00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows that has been getting worse over the past week. Upon examination, you observe multiple flat-topped papular lesions that are polygonal and measure 5mm in diameter on the flexural surface of her elbows bilaterally. There are no other rashes on the rest of her body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:
      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l
      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, post-partum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. The latter is rare but can occur in elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should not receive iodinated contrast medium as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over 2-12 weeks due to a large iodine load to the thyroid.

      Investigations for thyrotoxicosis include measuring TSH, which is typically low, and T4 and T3, which are elevated. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be tested. Isotope scanning may be done in some cases, but other investigations are not routinely performed. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in a Venn diagram. Understanding the causes and investigations of thyrotoxicosis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on exertion and a non-productive cough that has been bothering her for the past 4 months. During the examination, the doctor notices clubbing and crepitations at the lung bases. Lung function tests reveal a decreased vital capacity and an elevated FEV1:FVC ratio. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis

      Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, is a disorder that typically affects individuals between the ages of 50 and 70 years, with a slightly higher incidence in men than women. The condition is characterized by progressive breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While excessive sputum production is uncommon in the early stages, constitutional symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy may occur. Finger clubbing is a common finding in patients with cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis.

      While haemoptysis is rare, it may suggest the development of lung malignancy, which occurs with an increased risk in patients with this condition. It is important to note that the risk of lung cancer does not exclude the possibility of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis. Chest pain is uncommon in this condition.

      There is no definitive treatment for cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, and the average survival from the time of diagnosis is 3 years. However, the course of the disease can be highly variable, and up to 20% of patients survive for more than 5 years from diagnosis.

      In summary, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is a progressive lung disorder that presents with breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While there is no definitive treatment, early diagnosis and management can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are asked to evaluate a 60-year-old man who has been experiencing increasing...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 60-year-old man who has been experiencing increasing dryness in his eyes and mouth for several years but has not sought medical attention for it. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, as well as ongoing arthralgia in his large joints. At the age of 42, he underwent an ileocaecal resection due to Crohn's disease. Which of his risk factors is most closely linked to Sjogren's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease.

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis cases are often accompanied by Sjogren’s syndrome, which primarily affects women aged 40 to 60. This condition is characterized by arthralgia and sicca symptoms such as dry mouth and dry eyes. Other connective tissue disorders, as well as SLE, are also linked to Sjogren’s syndrome.

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It is an autoimmune disorder that can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The onset of the condition usually occurs around ten years after the initial onset of the primary disease. Sjogren’s syndrome is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with this condition have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, check for hypergammaglobulinaemia, and low C4. Nearly 50% of patients with Sjogren’s syndrome test positive for rheumatoid factor, while 70% test positive for ANA. Additionally, 70% of patients with primary Sjogren’s syndrome have anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and 30% have anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      The management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears to alleviate dryness. Pilocarpine may also be used to stimulate saliva production. Understanding the symptoms and management of Sjogren’s syndrome is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure proper treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a complaint of left leg weakness that started 2 hours ago. She reports no weakness in her face or upper limbs, and her speech is normal. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications.

      Upon examination, the emergency physician suspects a non-organic cause. The patient is placed in a supine position and asked to raise her right leg against resistance while keeping it straight. The physician places his hand under the left heel and feels pressure under his hand.

      What is the name of this clinical sign or test?

      Your Answer: Brudziński's sign

      Correct Answer: Hoover's sign

      Explanation:

      Hoover’s sign is a useful clinical tool that can quickly differentiate between organic and non-organic leg paresis. In cases of non-organic paresis, pressure is felt under the affected leg when the unaffected leg is lifted against pressure. This is due to involuntary contralateral hip extension.

      Based on this scenario, the likely diagnosis is a conversion disorder, which is characterized by the loss of motor function in the leg without any organic cause. The positive result of Hoover’s sign supports this diagnosis.

      Babinski’s sign is a reflex that involves dorsiflexion of the big toe upon plantar stimulation. It is indicative of an upper motor neuron lesion of the corticospinal tract.

      BrudziÅ„ski’s sign is a reflex that involves the flexion of the hips with forced flexion of the neck. It is typically associated with meningitis but can also be present in patients with subarachnoid hemorrhage and encephalitis.

      The glabellar tap sign, also known as Myerson’s sign, involves tapping the area above the nose and between the eyebrows (glabella) repeatedly. Healthy patients usually blink in response to the first 2-3 taps, but if a patient is unable to resist blinking beyond this, it can be indicative of early Parkinson’s disease.

      The straight leg raise test, also known as Lasègue’s sign, involves raising the straight leg to reproduce radiating leg pain. A positive result indicates a likely lumbar disc herniation.

      Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms

      There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.

      Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.

      Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of feeling unwell for the past week. She reports experiencing headaches and mild abdominal discomfort. She denies having any diarrhea but mentions severe constipation. Recently, she returned from a 3-week trip to India. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC, and she appears bloated. Additionally, a sparse macular rash is observed on her chest. What is the probable causative agent for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Salmonella typhi

      Explanation:

      While salmonella can cause diarrhoea, typhoid fever is more likely to result in constipation. This is a typical symptom of typhoid fever, along with the appearance of rose spots. It’s important to note that constipation can be a significant indicator of this illness. In contrast, Campylobacter jejuni infection usually causes bloody diarrhoea and abdominal pain. E. coli is a common cause of watery diarrhoea, but certain strains like E. coli O157:H7 can lead to severe abdominal cramping, vomiting, and bloody diarrhoea. Giardiasis can cause similar symptoms such as bloating and abdominal pain, but it usually results in chronic diarrhoea. Shigellosis typically causes abdominal pain and diarrhoea, which may or may not be bloody.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He has a medical history of gout, recurrent UTIs, dementia, and diabetes mellitus. A CT head is unremarkable, and an MRI head reveals a left-sided infarct. Which of the patient's pre-existing conditions elevate his chances of experiencing an ischemic stroke?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The following factors increase the risk of ischaemic stroke: age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. However, gout, recurrent UTIs, and dementia do not have an impact on stroke risk. Taking aspirin can lower the risk of stroke.

      Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.

      Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.

      In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
    Which of the following medications is she likely...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
      Which of the following medications is she likely to be taking long term?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as Addison’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome require specific medications for treatment. Here are some commonly used drugs and their indications:

      Hydrocortisone and Fludrocortisone: These are the mainstays of treatment for Addison’s disease, as they replace the deficient glucocorticosteroids and mineralocorticoids.

      Phenoxybenzamine: This medication is used to treat phaeochromocytoma before surgery.

      Metyrapone: It can be used to diagnose or treat Cushing’s syndrome by reducing the amount of aldosterone and cortisol in the body.

      Prednisolone and Levothyroxine: Prednisolone can be used instead of hydrocortisone in Addison’s disease to avoid peaks and troughs. However, levothyroxine is not used to treat Addison’s disease, but it’s important to check for concurrent thyroid disease.

      Spironolactone: It’s used to treat Conn’s disease, which causes hyperaldosteronism. It’s not appropriate for Addison’s disease treatment, as both can cause hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.

      On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.

      Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old woman with a recent asthma exacerbation is being seen in clinic....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with a recent asthma exacerbation is being seen in clinic. She recently completed a course of prednisolone. Over the past 6 months, she has experienced 5 exacerbations and is currently using her salbutamol inhaler 4 times daily. She is not taking any other medications and there is no wheezing detected during examination. What should be the next course of action in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      If an adult with asthma is not able to control their symptoms with a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), the next step in their treatment plan should be to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS). This approach follows the guidelines set out by NICE for managing asthma.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You perform a home visit on an 80-year-old man, whose son is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • You perform a home visit on an 80-year-old man, whose son is concerned by increased confusion in the last 3 days. His past medical history includes mild cognitive impairment, ischaemic heart disease and diverticular disease.

