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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and slurred speech and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue atrophy and fasciculations are present and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyper-reflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Syringobulbia
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of a spinal cord lesion, with LMN signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs. There is also a loss of thermal and pain sensation, indicating involvement of the spinothalamic tracts but not the posterior columns. This is typical of a syrinx, which is a fluid-filled hole in the spinal cord. The patient is experiencing dysesthetic pain in the hands, which is a common symptom of syringomyelia/syringobulbia. The presence of twelfth nerve atrophy and slurred speech indicates that the lesion extends into the brainstem, ruling out syringomyelia. Cervical spondylosis can produce similar symptoms, but there should also be neck pain. Motor neurone disease is unlikely due to the sensory involvement, and multiple sclerosis is not a likely explanation given the other clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?
Your Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant
Explanation:When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner by her mother who is concerned that she seems to be struggling to hear normal volume voices on the television and in conversation. On examination she is afebrile and there is a loss of the light reflex on both tympanic membranes.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist
Explanation:The patient is showing classic signs of bilateral otitis media with effusion, which is common in children with Down syndrome or a cleft palate. The NICE recommends immediate referral to an ENT specialist for children with these conditions presenting with otitis media with effusion. For other children, watchful waiting for three months is advised, with hearing tests and tympanometry carried out during this period. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion, and topical antibiotics have no role in treatment. Intranasal corticosteroids are not recommended for this condition, as their efficacy has not been proven.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?
Your Answer: No treatment necessary
Correct Answer: Topical steroid application
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.
However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of stiffness and lower back pain, which occasionally wakes him up at night and improves on movement. He has a family history of ankylosing spondylitis through his mother. The GP performs an HLA-B27 test which is positive and refers him to rheumatology for assessment. In the meantime, the patient asks for some help managing the pain and stiffness.
What is the most suitable approach for managing the patient's pain and stiffness?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for lower back pain is NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen. In the case of this patient, who has not yet been diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis, NICE guidelines suggest using NSAIDs while awaiting referral.
Management of Lower Back Pain: NICE Guidelines
Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of lower back pain. These guidelines apply to patients with nonspecific lower back pain, which means it is not caused by malignancy, infection, trauma, or other specific conditions.
According to the updated guidelines, NSAIDs are now recommended as the first-line treatment for back pain. Paracetamol monotherapy is relatively ineffective for back pain, so NSAIDs are a better option. Proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs.
Lumbar spine x-ray should not be offered as an investigation for nonspecific back pain. MRI should only be offered to patients with nonspecific back pain if the result is likely to change management, or if malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina, or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected. MRI is the most useful imaging modality as it can see neurological and soft tissue structures.
Patients with low back pain should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. A group exercise program within the NHS is recommended for people with back pain. Manual therapy, such as spinal manipulation, mobilization, or soft tissue techniques like massage, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid can also be used for acute and severe sciatica.
In summary, the updated NICE guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for nonspecific back pain. Patients should be encouraged to self-manage and stay physically active through exercise. MRI is the most useful imaging modality for investigating nonspecific back pain. Other treatments, such as manual therapy, radiofrequency denervation, and epidural injections, can be considered as part of a treatment package that includes exercise and psychological therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?Your Answer: Giardia lamblia
Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention
Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.
To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
What is the most appropriate primary care management option?Your Answer: Tretinoin gel
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne
Explanation:
When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.
One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.
If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.
Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.
In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health clinic drawing attention to vitamin D supplementation for infants, and she wants to check the recommendation with you.
Advice from PHE is that infants under the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing how much vitamin D, during autumn and winter?Your Answer: 5 micrograms
Correct Answer: 10 micrograms
Explanation:New advice on vitamin D supplements
The latest advice from Public Health England (PHE) recommends that adults and children over the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing 10mcg of vitamin D, especially during autumn and winter. Those who are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, such as people who have little or no exposure to the sun, those who cover their skin when outside, and people with dark skin from African, African-Caribbean, and South Asian backgrounds, are advised to take a supplement all year round. This advice is based on a review by the Scientific Advisory Committee on Nutrition (SACN), which identified these groups as being at risk of vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.
Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.
What is the underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Correct Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer
Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.
Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.
Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.
Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?Your Answer: Generalised loss of body hair
Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.
Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 60-year-old man has evidence of sun damage on his bald scalp including several actinic keratoses.
