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  • Question 1 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the GP clinic with symptoms suggestive of a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the GP clinic with symptoms suggestive of a common cold. He is meeting his developmental milestones as expected, enjoys playing soccer, and has no other health concerns. During auscultation of his chest, you notice a soft, low-pitched murmur that occurs early in systole and is most audible at the lower left sternal border. S1 and a split S2 are both audible, with the latter becoming wider during inspiration. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Innocent murmur

      Explanation:

      Innocent Murmurs and Other Heart Conditions in Children

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are considered benign. They are diagnosed through clinical examination and history, and are characterized by a lack of associated symptoms such as feeding difficulties, shortness of breath, and cyanosis. Innocent murmurs are not loud and do not have associated heaves or thrills. They occur in systole and are associated with normal heart sounds. The Valsalva maneuver can reduce their intensity by reducing venous return.

      Other heart conditions in children may present with symptoms such as feeding difficulties, shortness of breath, and cyanosis. Abnormal pulses, heaves, and thrills may also be present during examination. Aortic stenosis may be associated with an ejection click and can cause shortness of breath and exertional syncope. Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur and may present with cyanosis or breathing difficulties. Pulmonary stenosis is characterized by a widely split second heart sound and may have an ejection systolic click. Ventricular septal defects produce a harsh pan-systolic sound and may be asymptomatic if small.

      the differences between innocent murmurs and other heart conditions in children is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Innocent murmurs are common and benign, while other conditions may require further evaluation and intervention. Clinical examination and history are key in identifying these conditions and determining the appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within 6 hours after delivery, the neonate shows signs of excessive respiratory efforts and tachypnoea. There is grunting and intercostal retraction. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary oedema with a ground-glass appearance. What antenatal examination findings are most likely to have been observed in the mother?

      Your Answer: Fasting blood sugar of 14.0 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The neonate in question has a fasting blood sugar level of 14.0 mmol/l and is suffering from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS). This is a common condition in premature infants, and those born to diabetic mothers are at an increased risk due to delayed lung maturation. An elevated total thyroxine concentration is a normal response to pregnancy and is not related to NRDS. Maternal hypocalcaemia also has no relation to NRDS. A positive indirect Coombs’ test indicates a risk of Rh isoimmunisation in the fetus, which can lead to complications such as erythroblastosis fetalis and jaundice, but is not directly related to NRDS. Elevated titres of anti-nuclear and anti-SSA antibodies are associated with maternal systemic lupus erythematosus and fetal conduction heart block, but again, this is not directly related to NRDS unless it leads to preterm birth. Overall, prematurity and maternal diabetes are the major risk factors for NRDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      59.8
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. She inquires about the MenB vaccine and when it is typically administered. Can you provide this information?

      Your Answer: At 4 and 12-13 months of age

      Correct Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months

      Explanation:

      The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been included in the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine is given at 2 and 4 months, with a booster at 12 months, replacing the MenC vaccine that was previously given at 3 months. Additionally, individuals with certain long-term health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are recommended to receive the MenB vaccine due to their increased risk of complications from meningococcal disease. It is important to note that the vaccine does not contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old child presents to the emergency department with symptoms of feeling generally unwell, being off food, and bleeding from the back passage. The child's mother reports no nausea or vomiting. On examination, the patient appears distressed and is tender in the right lower quadrant. No masses are felt in the abdomen. Vital signs show a heart rate of 170 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, blood pressure of 68/37 mmHg, and temperature of 36.2 ºC. The patient has no known medical conditions or regular medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      The patient does not exhibit any of the typical symptoms associated with appendicitis, such as fever, nausea, vomiting, or loss of appetite. While paroxysmal abdominal colic pain is a common feature of many conditions, an underlying pathological cause has not been identified in this case. The child does not display the sudden onset of inconsolable crying episodes or pallor that is often seen in cases of colic. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, a rare genetic disorder that causes hamartomatous polyposis, is unlikely given the patient’s age. Cecal volvulus, which is characterized by sudden onset colicky lower abdominal pain, abdominal distension, and a failure to pass flatus or stool, is also an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a small pouch in the small intestine that is present from birth. It is a leftover part of the omphalomesenteric duct, which is also known as the vitellointestinal duct. The diverticulum can contain tissue from the ileum, stomach, or pancreas. This condition is relatively rare, occurring in only 2% of the population. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically located about 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve and is around 2 inches long.

