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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.

      Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.

      Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.

      Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.

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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old man with advanced lung disease due to cystic fibrosis (CF) is...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with advanced lung disease due to cystic fibrosis (CF) is being evaluated for a possible lung transplant. What respiratory pathogen commonly found in CF patients would make him ineligible for transplantation if present?

      Your Answer: Burkholderia cenocepacia

      Explanation:

      Common Respiratory Pathogens in Cystic Fibrosis and Their Impact on Lung Transplantation

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. Patients with CF are prone to chronic respiratory infections, which can lead to accelerated lung function decline and poor outcomes following lung transplantation. Here are some common respiratory pathogens in CF and their impact on lung transplantation:

      Burkholderia cenocepacia: This Gram-negative bacterium is associated with poor outcomes following lung transplantation and renders a patient ineligible for transplantation in the UK.

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA): This Gram-positive bacterium is resistant to many antibiotics but is not usually a contraindication to lung transplantation. Attempts at eradicating the organism from the airways should be made.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This Gram-negative bacterium is the dominant respiratory pathogen in adults with CF and can cause accelerated lung function decline. However, it is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      Aspergillus fumigatus: This fungus is commonly isolated from sputum cultures of CF patients and may be associated with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Its presence does not necessarily mandate treatment and is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      Haemophilus influenzae: This Gram-negative bacterium is commonly seen in CF, particularly in children. It is not associated with accelerated lung function decline and is not a contraindication to transplantation.

      In summary, respiratory infections are a common complication of CF and can impact the success of lung transplantation. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to optimize patient outcomes.

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  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath,...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath, over the last month. Chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion.
      What would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Pleural aspirate

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Pleural Effusion: Choosing the Right Test

      When a patient presents with dyspnoea and a suspected pleural effusion, choosing the right investigation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Here are some of the most appropriate investigations for different types of pleural effusions:

      1. Pleural aspirate: This is the most appropriate next investigation to measure the protein content and determine whether the fluid is an exudate or a transudate.

      2. Computerised tomography (CT) of the chest: An exudative effusion would prompt investigation with CT of the chest or thoracoscopy to look for conditions such as malignancy or tuberculosis (TB).

      3. Bronchoscopy: Bronchoscopy would be appropriate if there was need to obtain a biopsy for a suspected tumour, but so far no lesion has been identified.

      4. Echocardiogram: A transudative effusion would prompt investigations such as an echocardiogram to look for heart failure, or liver imaging to look for cirrhosis.

      5. Spirometry: Spirometry would have been useful if chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was suspected, but at this stage the pleural effusion is likely the cause of dyspnoea and should be investigated.

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  • Question 4 - An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia...

    Correct

    • An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
      Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?

      Your Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP

      The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.

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  • Question 5 - A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.

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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss, and two episodes of hemoptysis in the past week. He has a history of smoking 40 pack years. Upon examination, there is stony dullness at the right base with absent breath sounds and decreased vocal resonance.

      Which of the following statements about mesothelioma is most accurate?

      Your Answer: It may have a lag period of up to 45 years between exposure and diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura, and while it can be caused by factors other than asbestos exposure, the majority of cases are linked to this cause. Asbestos was commonly used in various industries until the late 1970s/early 1980s, and the lag period between exposure and diagnosis can be up to 45 years. This means that the predicted peak of incidence of mesothelioma in the UK is around 2015-2020.

      Contrary to popular belief, smoking does not cause mesothelioma. However, smoking and asbestos exposure can act as synergistic risk factors for bronchial carcinoma. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for mesothelioma, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 5%. Treatment is supportive and palliative, with an emphasis on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.

      Diagnosis is usually made through CT imaging, with or without thoracoscopic-guided biopsy. Open lung biopsy is only considered if other biopsy methods are not feasible. Mesothelioma typically presents with a malignant pleural effusion, which can be difficult to distinguish from a pleural tumor on a plain chest X-ray. The effusion will be an exudate.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for early detection and management of this devastating disease.