Select from the list the single most correct statement regarding actinic keratoses.Your Answer: Induration under the surface keratin suggests malignant change
Explanation:Understanding Actinic Keratoses: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Actinic keratoses (AK) or solar keratoses are skin lesions caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet light. This condition is commonly seen in fair-skinned individuals who have spent a lot of time in the sun. While AK is similar to Bowen’s disease, which is a type of skin cancer, most solitary lesions do not progress to malignancy. However, patients with more than 10 AKs have a 10 to 15% risk of developing skin cancer, making it a significant concern.
AKs typically start as small rough spots that are more easily felt than seen. Over time, they enlarge and become red and scaly. Lesions with pronounced hyperkeratosis, increased erythema, or induration, ulceration, and lesions that recur after treatment or are unresponsive to treatment should be suspected of malignant change.
For mild AKs, no therapy or emollients are necessary. However, curettage or excision, cryotherapy, and photodynamic therapy are the most effective treatments. 5-fluorouracil cream can clear AKs, but it produces a painful inflammatory response. Diclofenac gel has moderate efficacy but has fewer side effects than other topical preparations and is used for mild AKs.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for AKs is crucial for early detection and prevention of skin cancer. Regular skin checks and sun protection measures are essential for individuals at risk of developing AKs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a number of large boil-like lesions that have appeared on her back over the course of a few days. She is awaiting investigations by a gastroenterologist for diarrhoea and has been found to be anaemic. On examination three out of four lesions have broken down, leaving large ulcerated painful areas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Pyoderma Gangrenosum, Impetigo, Ecthyma, Herpes Zoster, and Insect Bites
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a condition characterized by the sudden appearance of large ulcerating lesions that can progress rapidly. The lower legs are the most common site, and fever and malaise may be present. It can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, monoclonal gammopathy, myeloma, chronic active hepatitis, and rheumatoid arthritis. The lesions are caused by underlying small vessel thrombosis and vasculitis. Treatment involves systemic steroids.
Impetigo is a condition where tiny pustules or vesicles rapidly evolve into honey-colored crusted plaques. Ecthyma is a deeper form of impetigo that causes deeper erosions of the skin.
Herpes zoster is a painful eruption of vesicles on an erythematous base located in a single dermatome.
Insect bites typically present as grouped itchy papules that arise in crops and may blister.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone effective pharmacological treatment for a major depressive episode using paroxetine, but experienced severe withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuing it. To avoid such symptoms, you decide to initiate fluoxetine therapy. What is the reason for fluoxetine having a lower incidence of withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine has a longer half life than other SSRIs
Explanation:Compared to other commonly used SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life of 6-7 days, which results in fewer withdrawal symptoms. However, when switching from fluoxetine to other antidepressants, a longer transition period is necessary. It should be noted that fluoxetine’s potency as an enzyme inhibitor is not relevant in this context, and the other options are incorrect.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a three-day history of ‘puffiness’ around her eyes. She seems well in herself and her mother is concerned that she may have hay fever. On examination, she has some pitting oedema around her ankles where her socks have been, but is otherwise well. Dipstick testing of her urine reveals protein 4+ and blood 1+.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. Children typically present with periorbital oedema, while adults usually present with ankle oedema. Proteinuria can be measured using an early-morning urinary protein: creatinine ratio, with a ratio greater than 300-350 mg/mmol being suggestive. Microscopic haematuria may also be present. Urgent referral is necessary.
Idiopathic primary nephrotic syndrome, which includes minimal-change glomerular disease or focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, accounts for over 75% of cases in children. Kidney biopsy is not always necessary, and treatment usually begins with a trial of corticosteroids. Approximately 90% of children with minimal-change disease achieve remission after the initial course of treatment, while relapses are common and may continue into adulthood.
Angioedema, haemolytic-uraemic syndrome, urinary tract infection, and Wilms’ tumour are not associated with nephrotic syndrome. Angioedema is characterized by abrupt and transient swelling of deep dermis, subcutaneous, or submucosal tissue due to vascular leakage, while haemolytic-uraemic syndrome is associated with progressive renal failure, haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopaenia. Urinary tract infection typically presents with specific symptoms such as frequency, dysuria, and pain, while Wilms’ tumour presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old cleaner is brought in to see you by her mother and husband because they are worried that she may commit suicide.
In recent months, the couple have lost their home due to debt and are living back home with her parents and her two young sons (aged 4 and 2). She has never attempted suicide before but has expressed fleeting suicidal thoughts, having been depressed for weeks about their current circumstances.