      In most cases, Meckel’s diverticulum does not cause any symptoms and is only discovered incidentally during medical tests. However, it can cause abdominal pain that is similar to appendicitis, rectal bleeding, and intestinal obstruction. In fact, it is the most common cause of painless massive gastrointestinal bleeding in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

      To diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum, doctors may perform a Meckel’s scan using a radioactive substance that has an affinity for gastric mucosa. In more severe cases, mesenteric arteriography may be necessary. Treatment typically involves surgical removal of the diverticulum if it has a narrow neck or is causing symptoms. The options for surgery include wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is caused by a failure of the attachment between the vitellointestinal duct and the yolk sac to disappear during fetal development. The diverticulum is typically lined with ileal mucosa, but it can also contain ectopic gastric, pancreatic, or jejunal mucosa. This can increase the risk of peptic ulceration and other complications. Meckel’s diverticulum is often associated with other conditions such as enterocystomas, umbilical sinuses, and omphalocele fistulas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the paediatric emergency department with a 4-day history of vomiting and fever. He has no significant medical history. On examination, his urine dipstick is positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood. An abdominal ultrasound rules out a posterior urethral valve but shows retrograde flow of urine into the ureters from the bladder. What is the most suitable initial investigation for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG)

      Explanation:

      The preferred investigation for reflux nephropathy is micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG). MCUG is considered the most reliable method for diagnosing vesicoureteric reflux and associated reflux nephropathy. During the procedure, a catheter is inserted into the patient’s bladder, and a radio-opaque dye is injected. The patient then empties their bladder, and x-rays are taken to detect any reflux of the dye into the ureters, which confirms the diagnosis of vesicoureteric reflux and reflux nephropathy.

      CT kidneys ureters and bladder is an inappropriate investigation for reflux nephropathy, as it cannot detect this condition. This type of scan is typically used to diagnose kidney stones, not reflux nephropathy.

      DMSA scan is not the first-line investigation for reflux nephropathy. While DMSA scans can be used to assess the extent of renal scarring caused by vesicoureteric reflux, they are not the preferred method for diagnosing this condition. DMSA scans are nuclear imaging scans, which makes them unsuitable as a first-line investigation for suspected reflux nephropathy.

      Intravenous pyelography is not used to assess reflux nephropathy. This type of investigation is typically used to evaluate haematuria or flank pain.

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at 0700 h. She is very concerned. She reports that he has been crying all night. She has two older children: a 4-year-old daughter Allison and a 2-year-old son James, who are both well. Henry was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery. She developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. Henry has had all his vaccinations. He was breastfed until 6 months old, then bottle-fed. Mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since 0400 h this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed. The first vomit contained food only, the second time it was greenish. Mom has not noticed a change in faeces or urine, except that she has not had to change his nappies since last night. On examination: crying, warm and well perfused, heart rate 150 beats per minute (bpm), abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. When you look in his nappies, you notice his stools look like redcurrant jelly.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children

      Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features and treatment options. Here are some of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in children:

      1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another segment, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or viral in origin. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools. Air enema is the preferred treatment.

      2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.

      3. Meconium obstruction: This occurs only in newborns and is characterized by failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. It is more common in babies with cystic fibrosis. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or shortly after birth, and treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery.

      4. Ileus: This is aperistaltic bowel caused by factors such as abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection. It presents similarly to mechanical obstruction but is unlikely to be the cause if the child was previously well and has not had recent surgery.