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  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man comes to the Chest Clinic after being referred by his...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the Chest Clinic after being referred by his GP for a chronic cough. He complains of a dry cough that has been ongoing for 10 months and is accompanied by increasing shortness of breath. Despite multiple rounds of antibiotics, he has not experienced significant improvement. He has never smoked and denies any coughing up of blood. He used to work as a teacher and has not been exposed to any environmental dust or chemicals.

      His GP ordered a chest X-ray, which reveals reticular shadowing affecting both lung bases. Upon examination, he has clubbed fingers and fine-end inspiratory crackles. His heart sounds are normal, and he is saturating at 94% on room air with a regular heart rate of 80 bpm and regular respiratory rate of 20. There is no peripheral oedema.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Shortness of Breath and Clubbing: Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis as the Likely Diagnosis

      Shortness of breath and clubbing can be indicative of various respiratory and cardiac conditions. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, as evidenced by fine-end inspiratory crackles on examination, X-ray findings of bi-basal reticulonodular shadowing in a typical distribution, and the presence of clubbing. Bronchiectasis is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of purulent phlegm and coarse crackles, as well as chest X-ray findings inconsistent with dilated, thick-walled bronchi, make it less likely. Carcinoma of the lung is also a consideration, but the absence of a smoking history and chest X-ray findings make it less probable. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely without a smoking history and the absence of wheeze on examination. Congestive cardiac failure (CCF) can cause shortness of breath, but clubbing is typically only present in cases of congenital heart disease with right to left shunts, which is not demonstrated in this case. Overall, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical presentation and diagnostic findings.

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  • Question 8 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?

      Your Answer: Refer to a paediatrician

      Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)

      Explanation:

      Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment

      When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.

      If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.

      It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.

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  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He has recently developed a red/purple nodular rash on both shins. He has a history of mild asthma and continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. On examination, he has mild wheezing and red/purple nodules on both shins. His blood pressure is 135/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 75/min and regular. The following investigations were performed: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, sodium, potassium, creatinine, and corrected calcium. His chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Chest Symptoms, Erythema Nodosum, and Hypercalcaemia: Sarcoidosis vs. Other Conditions

      When a patient presents with chest symptoms, erythema nodosum, hypercalcaemia, and signs of systemic inflammation, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is usually performed to demonstrate the presence of non-caseating granulomata. Alternatively, skin lesions or lymph nodes may provide a source of tissue for biopsy. Corticosteroids are the main treatment for sarcoidosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include asthma, bronchial carcinoma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, the presence of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are more suggestive of sarcoidosis than these other conditions. While hypercalcaemia may be a symptom of primary hyperparathyroidism, the additional symptoms and findings in this patient suggest a more complex diagnosis.

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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old male graduate student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male graduate student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity for the past two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What diagnostic test would be most useful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators

      Correct Answer: Spirometry before and after exercise

      Explanation:

      Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma Diagnosis

      To confirm the suspected diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This patient is likely to have exercise-induced asthma, which means that his asthma symptoms are triggered by physical activity. Spirometry is a lung function test that measures how much air a person can inhale and exhale. By performing spirometry before and after exercise, doctors can compare the results and determine if there is a significant decrease in lung function after physical activity. If there is a significant decrease, it confirms the diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. This test is important because it helps doctors develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. With the right treatment, patients with exercise-induced asthma can still participate in physical activity and lead a healthy lifestyle.

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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Correct Answer: Nicotine gum

      Explanation:

      Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle

      The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.

      The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.

      When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.