      When you arrive, he reports feeling well and denies any recent health problems. However, you suspect he may not be giving an accurate account of his health as he appears slightly confused about his surroundings.

      During the examination, he complains of mild lower abdominal discomfort. On deep palpation, you feel a fullness in the left iliac fossa. All observations are within normal limits.

      What is the most likely cause of this man's confusion?

      Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      In elderly patients, constipation is a frequent cause of heightened confusion and is the most probable reason for the symptoms described in this case. The patient’s confusion, slight abdominal discomfort, and palpable mass can all be attributed to constipation. While a colonic tumor could explain the discomfort and fullness on palpation, it is unlikely that its metastases would cause a sudden increase in confusion without a prior diagnosis. Constipation is a common presentation in elderly patients, and it is important to consider it as a potential cause of confusion. Mild cognitive impairment does not typically progress rapidly to dementia with disorientation to time and place. A urinary tract infection or acute diverticulitis would not account for the fullness in the left iliac fossa or the other symptoms described.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with whole-body itching which is worse after she has taken a bath, tingling and burning sensations in her hands and feet, and headaches. She has felt fatigued over the past year and a half, however, the symptoms of itching and tingling peripheries have only been present for the past 3 months. On examination, she is noted to have a palpable spleen which is 3 cm below the costal angle. She has a full blood count which shows:
      Hb 184 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 380 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ruxolitinib

      Correct Answer: Phlebotomy

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for polycythaemia vera is venesection, which is used to maintain normal levels of haemoglobin. This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with the condition, including pruritis, numbness and tingling in the extremities, headaches, lethargy, and splenomegaly. Venesection involves removing blood from the patient to reduce haemoglobin levels, and may need to be performed weekly initially, but can be spaced out to every 6-12 weeks once the condition is under control. Ibuprofen is not a recommended treatment for polycythaemia vera, but aspirin can be used to reduce the risk of clotting. Paroxetine has been studied as a treatment for pruritis associated with polycythaemia vera, but should not be used as a replacement for venesection. Ruxolitinib is a medication used to prevent thrombus formation in patients who are resistant or intolerant to hydroxyurea, but is not a first-line treatment for the condition.

      Polycythaemia vera is a condition where a single marrow stem cell undergoes clonal proliferation, leading to an increase in red cell volume, as well as an overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their sixth decade of life and is characterized by symptoms such as hyperviscosity, pruritus, and splenomegaly.

      The management of polycythaemia vera involves several approaches. Aspirin is often prescribed to reduce the risk of thrombotic events. Venesection is the first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin levels within the normal range. Chemotherapy, such as hydroxyurea, may also be used, but it carries a slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia. Phosphorus-32 therapy is another option.

      The prognosis for polycythaemia vera is variable. Thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. Additionally, 5-15% of patients may progress to myelofibrosis, while another 5-15% may develop acute leukaemia, with the risk being increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with a history of asthma is being evaluated. He is currently receiving treatment with a salbutamol inhaler as needed and beclometasone inhaler 100mcg twice daily. However, he frequently requires salbutamol for exacerbations and experiences a nighttime cough.
      In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Trial of a long-acting beta-agonist

      Correct Answer: Trial of a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy with asthma is brought into the GP surgery with a cough and shortness of breath. Examination reveals a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min, apyrexial, wheeze throughout his chest and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of half his predicted value.
      Which of the following treatments is the best option?

      Your Answer: Inpatient management with nebuliser salbutamol and oral steroids

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Asthma Exacerbations in Children: Treatment Options and Guidelines

      When a child experiences an acute asthma exacerbation, prompt and appropriate management is crucial to prevent further complications. Here are some treatment options and guidelines to consider:

      Inpatient Management with Nebuliser Salbutamol and Oral Steroids
      For severe asthma exacerbations, hospital transfer is necessary. Inpatient management should include nebulised bronchodilators in combination with early oral steroids. A 3-day steroid course is usually sufficient.

      Manage as Outpatient with Inhaled Salbutamol via Spacer
      Mild to moderate acute asthma can be managed with salbutamol via a spacer. Oral steroids should be considered in all children with an acute exacerbation of asthma. However, all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital.

      Outpatient Management with Antibiotics
      Antibiotics would be inappropriate for acute asthma exacerbations unless there are clues in the history to suggest a bacterial infection as the cause of exacerbation.

      Continue Current Medications with No Changes
      In severe acute asthma, urgent treatment with nebulisers and transfer to a hospital is necessary.

      IV Salbutamol
      IV salbutamol is second line and considered only if the symptoms have responded poorly to nebulised therapy.

      British Thoracic Society (BTS)/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance suggests that all children with features of severe or life-threatening asthma should be transferred to a hospital. The severity of acute asthma in children over 5 can be determined using the BTS severity scoring.

      By following these guidelines and treatment options, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbations in children and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe and constant abdominal pain. She experienced some vaginal bleeding an hour ago, but it has mostly subsided, leaving only a small amount of bloody discharge. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus is firm, woody, and extremely tender. She appears pale and clammy, with a pulse of 102 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/65 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum hemorrhage can be caused by placental abruption, which may result in vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a firm or woody uterus. In some cases, the bleeding may be concealed, and the fetus may be difficult to feel or hear. It is important to note that young and healthy women may not show signs of shock until they have lost a significant amount of blood. Contractions during labor typically come in waves and do not cause a woody or tender uterus or low blood pressure. Placenta previa is another common cause of antepartum hemorrhage, but it is usually painless.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of COPD and is currently being treated for pneumonia with antibiotics. Upon examination, his heart rate is 170/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 140/92 mmHg, and temperature is 36.3 ºC. An electrocardiogram reveals a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes in amplitude of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin is the macrolide antibiotic that can cause torsades de pointes, which is evident in this patient presenting with dizziness, shortness of breath, palpitations, and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes. Macrolides can lead to a long QT interval, which can be fatal if not treated promptly with intravenous magnesium to stabilize the cardiac myocytes. Amoxicillin, doxycycline, and flucloxacillin are other antibiotics used to treat pneumonia but have not been associated with long QT intervals and torsades de pointes. However, they can cause other side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, skin reactions, and thrombocytopenia.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus and a history of hypertension,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus and a history of hypertension, on maximum-dose metformin, was started on gliclazide three weeks ago. Since then she has had recurrent hypoglycaemic events requiring Accident and Emergency (A&E) attendance.
      Investigation Result Normal values
      HbA1c 72 mmol/mol (8.7%) 20-42 mmol/mol (4.2-6.2%)
      Which of the following is the best action to take?
      Select the SINGLE action from the list below.

      Your Answer: Stop gliclazide and start sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Treatment for Hypoglycaemic Episodes in Type 2 Diabetes

      When metformin alone is not enough to control HbA1c in type 2 diabetes, NICE recommends adding a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, or a DPP-4 inhibitor. However, if the patient experiences hypoglycaemic episodes, it is important to reassess the treatment plan.

      Stopping gliclazide, a sulfonylurea, is necessary as it is likely causing the hypoglycaemic episodes. Pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with heart failure, so a DPP-4 inhibitor like sitagliptin is the appropriate next step.

      Initiating insulin is not recommended as it can be dangerous, and should only be considered after other options have failed. Reducing metformin is unlikely to prevent hypoglycaemic episodes as it does not typically cause them on its own.