      5. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that occurs only in neonates and is associated with Down’s syndrome. It leads to bilious vomiting and proximal stomach distension soon after birth, and a double bubble sign on X-ray. It is caused by failure of recanalization of small bowel in early fetal life. Treatment involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 3-month-old girl is presented to the pediatrician by her father. The baby...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old girl is presented to the pediatrician by her father. The baby has been struggling with feeding since birth, is frequently fussy, and her lips turn blue after crying for extended periods. She was born at term, weighing 2500 grams. During the examination, the doctor detects an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by cyanosis or collapse within the first month of life, as well as hypercyanotic spells and an ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal edge. The presence of poor feeding, agitation, and low birth weight also suggest this diagnosis. It’s important to note that the murmur is caused by pulmonary stenosis, not the ventricular septal defect, which is too large to produce a murmur. An atrial septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus are unlikely as they are acyanotic shunts that produce different symptoms and sounds on auscultation. Transposition of the great arteries is also not a possibility as it presents with different symptoms immediately after delivery.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man has been experiencing muscle weakness and cramps, and after extensive...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has been experiencing muscle weakness and cramps, and after extensive investigation, it has been determined that he has a rare form of myopathy. His family history reveals that his mother, maternal grandmother, brother, maternal aunt, and her two sons are all affected by the same condition. Interestingly, his maternal uncle has the disease, but none of his children do. There is no evidence of the disease on the paternal side, and his wife has no family history of the disorder. What is the likelihood that his biological children will inherit the myopathy from him?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly...

    Correct

    • A 3-month-old infant is brought in with progressive noisy breathing that is particularly noticeable during feeding. The baby is below average in weight gain and has a poor appetite. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for stridor in infants is laryngomalacia, which is characterized by a soft epiglottis that collapses into the airway during inhalation. Although it typically resolves on its own, if the stridor worsens and causes respiratory distress or hinders feeding, surgery may be necessary to enhance the airway.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned...

    Correct

    • A 36-month-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic. She is an orphaned refugee who recently arrived in the United Kingdom and has no medical history.

      Her foster parents have brought her to the clinic as they have noticed that she becomes easily breathless on exertion or after a bath and squats down to catch her breath. During these times, they notice that her lips turn blue.

      Upon examination, you find that she is on the 10th centile for height and weight, her lips are slightly dusky, she has good air entry bilaterally in her chest, and she has a normal heart rate at rest with a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge with an associated thrill.

      A chest x-ray reveals decreased vascular markings and a normal-sized heart. Electrocardiography (ECG) shows sinus rhythm with right axis deviation and deep S waves in V5 and V6.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a common cyanotic congenital heart condition characterized by four abnormalities. Symptoms are determined by the degree of shunting of deoxygenated blood from right to left, which is influenced by the degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (RVOTO) and other ways blood can get to the lungs. Squatting can relieve cyanotic episodes by increasing peripheral vascular resistance. The child in question has a loud ejection systolic murmur at the upper left sternal edge in keeping with the turbulent flow of blood across the stenosed RVOT. Isolated pulmonary stenosis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the history of squatting is highly suggestive of TOF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of...

    Correct

    • Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of the 'Infant Hearing Screening Programme'? And if the results are abnormal, what is the next hearing test they will have?

      Your Answer: Auditory Brainstem Response test as a newborn/infant

      Explanation:

      When a newborn baby’s hearing test at birth shows an abnormal result, they are recommended to undergo an auditory brainstem response test as a newborn or infant. Prior to being discharged from the hospital, all newborns should have an acoustic emission test, which involves placing a soft earpiece in the baby’s ear and playing quiet clicking sounds to detect inner ear responses. If this test yields abnormal results, the auditory brainstem response test is conducted using three sensors placed on the baby’s head and neck, along with soft headphones to play sounds and analyze the brain and hearing nerve responses. At 6-9 months of age, a distraction test is performed, and most areas in the UK conduct pure tone audiometry at school entry.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of...