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  • Question 13 - A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath on minimal exercise and a dry cough. He has been experiencing progressive shortness of breath over the past year. He is a smoker, consuming 20-30 cigarettes per day, and has occasional wheezing. On examination, he is clubbed and bilateral late-inspiratory crackles can be heard at both lung bases. A chest X-ray shows upper lobe nodular opacities. His test results show a haemoglobin level of 125 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.6 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 189 × 109/l (normal range: 150-410 × 109/l), a sodium level of 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 135 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l), an FVC of 2.1 litres (normal range: >4.05 litres), and an FEV1 of 1.82 litres (normal range: >3.15 litres). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Occupational interstitial lung disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Occupational Lung Diseases and Differential Diagnosis

      This patient’s history of working as a stonemason suggests a potential occupational exposure to silica dust, which can lead to silicosis. The restrictive lung defect seen in pulmonary function tests supports this diagnosis, which can be confirmed by high-resolution computerised tomography. Smoking cessation is crucial in slowing the progression of lung function decline.

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is another possible diagnosis, but the occupational exposure makes silicosis more likely. Occupational asthma, caused by specific workplace stimuli, is also a consideration, especially for those in certain occupations such as paint sprayers, food processors, welders, and animal handlers.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely due to the restrictive spirometry results, as it is characterised by an obstructive pattern. Non-occupational asthma is also less likely given the patient’s age, chest X-ray findings, and restrictive lung defect.

      In summary, the patient’s occupational history and pulmonary function tests suggest a potential diagnosis of silicosis, with other possible occupational lung diseases and differential diagnoses to consider.

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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.

      What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography

      Explanation:

      CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism

      Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.

      It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.

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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a persistent cough and drooping...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a persistent cough and drooping of his eyelid. He reports experiencing dryness on one side of his face. He denies any other medical issues but has a history of smoking for many years. What is the most suitable follow-up test?

      Your Answer: Spirometry

      Correct Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Suspected Lung Cancer and Horner Syndrome

      When a patient presents with a cough and a history of smoking, lung cancer should always be considered until proven otherwise. The initial investigation in this scenario is a chest X-ray. However, if the patient also presents with symptoms of Horner syndrome, such as eyelid drooping and facial dryness, it may suggest the presence of an apical lung tumour, specifically a Pancoast tumour.

      A sputum sample has no added benefit to the diagnosis in this case, and bronchoscopy may not be effective in accessing peripheral or apical tumours. Spirometry is not the initial investigation, but may be performed later to assess the patient’s functional capacity.

      If a lung tumour is confirmed, a CT-PET scan will be part of the staging investigations to look for any metastasis. However, due to their high radiation exposure, a chest X-ray remains the most appropriate initial investigation for suspected lung cancer.

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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?

      Your Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History

      Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.

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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED)...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) with haemoptysis. During his stay in the ED, he experiences another episode of frank haemoptysis, which measures 180 ml.
      A prompt computed tomography (CT) aortogram is conducted, revealing dilated and tortuous bronchial arteries.
      What action could potentially harm the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis patients

      Massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients can be a life-threatening complication. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration of blood and disturb clot formation. IV antibiotics should be given to treat acute inflammation related to pulmonary infection. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic drug, can be given orally or intravenously up to four times per day until bleeding is controlled. CF patients have impaired absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin K, which may lead to prolonged prothrombin time. In such cases, IV vitamin K should be given. Bronchial artery embolisation is often required to treat massive haemoptysis, particularly when larger hypertrophied bronchial arteries are seen on CT. This procedure is performed by an interventional vascular radiologist and may be done under sedation or general anaesthetic if the patient is in extremis.

