo malignant transformation, and sufferers of this condition have a 12-fold increased risk of carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Vasculitic ulcer
Correct Answer: Venous ulcer
Explanation:Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers
Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.
In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.
To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman of Chinese origin presents to you in surgery to discuss her recurrent nosebleeds. They started 3 months ago and have been occurring unprovoked with increasing frequency. She is not on any anticoagulants, has never had any previous episodes of unexplained or excessive bleeding, and has no family history of any bleeding disorders. On further questioning, the nosebleeds always seem to be from the right nostril which feels a bit blocked. She has tried 2 weeks of Naseptin (chlorhexidine dihydrochloride and neomycin sulfate nasal cream) with no change in her symptoms. She mentions that the previous GP she saw asked about weight loss which she denied at the time, however, she volunteers that she has been tightening her belt more now. Blood tests reveal normal coagulation screen, haemoglobin within the normal range and a thrombocytosis. What condition is it most important to investigate for?
Your Answer: Nasal polyps
Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal cancer
Explanation:The NICE guidelines advise referring patients with recurrent epistaxis and a high risk of underlying disorders to ear, nose and throat for investigation. This patient, who is of Chinese origin and has recurrent nosebleeds, nasal obstruction, and weight loss, is at high risk of nasopharyngeal cancer due to his ethnicity and age. The full blood count results show thrombocytosis, which may indicate malignancy. Hereditary telangiectasia and Von Willebrand’s disease are unlikely due to the absence of a family history and the onset of nosebleeds in later life. Nasal polyps do not typically cause epistaxis, but may present with nasal obstruction, postnasal drip, snoring, or obstructive sleep apnoea. The patient’s age rules out angiofibroma as a possible cause, as this benign tumour typically occurs in pre-pubescent and adolescent males and is rare over the age of 25.
Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.
To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 19-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She has no significant medical history. In the past, she had a rash on her cheeks that did not improve with Antifungal cream.
During the examination, her vital signs are normal, and there is no joint swelling or redness. However, she experiences tenderness when her hands are squeezed. Her muscle strength is 5/5 in all groups.
Sarah's maternal aunt has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and she is worried that she might have the same condition. Which of the following blood tests, if negative, can be a useful rule-out test?Your Answer: ANCA
Correct Answer: ANA
Explanation:A useful test to rule out SLE is ANA positivity, as the majority of patients with SLE are ANA positive. While CRP and ESR may rise during an acute flare of SLE, they are not specific to autoimmune conditions. ANCA is an antibody associated with autoimmune vasculitis, not SLE.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).
Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.
According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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