    Correct

    • You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of a patient on the 30th day after birth. The classification of the patient's death is being debated. What is the appropriate classification for this case?

      Your Answer: Neonatal death

      Explanation:

      Neonatal death is the term used to describe the death of a baby within the first 28 days of life. This classification is important for public health interventions and is a common topic in exams. Miscarriage, on the other hand, is defined as the death of a fetus before 24 weeks of gestation in the UK, or before 28 weeks globally. Puerperal death refers to the death of a mother within the first 6 weeks after giving birth. Perinatal death is a broader term that includes stillbirths and deaths within the first week of life, often resulting from obstetric events. Early neonatal death refers to death within the first week of life, while late neonatal death refers to death after 7 days but before 28 days of life.

      Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics

      Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.

      Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.

      These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old girl is diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder and prescribed methylphenidate....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder and prescribed methylphenidate. What should be monitored during her treatment?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram to measure QRS duration every 12 months

      Correct Answer: Growth

      Explanation:

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician with her parents. She has...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician with her parents. She has a history of bedwetting and has been using an enuresis alarm which has been helping her. However, she expresses her fear of going to a sleepover because she doesn't want her friends to know about her bedwetting. Her mother is hesitant to let her go without the alarm. Upon examination, the girl appears healthy and a urine dipstick test is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Offer a short course of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is a suitable option for managing enuresis in the short term. Starting a short course of desmopressin may be beneficial if the priority is to improve bed wetting. However, commencing long-term use of desmopressin is not recommended in this case, as the patient has been responding well to an enuresis alarm and requires a short-term solution. Encouraging the parents to pack the enuresis alarm may not be helpful, as it could cause the patient further distress and worsen their nocturnal enuresis. Similarly, recommending a short-term rewards system is not the best option, as reward systems are designed for longer-term use and may not address the immediate concern.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

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  • Question 15 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father,...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in to see his GP by his father, who reports that he has been complaining of a sore throat and has developed a skin rash over the past few days. During examination, you observe erythematous macules and papules measuring 3-4 mm on the dorsum of his hands and feet. You diagnose him with hand, foot and mouth disease. The father inquires if his son should stay home from school. What guidance will you provide regarding school exclusion?

      Your Answer: No need to stay off school if she feels well

      Explanation:

      Exclusion from a childcare setting or school is not necessary for a child with hand, foot and mouth disease, as long as they are feeling well.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A mother brings her 6-week-old son to your GP. Her son has been...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 6-week-old son to your GP. Her son has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past three weeks. He has now developed a cough which had caused concern. The mother describes coughing followed by periods in which the child stops breathing and turns blue. The child appears lethargic.
      What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this illness?

      Your Answer: Bordetella pertussis

      Explanation:

      When infants have whooping cough, they may not have the typical whoop sound due to their inability to take a deep breath after coughing. Instead, they may experience apnoeas and cyanosis. Based on the symptoms of coryza followed by severe coughing fits, it is likely that the cause of this child’s condition is Bordetella pertussis. Klebsiella pneumoniae is an unlikely cause as it typically affects patients in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus commonly causes skin infections and pneumonia from this bacteria is more common after surgery. While Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause pneumococcal disease, which is a possibility in this case, it typically presents with sudden onset fever, malaise, and a cough with purulent or bloody sputum.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.

      What is the most suitable answer?