      In summary, choosing the right treatment for hypoglycaemic episodes in type 2 diabetes involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and NICE guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man residing in the UK has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and his sputum test is positive for acid-fast bacilli. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and amlodipine. What is the recommended initial medication combination for him?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

      In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

      While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the past 4 months. He has also noticed a decline in hearing from his left ear over the past 2 weeks. During the examination, Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is louder than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test shows lateralisation to the right ear. Which of the following conditions is likely to present with unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      The traditional presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a blend of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing impairment, tinnitus, and a missing corneal reflex.

      An acoustic neuroma is typically linked to one-sided tinnitus and hearing loss.

      Tinnitus and deafness are not commonly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a condition characterized by demyelination.

      Chronic otitis media is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which is marked by recurring otorrhoea and conductive hearing loss.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10....

    Correct

    • A newborn girl born 4 hours ago has an APGAR score of 10. She is not cyanosed, has a pulse of 150, cries on stimulation, her arms and legs resist extension and she has a good cry. However, she appears jaundiced. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Measure and record the serum bilirubin level urgently.

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential impact on her parathyroid glands. What is a possible sign of parathyroid damage after the surgery?

      Your Answer: Tingling around the hands, feet or mouth, and unusual muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Complications of Thyroidectomy

      Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thyroid gland. However, it can lead to various complications, including hypoparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism. Here are some symptoms to watch out for:

      Acute hypocalcaemia, characterized by tingling around the hands, feet, or mouth, and unusual muscle movements, is a common complication of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy. Intravenous calcium may be necessary to correct the hypocalcaemia.

      Headache, sweating, and tachycardia are classic symptoms of phaeochromocytoma, which can occur in patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy.

      Dry, thick skin, coarse hair, and brittle nails are signs of hypothyroidism, not hypoparathyroidism.

      Feeling thirsty and passing a lot of urine are signs of hypercalcaemia, which may be caused by hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy is a common complication that can lead to hypercalcaemia.

      Hyperactivity and mood swings are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, but patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy should still be monitored for these symptoms.

      In summary, patients who undergo thyroidectomy should be aware of the potential complications and symptoms that may arise. Regular monitoring and prompt medical attention can help manage these issues effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral...

    Incorrect

    • What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives in Relation to Cancer

      Oral contraceptives have been a topic of controversy when it comes to their association with cancer in women. However, various studies have shown that they can have both positive and negative effects on different types of cancer.

      Breast Cancer:
      The Collaborative Group on Hormonal Factors in Breast Cancer conducted a comprehensive analysis and found that current oral contraceptive users and those who had used them within the past 1-4 years had a slightly increased risk of breast cancer. However, the risk is small and resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.

      Dysmenorrhoea:
      For women with primary dysmenorrhoea who do not wish to conceive, a 3-6 month trial of hormonal contraception is reasonable. Monophasic combined oral contraceptives containing 30-35 μg of ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate or levonorgestrel are usually the first choice.

      Ovarian Cancer:
      Oral contraceptives have been noted to prevent epithelial ovarian carcinoma, with studies showing an approximately 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer. This protection lasts for at least 15 years after discontinuation of use and increases with duration of use.

      Endometrial Cancer:
      Use of oral contraceptives is associated with a 50% reduction of risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma. Protection appears to persist for at least 15 years following discontinuation of use.

      Colorectal Cancer:
      Women who take combined oral contraceptives are 19% less likely to develop colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, while there are some risks associated with oral contraceptives, they also have benefits in reducing the risk of certain types of cancer. It is important for women to discuss their individual risks and benefits with their healthcare provider when considering the use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a cut on his occiput. He is alert, responsive to commands, and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.
      What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness and is commonly used in cases of head injury to monitor for changes in neurology. The patient in question has a perfect score for eye opening, is fully oriented in time, place, and person, and is able to obey commands, resulting in a motor score of 6.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual onset of pain in his left elbow over a period of four weeks with only mild relief from over-the-counter pain medication. The patient enjoys playing tennis and does yard work regularly. He does recall a fall at home four weeks ago where he landed on his right elbow. The patient denies any fever and feels generally well. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the left elbow with resisted wrist extension/supination and the elbow held in extension. There is no significant swelling over the olecranon. What is the most probable cause of this man's elbow pain?

      Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis

      Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is lateral epicondylitis, which is characterized by pain around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus that radiates to the forearm. The pain is exacerbated by repetitive movements with the dominant hand, which is common in the patient’s job as a cleaner. The pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. Medial epicondylitis, olecranon bursitis, radial head fractures, and septic arthritis are less likely differentials as they do not match the examination findings in this scenario.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic findings correlate well with the severity of symptoms and can guide treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who delivered a baby 3 days ago comes for evaluation due to her mood concerns. She is experiencing trouble sleeping and feels generally anxious and weepy. Additionally, she has noticed that she is becoming irritable with her spouse. This is her initial pregnancy, she is not nursing, and there is no previous history of mental health disorders. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing the common postpartum mood disorder known as baby-blues, which affects approximately two-thirds of women. Although lack of sleep can be a symptom of depression, it is a normal occurrence for new mothers.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Correct Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions

      Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to worsening shortness of breath and palpitations. Upon examination, bilateral crepitations are heard in her lungs and she has bilateral ankle edema. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response, with a heart rate of 157 bpm. A chest x-ray reveals pulmonary edema. Blood tests show normal levels of Hb, platelets, WBC, Na+, K+, urea, creatinine, CRP, magnesium, troponin, and TSH. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Synchronised DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Patients who exhibit tachycardia along with symptoms of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure should be administered up to three synchronised DC shocks. Synchronised DC cardioversion is recommended for tachycardia with haemodynamic instability, signs of myocardial ischaemia, heart failure, or syncope. In this case, the patient is displaying signs of heart failure, and the elevated troponin levels are likely due to tachycardia rather than acute myocardial infarction (MI). Adenosine is not suitable for this situation as it is used to manage supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) that is not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. Amiodarone may be considered in atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular response if synchronised DC cardioversion is ineffective, but it would not be the most appropriate management option at this time. IV metoprolol (or oral bisoprolol) is used in fast atrial fibrillation not associated with shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, or heart failure. However, since this patient is exhibiting signs of heart failure, this is not the correct course of action.

      Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

      The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

      For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 58-year-old woman complains of developing urinary incontinence. She reports no urinary urgency...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman complains of developing urinary incontinence. She reports no urinary urgency or pain, but experiences leakage of urine when she coughs or laughs. What is the best initial approach to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training

      Explanation:

      The initial treatment for urinary incontinence differs depending on the type. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining is the recommended first-line approach. On the other hand, for stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training is the preferred initial treatment.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.

      Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.

      Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.

      Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).

      Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old gardener complains of a gradually worsening left elbow pain for the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old gardener complains of a gradually worsening left elbow pain for the past two weeks. The pain intensifies when the elbow is straight and there is resistance during wrist extension and supination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis is lateral epicondylitis, which is caused by repetitive arm movements. The pain is typically more severe when the wrist is extended against resistance and the elbow is straightened. This description does not match the symptoms of anterior interosseous syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome, or medial epicondylitis.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has been experiencing fatigue and has not had a regular period for the past 5 months. She previously had a consistent 28-day cycle. A pregnancy test is negative, her pelvic exam is normal, and routine blood work is ordered:

      - Complete blood count: Normal
      - Blood urea nitrogen and electrolytes: Normal
      - Thyroid function test: Normal
      - Follicle-stimulating hormone: 40 iu/l ( < 35 iu/l)
      - Luteinizing hormone: 30 mIU/l (< 20 mIU/l)
      - Oestradiol: 75 pmol/l ( > 100 pmol/l)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty...