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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing dyspnoea after returning from a trip to Australia. She has not had a period in three months. On examination, she has a fever of 37.5°C, a pulse rate of 110/min, a blood pressure of 106/74 mmHg, and saturations of 93% on room air. Her respiratory rate is 24/min and auscultation of the chest reveals vesicular breath sounds. Peak flow is 500 L/min and her ECG shows no abnormalities except for a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest x-ray is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors and Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism

      This patient presents with multiple risk factors for pulmonary embolism, including air travel and likely pregnancy. She is experiencing tachycardia and hypoxia, which require further explanation. However, there are no indications of a respiratory tract infection or acute asthma. It is important to note that an ECG and CXR may appear normal in cases of pulmonary embolism or may only show baseline tachycardia on the ECG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the patient’s risk factors and symptoms when evaluating for pulmonary embolism. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old female patient complains of breathlessness and weight loss over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old female patient complains of breathlessness and weight loss over the past three months. She is a smoker who consumes 10 cigarettes per day. During the examination, you observe clubbing of the fingers and a few crackles in the chest. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Causes of Clubbing

      Clubbing is a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded. It is often associated with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. One of the respiratory causes of clubbing is pulmonary fibrosis, which is characterized by weight loss and breathlessness. Other respiratory causes include bronchiectasis, empyema, bronchial carcinoma, and mesothelioma. These conditions can also lead to weight loss and breathlessness, making it important to seek medical attention if these symptoms are present. On the other hand, cardiovascular causes of clubbing include cyanotic congenital heart disease and infective endocarditis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Needle aspiration

      Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain

      Explanation:

      Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD

      When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.

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  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
      What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.

      Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.

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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that his trachea is centralized and there is decreased chest expansion on the left side, accompanied by a dull percussion note and diminished breath sounds. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleural effusion

      Explanation:

      Clinical Signs for Common Respiratory Conditions

      Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are common respiratory conditions that require accurate diagnosis for proper management. Here are the clinical signs to look out for:

      Pleural effusion: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, ‘stony dull’ or dull percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.

      Pneumothorax: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, hyper-resonant percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.

      Pulmonary embolism: respiratory examination is likely to be normal, there may be subtle signs related to the pulmonary embolism, eg pleural rub, or due to a chronic underlying chest disease.

      Pneumonia: trachea central, chest expansion likely to be normal, increased tactile vocal fremitus over area(s) of consolidation, dull percussion note over areas of consolidation, reduced air entry/bronchial breath sounds/crepitations on auscultation.

      Pulmonary edema: trachea central, chest expansion normal, normal vocal fremitus, resonant percussion note, likely to hear coarse basal crackles on auscultation.

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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study

      Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
      IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.

      Tuberculosis
      Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.

      Bronchiectasis
      Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
      Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.

      Sarcoidosis
      End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
      What should be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions

      When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.

      IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.

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  • Question 25 - You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start...

    Incorrect

    • You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
      Which of the following would be most important to advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 26 - A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.

      A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.

      Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.

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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
      What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs

      Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.

      β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.

      α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.

      β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.

      Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.

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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
      Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients

      COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.

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  • Question 29 - A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
      Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture

      Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.

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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has been experiencing a productive cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, and general malaise for the past week. Upon testing his sputum, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial phase of treatment. What drugs will he take during the continuation phase, which will last for four months after the initial two-month phase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin + Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Tuberculosis: Medications and Considerations

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The following are some of the medications used in the treatment of TB, along with important considerations to keep in mind:

      Rifampicin + Isoniazid
      This combination is used in the initial treatment of TB, which lasts for two months. Before starting treatment, it is important to check liver and kidney function, as these medications can be associated with liver toxicity. Ethambutol should be avoided in patients with renal impairment. If TB meningitis is diagnosed, the continuation phase of treatment should be extended to 10 months and a glucocorticoid should be used in the first two weeks of treatment. Side effects to watch for include visual disturbances with ethambutol and peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid.

      Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
      Pyrazinamide is used only in the initial two-month treatment, while rifampicin is used in both the initial and continuation phases.

      Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
      These medications are used only in the initial stage of TB treatment.

      Rifampicin alone
      Rifampicin is used in combination with isoniazid for the continuation phase of TB treatment.

      Rifampicin + Ethambutol
      Rifampicin is used in the continuation phase, while ethambutol is used only in the initial two-month treatment.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for TB, taking into account individual patient factors and potential medication side effects.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (10/20) 50%
Passmed