      Your Answer: Provide more enzyme supplements

      Correct Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 18 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP clinic complaining of abdominal pain that has been ongoing for 3 days. She has been eating and drinking normally, has no urinary symptoms, and her bowel habits have not changed. She had a mild cold last week, but it has since resolved. Other than this, she is a healthy and happy child. On examination, her abdomen is soft but tender to the touch throughout. Her temperature is 37.5 degrees Celsius. Her chest is clear, and her heart sounds are normal. What is the most probable cause of this girl's abdominal pain?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing abdominal pain after a recent viral illness, which is a common precursor to mesenteric adenitis. However, the child is still able to eat and drink normally, indicating that it is unlikely to be appendicitis. Additionally, the child is passing normal stools, making constipation an unlikely cause. The absence of vomiting also makes gastroenteritis an unlikely diagnosis. While abdominal migraine is a possibility, it is less likely than mesenteric adenitis in this particular case.

      Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.

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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric clinic by her father with a sore throat that worsens with swallowing, headaches, and malaise. He reports no coughing.

      Upon examination, her temperature is 38.5ºC, her heart rate is 100 bpm, and her tonsils are symmetrically enlarged and red, with white patches present. There is tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The doctor's overall impression is that of an ill child.

      The patient has no medical history but is allergic to penicillin. What is the most appropriate immediate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Recommend analgesia and supportive treatment

      Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospital admission is necessary for a child with fevers who appears unwell to a paediatric healthcare professional, as this is considered a red flag indicating severe illness. In this case, the child has a Centor score of 4 and presents with tonsillitis symptoms, including tonsillar exudate, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and no cough. While antibiotic treatment may be warranted, the priority is to admit the child for assessment and management of their condition. Delayed antibiotic prescription or prescribing a specific antibiotic, such as clarithromycin or phenoxymethylpenicillin, would not be appropriate in this situation.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).

      What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?

      Your Answer: Weight and height

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

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  • Question 21 - A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father....

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her father. He noticed this morning that she was very drowsy and not feeding very much. When he measured her temperature it was 38.5ºC. She was born at 37 weeks gestation with an uncomplicated delivery. There is no past medical history or family history and she does not require any regular medications.

      On examination she is lethargic but responds to voice by opening her eyes. She is mildly hypotonic and febrile. There is a non-blanching rash on her torso that her father says was not there this morning.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone + IV amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: IV amoxicillin + IV cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

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  • Question 22 - A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was initially evaluated by a paediatric neurologist at the age of 5 years due to unsteady gait and toe walking. His gait unsteadiness began around the age of 4 years with frequent falls, and he had also developed hand tremors prior to this visit. Upon further examination, he was found to have pes cavus, mild scoliosis, and no cardiac murmur. What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: X-linked recessive

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This is the most common type of hereditary ataxia and typically presents with symptoms before the age of 25, including ataxia, cardiomyopathy, motor weakness, pes cavus foot deformity, and scoliosis. It should be noted that Friedreich’s ataxia is not inherited in an autosomal dominant or X-linked recessive manner, nor is it caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal recessive conditions are genetic disorders that occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. These conditions are often referred to as ‘metabolic’ as they affect the body’s metabolic processes. However, there are notable exceptions, such as X-linked recessive conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD, and autosomal dominant conditions like hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      Some ‘structural’ conditions, like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia, are also autosomal recessive. The following conditions are examples of autosomal recessive disorders: albinism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, cystinuria, familial Mediterranean fever, Fanconi anemia, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, lipid storage disease (Tay-Sach’s, Gaucher, Niemann-Pick), mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler’s), PKU, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, and Wilson’s disease.

      It is worth noting that Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate, and many textbooks list it as autosomal dominant. Nonetheless, understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management.

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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her parents deny any trauma and have no history with social services. She recently had a cold which resolved on its own.
      The child has no medical history and was born at term through vaginal delivery. She has met all developmental milestones and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      During examination, a petechial rash is observed on the child's legs. She appears healthy without other signs of bleeding.
      Her blood tests show:
      Hb 140 g/L Female: (120-160)
      Platelets 25 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral corticosteroid

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      It is important to advise patients to avoid any trauma as it can impact the resolution of ITP, whether or not treatment is administered. Administering oral corticosteroids is not recommended as it is not necessary for a child who is not actively bleeding and the platelet count will typically recover on its own. Similarly, IV corticosteroids should not be used as they pose unnecessary risks for a child who will likely recover without the need for non-specific immunosuppressants. IV immunoglobulin is also not a suitable option as the child is not exhibiting any signs of active or previous bleeding and their platelet count is sufficient.