    Correct

    • An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty conceiving after trying to get pregnant for two years. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Woman with Acne and Infertility

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), endogenous Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), and primary hypoparathyroidism are all potential differential diagnoses for a woman presenting with acne and infertility. PCOS is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism, including excess terminal body hair in a male distribution pattern, acne, and male-pattern hair loss. Endogenous Cushing’s syndrome and primary hypoparathyroidism are less likely, as they do not present with acne and infertility. Addison’s disease is characterized by hyperpigmentation, weakness, fatigue, poor appetite, and weight loss, while CAH may present with oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, and/or infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 60-year-old man is discovered to have hypocalcaemia during routine blood tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is discovered to have hypocalcaemia during routine blood tests for his chronic kidney disease. He has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease, and it is anticipated that the low calcium result is a complication of this. What abnormalities would you anticipate in his other laboratory values?

      Your Answer: ↑ serum phosphate, normal ALP and ↓ PTH

      Correct Answer: ↑ serum phosphate, ↑ ALP and ↑ PTH

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease can lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels. The kidneys are unable to activate vitamin D and excrete phosphate, resulting in calcium being used up in calcium phosphate. This leads to hypocalcemia, which triggers an increase in PTH levels to try and raise calcium levels. PTH stimulates osteoclast activity, causing a rise in ALP found in bone. Normal serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels are associated with osteoporosis or osteopetrosis, but in this case, the patient’s hypocalcemia and chronic kidney disease suggest other abnormal results. High serum phosphate, normal ALP, and low PTH levels are found in hypoparathyroidism, which is not consistent with chronic kidney disease. Low serum phosphate, normal ALP, and normal PTH levels suggest an isolated phosphate deficiency, which is also not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically within normal ranges. However, in osteomalacia, there is a decrease in calcium and phosphate levels, an increase in ALP levels, and an increase in PTH levels.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels, but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can also lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism, with decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease, which causes abnormal bone growth, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels, but an increase in ALP levels. Osteopetrosis, a rare genetic disorder that causes bones to become dense and brittle, typically shows normal lab values for calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH.

      Overall, understanding these lab values can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal scan of the presence of echogenic bowel in the male fetus. They had been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for three years until investigations revealed oligospermia and this pregnancy was a result of intrauterine insemination. Both parents are aged 35 years old. The father has had several episodes of upper respiratory tract infections that have required antibiotics and he has been admitted to hospital in the past with acute gastritis. The mother is fit and well without any significant past medical history.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Sweat test in both parents

      Correct Answer: Testing for the CFTR gene mutation in both parents

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic condition that requires two copies of a faulty CFTR gene, one from each parent. If symptoms are present, it is important to confirm the diagnosis in the father and determine if the mother is a carrier of the faulty gene before pursuing further testing. While a sweat test can diagnose CF in the father, it cannot determine carrier status in the mother. Invasive procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling should only be performed if there is strong suspicion of a chromosomal or genetic abnormality, and less invasive genetic testing of both parents should be considered first. Karyotyping is not a useful diagnostic tool for CF, as it only detects chromosomal abnormalities and not genetic ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about a genetic disorder. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about a genetic disorder. Her granddaughter, who is three years old, has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. She reports that no one else in the family has the condition.
      What is the likelihood of her being a carrier of the sickle cell allele?

      Your Answer: 1 in 8

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that for a child to be affected, they must inherit two mutated alleles – one from each parent. If one grandparent is a carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance that they passed the gene on to their offspring, who is the parent of the affected child.

      When both parents are carriers, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their child will be affected by cystic fibrosis. However, the chance of inheriting the condition is always 1 in 2 for boys and girls.

      Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis often occurs before the age of two, with up to 75% of patients being diagnosed at this age. It is important to note that carriers of cystic fibrosis are relatively common, with an estimated 1 in 25 people in the UK being carriers.

      Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance is crucial for families with a history of the condition, as it can help them make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 3 day old infant who was delivered via ventouse presents with a swelling on the left parietal region of the head. The swelling was not present immediately after birth and the baby is otherwise healthy. Upon examination, the swelling does not cross suture lines and the fontanelles and sutures appear normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma

      Explanation:

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, typically seen in the parietal region of newborns delivered with instruments. It usually appears 2-3 days after birth and does not cross suture lines, resolving over several weeks.

      Caput succadeneum is a common condition in newborns immediately after birth, caused by generalised scalp oedema that crosses suture lines. It is associated with prolonged labour and resolves quickly within a few days.

      Subaponeurotic haematoma is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where bleeding occurs outside the periosteum, causing a fluctuant scalp swelling that is not limited by suture lines.

      Craniosynostosis is a rare condition where cranial sutures close prematurely, leading to skull deformities that may be evident at birth and associated with genetic syndromes. The shape of the skull depends on which sutures are involved, and other clinical features include early closure of the anterior fontanelle and a raised ridge along the fused suture.

      A cephalohaematoma is a swelling that appears on a newborn’s head, usually a few hours after delivery. It is caused by bleeding between the skull and periosteum, with the parietal region being the most commonly affected site. This condition may lead to jaundice as a complication and can take up to three months to resolve.

      In comparison to caput succedaneum, which is another type of swelling that can occur on a newborn’s head, cephalohaematoma is more localized and does not cross suture lines. Caput succedaneum, on the other hand, is a diffuse swelling that can cross suture lines and is caused by fluid accumulation in the scalp tissue. Both conditions are usually harmless and resolve on their own, but medical attention may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you encounter a patient who is...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you encounter a patient who is fifty-five years old and has a past medical history of prostatitis. He is interested in getting a prostate specific antigen test done due to his family's history of prostate cancer. What would be an appropriate time to conduct the test?

      Your Answer: One month after his prostatitis diagnosis

      Explanation:

      To prevent false results, it is recommended to refrain from conducting a prostate specific antigen test within a month of prostatitis. This is because prostatitis can cause an increase in PSA levels. It is important to note that a digital rectal examination cannot replace a PSA test. Additionally, if a patient is not experiencing any symptoms, conducting the test may lead to unnecessary investigations. It is also important to keep in mind that a normal PSA level does not necessarily rule out the possibility of prostate cancer.

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.

      The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of low-grade fevers, a rash on his face resembling a butterfly, joint pain, and overall fatigue. Based on the probable diagnosis, which auto-antibody has the greatest sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Common Autoantibody Tests for Diagnosing Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body. The diagnosis of SLE can be challenging due to its diverse clinical manifestations and the absence of a specific diagnostic test. However, several autoantibodies have been identified in patients with SLE, and their detection can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Here are some common autoantibody tests used for diagnosing SLE:

      Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA): This is the most commonly used screening test for SLE. ANA is present in 98% of patients with SLE, but it can also be positive in other autoimmune and non-autoimmune conditions.

      Anti-citrulline antibodies (anti-CCP): This test has the highest specificity for rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid (anti-dsDNA): This test is positive in 70% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Anti-smooth muscle autoantibodies (anti-sm): This test is positive in 25% of patients with SLE and is more specific for SLE than ANA. The presence of anti-dsDNA, anti-sm, and antiphospholipid antibodies is more specific for diagnosing SLE.

      Rheumatoid factor: This test is used for investigating rheumatoid arthritis and is not appropriate for diagnosing SLE.

      In summary, the detection of autoantibodies can be helpful in diagnosing SLE, but the interpretation of the results should be done in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other laboratory tests. ANA remains the best screening test for SLE due to its high sensitivity, but the presence of other autoantibodies can increase the specificity of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication for a painful and swollen knee joint two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and their Association with Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the renal tubules and interstitium, often caused by medications. Here are some common medications and their association with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis:

      1. Prednisolone: This medication is safe to continue as it is already used as a management option for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      2. Allopurinol: This medication should be discontinued as it is known to cause acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      3. Amoxicillin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is one of the most common drug-related causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and may need to be withdrawn.