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
      What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?

      Your Answer: Ependymoma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults

      Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:

      Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.

      Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.

      Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.

      Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.

      In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after noticing bruising on her arms. The bruising started 2 days ago and has gotten worse. The girl has no significant medical history, but had a mild cold 4 weeks ago. Upon examination, the only notable finding is extensive bruising on her upper limbs and neck. Routine blood tests were conducted and the results are as follows (with age-appropriate reference ranges): Hb 85 g/L (110-140), Platelets 68 * 109/L (150-450), WBC 19.0 * 109/L (5.0-17.0), Neutrophils 0.72 * 109/L (1.5-8.0).

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for a 6-year-old boy presenting with bruising, anaemia, and neutropenia is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, which is the most common form of childhood leukaemia. Other forms of leukaemia, such as acute myeloid leukaemia, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, and chronic myeloid leukaemia, are less likely to be found in children and therefore not the best answer. It is important to note that CML is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome and often presents with fatigue and mild anaemia symptoms.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

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  • Question 26 - A 3-year-old child is admitted with poor appetite. Over the last 24 hours,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is admitted with poor appetite. Over the last 24 hours, they have eaten only 25% of their usual amount and have had significantly fewer wet diapers than usual. The child has been particularly irritable over this time and is not settling. There is no past medical history, no known allergies, and there has been no travel outside of the UK.

      On examination, the child appears unsettled and grouchy. There are no rashes on exposure and the fontanelles appear normal. The physical observations reveal tachycardia and a fever of 39ºC. When you attempt to manually flex the child's neck you note that they also flex the hips and knees.

      What is the most appropriate empirical intravenous treatment for this child?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime + amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - You are discussing conception with two parents who both have achondroplasia. They ask...

    Correct

    • You are discussing conception with two parents who both have achondroplasia. They ask you what the chances are that a child of theirs would be of average height. What is the appropriate answer?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.

      In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.

      Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.

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  • Question 28 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father passed away two weeks ago. He is feeling very emotional and is hesitant to return to school. He has no known risk factors for depression.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing his situation?

      Your Answer: Supportive chat, provide resources and arrange follow-up

      Explanation:

      Managing Traumatic Life Events in Children: Appropriate Interventions and Referrals

      When a child experiences a traumatic life event, it is important to provide appropriate interventions and referrals to prevent the development of depression. For children with low risk of developing depression, a supportive chat, resource provision, and follow-up should be the first line of management. Urgent referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) is only necessary if the child has two or more risk factors for depression or is currently displaying signs of depression.

      Encouraging the child to return to school as soon as possible is also crucial. The school can offer support and help the child maintain contact with peers. Referral to CAMHS should only be considered if the child meets the criteria mentioned above.

      Initiating antidepressant medication such as fluoxetine should be done in secondary care and is not recommended for this child at present. By following appropriate interventions and referrals, we can help children cope with traumatic life events and prevent the development of depression.

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  • Question 29 - A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ºC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.

      After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 15 minutes

      Correct Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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  • Question 30 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a seal-like barking cough. His mom is worried as he seems to be struggling with his breathing, especially at night.

      On examination, he is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. His observations are as follows:

      Heart rate: 90 bpm
      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
      Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
      Temperature: 37.2 C°

      You suspect croup. What statement best fits this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: The treatment is oral dexamethasone for 3 days

      Correct Answer: It is more common in autumn

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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  • Question 31 - A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old is brought to the emergency department with a suspected UTI and responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours. An ultrasound may be necessary to determine if this is a typical or atypical UTI. What is the most common indicator of an atypical UTI?