      4. Diclofenac: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as diclofenac, are another common cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be stopped in any form of acute kidney injury.

      5. Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are known to be a triggering medication for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be withdrawn promptly to allow for renal function recovery.

      It is important to be aware of these associations and to monitor patients for symptoms of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 54-year-old diabetic patient visits your clinic with a complaint of painless difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old diabetic patient visits your clinic with a complaint of painless difficulty in swallowing that has been ongoing for the past two months. The patient reports that the difficulty has been getting worse, but is unsure if there has been any weight loss. On examination, there are no notable findings.

      What would be your next course of action considering the possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Referral for gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences new-onset dysphagia, urgent endoscopy is necessary regardless of age or other symptoms. In the case of progressive dysphagia, it is crucial to rule out oesophageal or stomach cancer with a two week wait referral for gastroscopy. Gastroparesis, a delay in gastric emptying associated with diabetes, can be treated with metoclopramide. Plummer-vinson syndrome, which is characterized by iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs, can also cause dysphagia along with glossitis and stomatitis. Gaviscon is not a suitable treatment for dysphagia as it only helps with dyspepsia. While a stroke can cause difficulties in initiating swallowing, it is typically sudden onset rather than progressive.

      Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.

      To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.

      It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following statements best describes bladder cancer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements best describes bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: Survival correlates well with TNM staging at diagnosis.

      Explanation:

      Bladder Cancer: Prognostic Factors, Staging, and Treatment Options

      Bladder cancer is a common malignancy that affects the urinary system. Survival rates are closely linked to the TNM staging at diagnosis, with non-muscle invasive bladder cancer having a good prognosis and decreasing survival rates with increasing stage. The most significant prognostic factors for bladder cancer are grade, depth of invasion, and the presence of carcinoma in situ. Chemotherapy for metastatic disease is seldom used and has limited effectiveness. Cisplatin-based chemotherapy regimens are the standard treatment for metastatic bladder cancer, with a median overall patient survival of 13-15 months and a 2-year survival rate of 15-20%. Careful follow-up is necessary for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer due to the high rate of disease recurrence and progression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision of his right eye. On examination, there is conjunctival injection and dendritic ulceration seen on his cornea.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Foreign body

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus keratitis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with unilateral eye symptoms

      Herpes simplex virus keratitis and Candida endophthalmitis are two potential causes of unilateral eye symptoms, but other conditions should also be considered. A foreign body may cause corneal ulceration and blurred vision, but there is no evidence of its presence in the scenario. Trachoma is unlikely in a developed country, while glaucoma typically presents with bilateral symptoms or acute angle-closure in a minority of cases. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate tests can help to establish the correct diagnosis and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man who is typically healthy presents with joint pain and swelling that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. During the examination, you observe a rash on his nose and detect 2+ protein in his urine upon dipping. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual are indicative of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), as evidenced by the presence of the butterfly rash, joint pain, and proteinuria. In SLE, the impaired kidney function is responsible for the proteinuria. It is worth noting that SLE is more prevalent in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.

      Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Correct Answer: Internal malignancy

      Explanation:

      While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is reviewed. She has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 15 years but now needs to drink more to feel satisfied as well as to avoid being anxious. She works as a teacher and gave up cycling five years ago at the insistence of her husband. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of her mental state reveals episodes of anxiety. She no longer socialises with friends.

      How is her behaviour best categorised?

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Dependence: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Alcohol dependence is a serious condition characterized by a strong compulsion to drink, withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. This vignette illustrates a classic scenario of alcohol dependence, with features of tolerance, withdrawals, neglect of other pleasures, and low mood associated with heavy chronic alcohol consumption. While depression can be a symptom of alcohol dependence, it is not the primary diagnosis.

      The term alcohol abuse is being replaced by alcohol-use disorder or harmful drinking to describe patterns of alcohol use that cause physical or mental health damage. In this vignette, the woman likely has harmful use of alcohol, but the overall picture points to a diagnosis of alcohol dependence.

      Withdrawal symptoms are a common feature of alcohol dependence, and the woman in this vignette would likely experience them if she suddenly stopped drinking. Social withdrawal is also an indicator of alcohol dependence, but it does not explain the entire pattern of symptoms and behavior presented.

      A useful screening test for alcohol-use disorders is the CAGE questionnaire, which asks about cutting down, annoyance from others, guilt, and needing a drink first thing in the morning. Answering yes to two or more questions may indicate the presence of an alcohol-use disorder. Other screening tools include the FAST and AUDIT tests, which can be administered quickly in busy medical settings.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and screening tools for alcohol dependence is crucial for early detection and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has never had any medical issues related to his muscles or bones. He recently began taking antibiotics for an infection and has been on them for the past week. What type of antibiotic is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      New-onset Achilles tendon disorders, including tendinitis and tendon rupture, are likely caused by ciprofloxacin, a medication with important side effects to consider.

      Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.

      In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent left-sided ear pain for over a month. He reports no hearing loss or discharge and feels generally healthy. He has a history of hypertension and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT under 2-week wait

      Explanation:

      If a person experiences unexplained ear pain on one side for more than 4 weeks and there are no visible abnormalities during an otoscopy, it is important to refer them for further investigation under the 2-week wait. This is particularly crucial for individuals who smoke, as they are at a higher risk for head and neck cancer. Using topical antibiotic/steroid drops or nasal steroid sprays without identifying any underlying pathology is not recommended. While amitriptyline may provide relief for symptoms, it should not be used as a substitute for proper diagnosis and treatment. Referring the patient for further evaluation is necessary to rule out the possibility of malignancy.

      Understanding Head and Neck Cancer

      Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Symptoms of head and neck cancer may include a neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and mouth ulcers.

      To ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established suspected cancer pathway referral criteria. For instance, individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for laryngeal cancer. Similarly, those with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for oral cancer.

      Dentists may also play a role in identifying potential cases of oral cancer. Individuals with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia may be urgently referred for assessment within two weeks. Finally, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for thyroid cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of head and neck cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His parents report that he has been feverish and lethargic for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 39.5ºC, heart rate is 165/min, and respiratory rate is 52/min. The anterior fontanelle is visibly swollen, but no petechial rash is observed. Apart from cefotaxime, what other intravenous antibiotic should be administered?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      To ensure coverage for Listeria, it is recommended to administer IV amoxicillin along with cefotaxime when treating meningitis in children under 3 months of age.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview

      Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.

      Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.

      Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.

      Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.

      Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.

      Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer: IV salbutamol

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear, with occasional vertigo. His coworkers have recently commented that he speaks loudly on the phone. On examination his tympanic membranes appear normal.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

      Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ménière’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Ménière’s disease is a progressive inner ear disorder that can cause a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. In contrast, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by specific movements, while cholesteatoma typically presents with recurrent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Presbyacusis, or age-related hearing loss, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Although impacted ear wax can cause similar symptoms, normal tympanic membranes suggest that Ménière’s disease is more likely.

      Diagnosis of Ménière’s disease is based on a history of at least two spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting 20 minutes each, along with tinnitus and/or a sense of fullness in the ear canal, and confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry. Management includes self-care advice such as vestibular rehabilitation, medication such as prochlorperazine for acute attacks and betahistine for prevention, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other causes. Patients should also consider the risks of certain activities, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, during severe symptoms. With proper management, patients with Ménière’s disease can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Holmes-Adie syndrome

      Correct Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient in the renal clinic who has been undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease for the last 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality in this patient population?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys, causing them to gradually lose their ability to function properly. There are several common causes of this condition, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease.

      Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that occurs when high blood sugar levels damage the small blood vessels in the kidneys. Chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition in which the glomeruli, the tiny filters in the kidneys, become inflamed and damaged over time. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can cause scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also damage the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition in which cysts form in the kidneys, causing them to enlarge and lose function.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage the condition and prevent further damage to the kidneys. Treatment may involve medications, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, dialysis or kidney transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 48-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful, swollen left...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful, swollen left ankle after injuring it two days ago. He reports midfoot zone pain and has been using crutches since the injury. What is the most probable finding that would indicate the necessity for an X-ray?

      Your Answer: Tenderness over the base of the third metatarsal

      Correct Answer: Navicular bone tenderness

      Explanation:

      Assessing Ankle Injuries: Indications for X-rays

      When evaluating a patient with ankle pain, the Ottawa Rules can be used to determine if an X-ray is necessary. These rules have a high sensitivity for excluding fractures and can be applied to patients between the ages of three and 55. Bony tenderness at the navicular meets the criteria for an X-ray. However, bruising of the toes or non-tender swelling over the lateral malleolus do not necessarily require an X-ray. Inability to weight bear for four steps or tenderness at the base of the fifth metatarsal may indicate the need for an X-ray. Treatment for uncomplicated fractured toes involves neighbour strapping.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. Upon examination of the left eye, there are multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages with a swollen optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic optic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein

      Explanation:

      Sudden painless vision loss and severe retinal hemorrhages observed on fundoscopy are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.

      Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.

      Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants

      Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:

      Varicella IgM Negative
      Varicella IgG Negative

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred by her general practitioner due to complaints of headache, fatigue and weakness. Recently, she had a prolonged menstrual bleeding that only stopped after the application of compression for a long time. She also suffered from a urinary tract infection the previous month. She has no family history of a bleeding disorder.
      On examination, she has pallor, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy. Investigations reveal that she has a low haemoglobin level, a low white blood cell count and a low platelet count; numerous blast cells are visible on peripheral blood film. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 30% of blast cells. The blood film is shown below.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several types of leukaemia, including acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL), chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), and hairy cell leukaemia. AML is characterized by the rapid proliferation of immature myeloid cells called blasts, which can cause anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding problems, and an increased risk of infections. ALL is caused by a clonal proliferation of lymphoid precursors, which can lead to pancytopenia and symptoms such as fever and abdominal pain. CLL is the most common type of leukaemia and is caused by the clonal proliferation of monoclonal B lymphocytes. CML is the rarest form of leukaemia and is caused by a chromosomal translocation involving chromosomes 9 and 22. Hairy cell leukaemia is characterized by the presence of abnormal white cells with hair-like cytoplasmic projections. Treatment for leukaemia typically involves chemotherapy and sometimes a bone marrow transplant, depending on the type of disease present. Prognosis varies depending on the type of leukaemia and the age of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 58-year-old man presents to his doctor with concerns about his chest. He...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his doctor with concerns about his chest. He feels embarrassed and believes that he is developing breast tissue. Upon examination, bilateral gynaecomastia is the only abnormal finding. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia in males can have various underlying causes, some of which may be serious, such as endocrine disorders, liver failure, kidney failure, or malignancy. Additionally, medication-related causes should be considered, as in the case of this patient who was taking finasteride, which is known to cause gynaecomastia. Finasteride functions by inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase, which reduces dihydrotestosterone production and shrinks the prostate. However, it can also lead to side effects such as sexual dysfunction and gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects

      Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. This drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness.

      However, like any medication, finasteride has its own set of adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. It is important to note that finasteride can also cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 10-year-old girl became acutely ill last week with vomiting, high fevers (maximum...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl became acutely ill last week with vomiting, high fevers (maximum temperature of 39.5 °C) and weakness. Her mother took the girl to the general practitioner (GP) on day two of the illness, and he suggested she had gastroenteritis and that it should resolve itself in a week. However, the girl continues to be very ill and has now developed a non-blanching petechial rash on her abdomen.
      Blood tests show many blasts in the periphery, low platelets and severe anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      Types of Leukaemia: Characteristics and Symptoms

      Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are different types of leukaemia, each with its own characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common types:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL): This is the most common type of leukaemia in children, usually presenting before the age of five. It is associated with a clonal expansion of immature lymphoid progenitor cells, leading to anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and increased susceptibility to infections. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphadenopathy, new-onset bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and superimposed infections. Treatment is with pegaspargase.

      Hairy-cell leukaemia: This is a B-cell leukaemia usually affecting middle-aged men. The malignant cells have cytoplasmic projections that make them look hairy, hence the name.

      Acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML): This is a type of leukaemia that is most commonly seen in adults. It can be of various types, but one that is commonly assessed is promyelocytic leukaemia M3 that is characterised by cells with dark, pink, needle-like intracytoplasmic inclusions called Auer rods. This is a very aggressive form of leukaemia.

      Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL): This is a disease most commonly seen in the elderly and is usually of B-cell origin. Blood smear findings commonly refer to ‘smudge cells’, which is a result of the fragile cells breaking during preparation of the smear.

      Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): This is a disease most commonly seen in middle-aged adults and is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome, a chimeric chromosome formed by the translocation of part of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22.

      In conclusion, leukaemia is a serious disease that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Knowing the characteristics and symptoms of each type can help in early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      266.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?

      Your Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.

      What is the primary treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical aciclovir drops

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic with a continuous tremor. During the examination, it is observed that his arms have a tremor of 6-8 Hz, which worsens when he stretches them out. His father also had a similar condition. What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with essential tremor, an autosomal dominant condition that worsens with outstretched arms but improves with alcohol and propranolol. Propranolol is typically the initial treatment option.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns of feeling excessively fatigued....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns of feeling excessively fatigued. He is anxious that he may have developed diabetes, similar to his father. Upon conducting a blood test, his HbA1c levels are found to be 45 mmol/mol. What would be the most appropriate step to take next?

      Your Answer: Discuss diet and exercise

      Explanation:

      An HbA1c level ranging from 42-47 mmol/mol suggests the presence of prediabetes. Individuals with this condition should be motivated to enhance their physical activity, shed excess weight, and adopt a healthier diet by consuming more dietary fiber and reducing fat intake. Metformin may be an option for those with prediabetes, but the initial dose should be 500mg once daily. Regular HbA1c monitoring is necessary for individuals diagnosed with prediabetes as they are at a heightened risk of developing diabetes.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Louis-Bar syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.

      Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.

      There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.

      In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.

      Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management

      Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.

      To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.

      In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
      What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision

      Explanation:

      When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and describes a feeling of weakness when climbing stairs. He has noticed occasional muscle twitches and spasms that seem to be increasing in frequency.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is polymyositis. This is a connective tissue disease that affects the striated muscles, causing symmetrical weakness in the proximal muscles. Patients may have difficulty rising from chairs and experience muscle tenderness. Creatine kinase levels are elevated, and a muscle biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. This presentation is not suggestive of Guillain-Barré syndrome, which typically presents with distal weakness that progresses proximally. Mononeuritis multiplex, which involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, is unlikely given the symmetrical distribution of symptoms affecting proximal muscles. Multiple sclerosis is also unlikely, as it tends to present with distal rather than proximal limb weakness or paraesthesia. Myasthenia gravis, which is associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and causes fatigability, is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides

      Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents to the Emergency Department with an ECG indicative of an anterior myocardial infarction. Tragically, he experiences cardiac arrest shortly after arrival. What is the leading cause of mortality in patients following a heart attack?

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.

      Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the following results were obtained:
      Protein negative
      Leucocytes negative
      Blood negative

      What is the most suitable characterization of her situation?

      Your Answer: Gestational hypertension

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering...

    Correct

    • A father with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency seeks guidance concerning his young son. Considering the x-linked recessive pattern of inheritance for this condition, what is the likelihood that his son will also exhibit the disease?

      Your Answer: No increased risk

      Explanation:

      Conditions that are X-linked recessive do not show transmission from male to male.

      Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

      If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.

      In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic optic neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started her first day of chemotherapy. However, she has been feeling unwell since then and her U&E results show abnormalities such as hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hypocalcaemia. What prophylaxis is used to prevent the complication that this woman has experienced?

      Your Answer: Loop diuretics

      Correct Answer: Allopurinol

      Explanation:

      Tumour lysis syndrome is characterized by high levels of potassium and phosphate, as well as low levels of calcium. This is evident in the case history of a lymphoma patient who has started chemotherapy. Allopurinol is the most commonly used prophylaxis, with rasburicase as an alternative. Diuretics are not recommended due to the potential to exacerbate acute kidney injury. It is important to note that steroids and radiotherapy are not common causes of tumour lysis syndrome.

      Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Although it can happen without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin, which is more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during chemotherapy cycles to avoid the condition. However, rasburicase and allopurinol should not be given together in the management of tumour lysis syndrome as this reduces the effect of rasburicase.

      TLS occurs when tumour cells break down and release chemicals into the body, leading to high levels of potassium and phosphate and a low level of calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of high phosphate and uric acid levels. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which considers abnormality in two or more of the following within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy: uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome is when laboratory tumour lysis syndrome is present along with increased serum creatinine, cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or seizure.

      In summary, understanding tumour lysis syndrome is critical in the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Prophylactic medication can be given to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis, and the Cairo-Bishop scoring system can be used to grade the severity of the condition. Early detection and management of TLS can improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old child has been referred by the pediatrician to the clinic as they are concerned about the child's appearance. Upon examination, you observe that the child has upslanting palpebral fissures, prominent epicanthic folds, low-set ears, and a flat face. You proceed to conduct a neurological assessment.
      What are the expected findings?

      Your Answer: Spina bifida

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia in neonates can be caused by Down’s syndrome, but it is not the only cause. Down’s syndrome does not typically present with hyperreflexia or hypertonia, and it is not associated with spina bifida. While hyporeflexia may occur in some cases of Down’s syndrome, it is not the most common neurological presentation.

      Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Symptoms

      Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition that can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. It is characterized by a decrease in muscle tone, resulting in a lack of resistance to passive movement. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination, while in others, it may be associated with encephalopathy in the newborn period, which is most likely caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.

      Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy, which may precede the development of spasticity. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems such as spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy can also cause hypotonia.

      It is important to note that hypotonia can be a symptom of an underlying condition and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the symptoms and improve the quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood for the past few weeks. The GP notes from her medical history that she has a history of renal stones.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
      This condition can cause hypercalcemia, which may present as renal stones, osteoporosis, arthritis, nausea and vomiting, peptic ulcer disease, constipation, polyuria, depression, memory loss, and delirium.

      Hyperthyroidism:
      Hyperthyroidism may present with restlessness, irritability, insomnia, tremor, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, heat intolerance, diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, hair thinning, and muscle weakness. Graves’ disease may also cause a goiter and thyroid eye disease, presenting as proptosis, dry eyes, periorbital edema, and lagophthalmos.

      Hypothyroidism:
      Typical features of hypothyroidism include dry skin, brittle and diminished hair, lethargy, cold intolerance, dull or blank expression, puffy eyelids, and weight gain. Patients may also experience cerebellar ataxia, ascites, non-pitting edema of the hands and feet, and congestive cardiac failure.

      Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism:
      This condition may present with short fourth and fifth metacarpals, round face, short stature, basal ganglia calcification, and decreased IQ.

      Secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
      This condition may present with signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia, including perioral paresthesia, seizures, spasms, anxiety, increased smooth muscle tone, disorientation, dermatitis, impetigo herpetiformis, cataracts, Chvostek’s sign, and long Q–T interval.

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents for follow-up regarding her frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. Her current medications include as-needed paracetamol and ibuprofen, as well as Cerazette, a progestogen-only pill. What is the most suitable medication to consider for reducing the frequency of her migraines?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is because NICE recommends both drugs for migraine prophylaxis, but the combined oral contraceptive pill cannot be used due to the patient’s migraine history. While zolmitriptan can be used to stop attacks, it is not effective for prophylaxis.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of gallstone disease comes to the clinic complaining of pain in the right upper quadrant for the past two days. He reports feeling like he has the flu and his wife mentions that he has had a fever for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 38.1ºC, blood pressure at 100/60 mmHg, and pulse at 102/min. He experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and his sclera have a yellowish tint. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, jaundice, and pain in the right upper quadrant indicates Charcot’s cholangitis triad, which is commonly associated with ascending cholangitis. This combination of symptoms is not typically seen in cases of acute cholecystitis.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 25-year-old man with a family history of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidneys has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with a family history of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidneys has been diagnosed with polycystic kidneys using ultrasound. He is currently asymptomatic and has no other past medical history.
      What is the most crucial factor to manage for improving his long-term prognosis?

      Your Answer: Control blood pressure < 130/90

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Polycystic Kidney Disease: Key Factors for Improving Long-Term Outcomes

      Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys, causing the growth of multiple cysts that can lead to kidney failure. To improve the long-term outcomes of patients with PKD, it is crucial to control blood pressure, which is the single most important factor. PKD has two main types, PKD1 and PKD2, with PKD1 being more common. Complications of PKD include haematuria, nocturia, hypertension, and loin pain. Prognosis varies, with PKD1 patients requiring dialysis or transplantation by the age of 60, while PKD2 patients may not require it until the age of 75. While there is limited evidence that decreasing protein and caffeine intake, increasing exercise, and stopping alcohol consumption may improve long-term outcomes, controlling blood pressure remains the most critical factor in managing PKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 44-year-old hairdresser who contacts her GP due to a 2-day history of cough and fever. Her Covid-19 test is negative and she does not sound breathless on the phone. Sarah has been taking paracetamol regularly but despite this, she is still feeling feverish; she has recorded her temperature as 37.8ºC. She has a past medical history of eczema, gilbert's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency. She takes hydrocortisone 15 mg in the morning and 10mg at lunchtime, and also takes fludrocortisone 200 micrograms once a day.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for Sarah?

      Your Answer: Double the dose of his fludrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Double the dose of his hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      To manage an Addison’s patient with an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to double the dose of their glucocorticoids, specifically hydrocortisone, while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. This is because the patient’s fever >37.5 indicates a moderate intercurrent illness. Continuing paracetamol regularly is not the main priority in this situation. Advising the patient to call 999 for admission is unnecessary unless there are severe symptoms such as vomiting or persistent diarrhea. Doubling the dose of fludrocortisone is not recommended as it is a mineralocorticoid with weak glucocorticoid activity, and increasing the glucocorticoid is necessary to mimic a stress response.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.

      What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.

      Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.

      NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.

      If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with increasing fatigue and cough. She attributes it to the stress she experienced during a recent business trip to Italy. Since then, she has been feeling feverish and tired, and her cough started two days ago. She has no medical history, but she admits to having had unprotected sex recently. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in both lung bases. Her blood tests are as follows:

      - White blood cell count: 12 * 10^9/l
      - Hemoglobin: 135 g/l
      - C-reactive protein: 145 mg/l
      - Sodium: 125 mmol/l
      - Potassium: 4.7 mmol/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 87 IU/l

      What is the causative organism?

      Your Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Legionella pneumophilia

      Explanation:

      Legionella is characterized by typical symptoms such as flu-like illness, dry cough, confusion, and relative bradycardia. Blood tests may reveal hyponatremia.