      Your Answer: Abdominal pain

      Correct Answer: Poor urine flow

      Explanation:

      If an infant under 6 months shows signs of an atypical UTI, it is important to schedule an ultrasound scan during their acute admission. Atypical UTI may be indicated by symptoms such as poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to appropriate antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms. However, raised white blood cells alone do not necessarily indicate septicaemia, and abdominal pain is a common symptom of UTI but does not necessarily indicate an atypical UTI.

      Urinary tract infections (UTI) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. Presentation in childhood depends on age, with infants showing poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, younger children showing abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria, and older children showing dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. NICE guidelines recommend checking urine samples in children with symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, unexplained fever of 38°C or higher, or an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell. Urine collection should be done through clean catch or urine collection pads, and invasive methods should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible. Management includes referral to a paediatrician for infants less than 3 months old, admission to hospital for children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI, and oral antibiotics for 3-10 days for children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

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  • Question 32 - A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who reports that he has been having difficulties at school for the past year. The patient has a medical history of recurrent otitis media. The mother mentions that her nephew and niece have both required extra assistance at school, and the latter has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The patient had a normal birth history and early childhood development. On examination, he has an elongated face and protruding ears. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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  • Question 33 - A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a cold. She has been experiencing a fever, runny nose, headache, and a dry cough for a few days. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature has not gone down, which worries her mother. The patient is alert, comfortable, and well-hydrated. During the examination, her temperature is 38.9ºC, heart rate is 110 bpm, blood pressure is 90/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute. Her chest is clear, throat is slightly red, and there are no signs of tonsillitis. Otoscopy shows no abnormalities, and her ears are non-tender. There are no rashes, photophobia, or neck stiffness. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise that this is likely viral, safety-net on importance of hydration and send home with antipyretics

      Correct Answer: Initiate sepsis six protocol

      Explanation:

      Children over the age of 12 have vital signs similar to adults. However, if a child presents with symptoms of sepsis, such as a high temperature, elevated heart rate, low blood pressure, and increased respiratory rate, it is important to initiate the sepsis six protocol and conduct further investigations to determine the source of infection. In such cases, it is not appropriate to send the child home or administer additional doses of antipyretics. Aspirin should not be given to children due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. Broad-spectrum IV antibiotics should be administered if there is a suspected bacterial infection causing sepsis.

      Age-appropriate Vital Signs for Children

      Paediatric vital signs vary depending on the age of the child. The table below provides age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. For children under one year old, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute is considered normal. For children between the ages of one and two, a heart rate of 100-150 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-35 breaths per minute is normal. Children between the ages of two and five should have a heart rate of 90-140 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 25-30 breaths per minute. For children between the ages of five and twelve, a heart rate of 80-120 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 20-25 breaths per minute is normal. Finally, for children over the age of twelve, a heart rate of 60-100 beats per minute and a respiratory rate of 15-20 breaths per minute is considered normal. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these age-appropriate vital sign ranges in order to properly assess the health of children.

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  • Question 34 - A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.

      What mutation is he most likely to have?

      Your Answer: BRCA mutation

      Explanation:

      Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.

      There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.

      It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.

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  • Question 35 - A 14-month-old boy is referred to paediatrics by his GP due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy is referred to paediatrics by his GP due to concerns that he is still not attempting to 'pull to stand'. He was born at 28 weeks by emergency cesarean section due to foetal distress and weighed 1.2kg at birth.

      On examination, he appears healthy and engaged. He responds to his name and has 8 meaningful words. He can drink from a cup using both hands. When put on the floor, he commando crawls to move around. Upper limb tone is normal however lower limb tone is significantly increased.

      Based on this patient's symptoms, where in the brain/nervous system has damage occurred?

      Your Answer: Upper motor neurons in the cerebellum

      Correct Answer: Upper motor neurons in the periventricular white matter

      Explanation:

      Damage to upper motor neurons is the cause of spastic cerebral palsy.

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

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  • Question 36 - A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of pain in...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with complaints of pain in the right iliac fossa. Upon examination, there is no rebound tenderness or guarding. Routine bloods and urine dipstick tests show normal results. The child's mother mentions that her daughter had a viral infection a few days ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      Abdominal tenderness and guarding are indicative of appendicitis, while a negative urine dipstick is not typical of pyelonephritis.

      Mesenteric adenitis refers to the inflammation of lymph nodes located in the mesentery. This condition can cause symptoms that are similar to those of appendicitis, making it challenging to differentiate between the two. Mesenteric adenitis is commonly observed after a recent viral infection and typically does not require any treatment.

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  • Question 37 - A 7-year-old girl has been brought to the GP with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl has been brought to the GP with a 2-day history of fever, malaise, and sore throat. She also has some facial redness that started yesterday evening. On examination, there is flushing of the cheeks and a fine, blanching, erythematosus rash that feels like sandpaper on the anterior aspect of the neck. There is erythema of the tonsils and tongue, without exudate. The GP also notices some erythematosus, non-tender lines in the creases of the elbows. The GP decides to prescribe a 10-day course of antibiotics.

      What advice should the mother be given regarding her child's return to school?

      Your Answer: They must finish the course of antibiotics before returning to school

      Correct Answer: They can return to school 24 hours after taking the first dose of antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If a child has scarlet fever, they can go back to school after 24 hours of taking antibiotics. The symptoms of tonsillopharyngitis (red tonsils and a tongue that looks like a strawberry) and maculopapular exanthem (a rash that feels like sandpaper and lines on the elbows) suggest that the child has scarlet fever. The GP does not need to see the child again because antibiotics should help them recover. However, the child should not go back to school right away because they may still be contagious. The antibiotics will last for 10 days, but the child only needs to wait for 1 day before returning to school. Alternatively, after 7 days, the child will no longer be contagious and can go back to school as usual.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 38 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

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  • Question 39 - A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman undergoes antenatal haemoglobinopathy screening and is found to have sickle cell trait. The father of the child agrees to further screening and is found to have the HbAS genotype. What is the probability of their offspring having sickle cell disease?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      Autosomal recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where a disorder is only expressed when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. This means that only homozygotes, individuals with two copies of the mutated gene, are affected. Both males and females are equally likely to be affected, and the disorder may not manifest in every generation, as it can skip a generation.

      When two heterozygote parents, carriers of the mutated gene, have children, there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child, a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child, and a 25% chance of having an unaffected child. On the other hand, if one parent is homozygote for the gene and the other is unaffected, all the children will be carriers.

      Autosomal recessive disorders are often metabolic in nature and can be life-threatening compared to autosomal dominant conditions. Understanding the inheritance pattern of autosomal recessive disorders is crucial in genetic counseling and family planning.

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  • Question 40 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his parents after they witnessed him having a seizure. He had been experiencing a fever and cold symptoms for the past three days. His father also noticed a rash on his chest and a swollen tongue yesterday. The boy has met all of his developmental milestones prior to this incident.

      After being assessed, the medical team has determined that the boy is safe to go home. What advice should the parents be given?

      Your Answer: An ambulance must be called immediately if another seizure occurs

      Correct Answer: An ambulance must be called if another seizure occurs and persists for longer than five minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than five minutes, they should call an ambulance. The presence of a sandpaper rash and strawberry tongue in the vignette suggests a diagnosis of scarlet fever, which is often associated with febrile seizures. However, it is important to note that simple febrile seizures lasting only a few minutes are generally not a cause for concern. It is not recommended to prescribe prophylactic antipyretics as they have not been shown to reduce seizure frequency according to NICE guidelines. Referral to a paediatric neurologist is only necessary if the child has neurodevelopmental delay or signs of a neurocutaneous syndrome or metabolic disorder.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (22/40) 55%
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