      Outbreaks of Legionella pneumonia often occur in communities with shared water supplies, as hinted at in the question with the reference to the recent conference in Spain. This type of pneumonia frequently affects both lungs, as seen in the question. Additionally, Legionella can cause abnormal liver function tests and hyponatremia, which can lead to confusion in some cases, although this is not mentioned in the question.

      The mention of unprotected sex is a distractor, as it would take years for HIV infection to make a person susceptible to infections like TB and Pneumocystis jiroveci.

      Legionnaire’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Legionnaire’s disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Legionella pneumophilia bacterium, which is commonly found in water tanks. It is not transmitted from person to person. Symptoms of the disease include flu-like symptoms such as fever, dry cough, confusion, and lymphopaenia. Other features include relative bradycardia, hyponatraemia, and deranged liver function tests. Pleural effusion is seen in around 30% of patients.

      Diagnosis of Legionnaire’s disease can be done through a urinary antigen test. Treatment involves the use of erythromycin or clarithromycin. Chest x-ray features of the disease are non-specific but may include patchy consolidation with a mid-to-lower zone predominance.

      Compared to Mycoplasma pneumonia, Legionnaire’s disease has distinct differences in symptoms and diagnostic methods. It is important to be aware of the potential for Legionnaire’s disease in cases where water tanks or air-conditioning systems may be involved, as early diagnosis and treatment can lead to better outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 68-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with progressive dyspnoea, chronic cough...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents to the general practitioner with progressive dyspnoea, chronic cough and wheeze. He has a 50-pack-year smoking history and a past medical history of atopy and is currently taking a salbutamol inhaler. Spirometry shows a forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) of 55% predicted and an FEV1/forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of 0.49. The patient also keeps a peak flow diary, which shows a diurnal variation in readings.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Salmeterol and beclomethasone bronchodilator therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 23-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and a persistent sore throat for...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and a persistent sore throat for the last two weeks. During the examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, pulse rate is 78/min, and there is widespread cervical lymphadenopathy with palatal petechiae. What is the potential complication that this patient may face due to the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Encephalitis

      Correct Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks if diagnosed with glandular fever.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his back. He complains that it has become itchy and bleeding over the past two months. On examination, it appears black and blue in colour with a slightly irregular border.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Malignancies: Types and Characteristics

      Skin lesions and malignancies are common conditions that affect people of all ages. Among the most prevalent types are malignant melanoma, actinic keratosis, guttate psoriasis, lentigo maligna, and seborrhoeic keratosis. Each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help in their diagnosis and management.

      Malignant Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes in the skin. It can present as a black or brown lesion with asymmetrical shape, irregular border, multiple colors, and diameter greater than 6mm. Any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding or itching should be evaluated promptly.

      Actinic Keratosis: This is a sun-induced lesion that can become malignant. It appears as a scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion with a brown or hyperpigmented base. It commonly occurs on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Guttate Psoriasis: This is a skin condition that causes multiple lesions. It can present as scaly, hyperpigmented, or scaly lesions that are usually brown with a scaly base.

      Lentigo Maligna: This is an early form of melanoma that is confined to the epidermis. It presents as a slowly growing or changing patch of discolored skin that resembles freckles or brown marks. It can grow to several centimeters over several years or decades.

      Seborrhoeic Keratosis: This is a harmless, pigmented growth that commonly occurs with age. It appears as a raised, often pigmented lesion that rarely causes bleeding.

      In summary, skin lesions and malignancies can have various presentations and characteristics. It is important to be aware of their features and seek medical attention if any changes or symptoms occur. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent and detect these conditions early.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe chest pain, scoring 9 out of 10, that began an hour ago. He is a smoker and is currently taking amlodipine for his hypertension. Following an ECG and troponin testing, he is diagnosed with NSTEMI. Using the GRACE score, his predicted 6-month mortality is 2%, and he is not at high risk of bleeding. However, the nearest primary percutaneous intervention unit is over an hour away. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor and fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 6-week-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father with symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea for the past 5 days. She has also developed a new rash that is bothering her and has a runny nose. The father denies any weight loss, fever, or other family members being sick.

      Upon further questioning, the father reveals that he has recently introduced formula milk as he is planning to return to work soon and wants the baby to get used to it. The pediatrician suspects that the infant may have an intolerance to cow's milk protein.

      What would be the most appropriate alternative feed to try for this baby?

      Your Answer: Extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      Formula options for infants with different types of intolerance vary. For infants with cow’s milk protein intolerance, a partially hydrolysed formula is recommended as it contains proteins that are less allergenic. Amino acid-based formula is suitable for infants with severe intolerance, although it may not be as palatable. High protein formula is used for pre-term infants, but recent studies suggest that it may increase the risk of obesity in the long-term. Lactose-free formula is appropriate for infants with lactose intolerance, which is characterized by gastrointestinal symptoms rather than rash and runny nose.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 72-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has just been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has just been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. What is the most efficient way to slow down the advancement of this condition?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been identified as a risk factor for macular degeneration, while consuming a well-balanced diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables may help to slow down its progression. Ongoing studies are exploring the potential benefits of additional antioxidants in this regard.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently...

    Correct

    • Among the following groups of malignant tumours, which one is known for frequently metastasizing to bone?

      Your Answer: Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Tumours

      Metastasis, the spread of cancer cells from the primary tumour to other parts of the body, is a major factor in cancer progression and treatment. Different types of cancer have different patterns of metastasis. Here are some common tumours and their predilection for dissemination to specific organs:

      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lung, thyroid: These tumours have a predilection for dissemination to bone.
      – Kidney, sarcoma, lung, thyroid: Sarcoma most commonly metastasises to the lungs.
      – Breast, prostate, kidney, lymphoma: Tumours that commonly metastasise to the brain include those of the breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid.
      – Lung, breast, prostate, thyroid, brain: Primary brain tumours rarely metastasise to other parts of the body.
      – Thyroid, brain, lung, liver, breast: Primary liver tumours most commonly metastasise to the lung, portal vein and portal nodes.

      Understanding the metastasis patterns of different tumours can help in early detection and targeted treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 30-year-old woman complains that she has had pain in her left elbow,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman complains that she has had pain in her left elbow, left ankle, and right knee for the last few weeks. She recently returned from a trip to Brazil where she had been on a 3-week vacation with her family. She admits to having unprotected sex while on holiday. On examination, there is tenderness and swelling of the tendons around the affected joints, but no actual joint swelling. She also has a skin rash, which is vesiculopustular.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Explanation:

      Gonococcal arthritis is characterized by migratory polyarthralgia, fever, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis, with a rash being a common feature. It is responsive to treatment and less destructive. Reactive arthritis is a triad of urethritis, seronegative arthritis, and conjunctivitis, often caused by infections of the digestive or reproductive systems. Tuberculous arthritis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and presents with pain, swelling, and stiffness of the affected joint, along with fatigue, malaise, and weight loss. Fungal arthritis is rare and causes a hot, swollen, red, and painful joint. Gout typically affects the first metatarsophalangeal joint and presents with hot, swollen, tender, and red joints, with normal uric acid levels not ruling out the diagnosis. Diagnosis is largely clinical, but synovial fluid examination can differentiate from pseudogout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (2/7) 29%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (6/6) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (3/5) 60%
Musculoskeletal (8/13) 62%
Psychiatry (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (3/6) 50%
Neurology (6/7) 86%
Haematology/Oncology (3/7) 43%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (6/9) 67%
Reproductive Medicine (7/8) 88%
Ophthalmology (4/7) 57%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
ENT (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/5) 40%
Renal Medicine/Urology (3/6) 50%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Passmed