Which one of the following features from this history is a risk factor for suicide?Your Answer: Age <30
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors in Depressed Patients
When managing depressed patients, clinicians should always ask about suicidal intent. It is important to have knowledge of risk factors for suicide during the assessment process. Protective factors include good family support and responsibility for children. However, there are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. These include being male, under 30 years old or advancing in age, single, living alone, having a history of substance abuse, and experiencing feelings of hopelessness. By understanding these risk factors, clinicians can better assess and manage the care of depressed patients who may be at risk for suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old female presents with galactorrhoea.
She has a long history of schizophrenia and depression for which she takes a variety of medications including risperidone and fluoxetine. On further questioning she also describes amenorrhoea over the last four months.
Examination reveals a small amount of galactorrhoea to expression from both breasts but no other specific abnormalities.
Investigations reveal the following:
Prolactin 1020 mU/L (50-550)
17 beta-Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (130-550)
LH 4.5 mU/L (3-10)
FSH 5.2 mU/L (3-15)
T4 14.1 pmol/L (10-22)
TSH 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5)
What is the most likely cause for her galactorrhoea?Your Answer: Risperidone
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Likely Cause of Galactorrhoea in a Woman
Explanation: This woman is experiencing galactorrhoea, and her prolactin concentration is elevated while her oestradiol concentration is low. However, her LH and FSH levels are normal, ruling out pregnancy. The most likely cause of her hyperprolactinaemia is drug-induced, specifically due to the antipsychotic effects of risperidone. High doses of risperidone have been known to cause significant increases in prolactin levels. While clozapine and quetiapine can also cause slight elevations, switching to a different medication may be beneficial for this woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?
Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with persistent reflux, nausea and retrosternal burning pain after eating over the last six weeks. There has been no change in bowel habit and has not noticed any melaena but he has lost a little weight.
On examination there is no abnormality in the abdomen. His weight is 76 kg.
He has a ten year history of dyspepsia which he has been treating with over-the-counter antacids. He had triple therapy nine years ago having had positive serology to Helicobacter pylori. He drinks around 16-20 units of alcohol per week and is an ex-smoker.
He was seen at the out of hours centre five weeks ago and prescribed prochlorperazine, but this has made no difference to his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate management strategy?Your Answer: Prescribe a daily high dose proton pump inhibitor for eight weeks (for example, omeprazole) then review
Correct Answer: Prescribe a daily H2 receptor antagonist (for example, ranitidine) for four weeks then review
Explanation:Managing Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD) with Alarm Symptoms
When managing someone with symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), it is crucial to look for alarm features such as unintentional weight loss, dysphagia, GI bleeding, persistent vomiting, and signs of anaemia. Patients may report weight loss, which should be recorded periodically for comparisons. In the presence of alarm symptoms, it is important to refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy, especially for patients aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. According to NICE guidelines, the referral should be made under the two-week wait. The positive serology to Helicobacter pylori nine years ago would not alter the management given the current presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.
The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2
One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2
The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?Your Answer: Initiate calcium resonium therapy
Correct Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive
Explanation:If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?
Your Answer: The views of family members should be sought when assessing a patients best interests
Correct Answer: Applies to patients of any age
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of 38.5°C. On auscultation, he has widespread, fine inspiratory crackles and a faint wheeze. He is not tachypnoeic, he remains alert and is taking most feeds. There is slight intercostal and subcostal recession.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Salbutamol via a spacer
Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours
Explanation:Management of Bronchiolitis in Infants
Bronchiolitis is an acute infectious disease of the lower respiratory tract that commonly affects infants aged between two and six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and peaks during the winter months. Supportive measures such as fluid input, feeding, and temperature control are the mainstay of treatment. Antibiotics are not indicated as bronchiolitis is usually caused by a virus. Hospital admission is only necessary in severe cases or if there are significant comorbidities. Salbutamol via a spacer is not indicated in bronchiolitis. Careful safety netting is important to teach parents to spot deterioration and seek medical attention if necessary. Most infants with bronchiolitis have a mild, self-limiting illness that lasts for seven to ten days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.
There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his hand. The symptoms worsen when he raises his hands above his head. The numbness is not specific to any particular dermatome. He also complains of a painful neck and generalised headache. John is an avid golfer and is frustrated as he cannot grip his club properly. He also notices his fingers turning white in the cold. On examination, there is wasting in his thenar eminence. No other focal neurology is detected.
What is the most probable cause of John's symptoms?Your Answer: Cervical spondylosis
Correct Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome
Explanation:Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle atrophy in the hands, as well as numbness, tingling, and potential autonomic symptoms. The narrowing of the thoracic outlet can lead to both neurological and arterial symptoms, which may be exacerbated by raising the arm above the head. The specific symptoms experienced will depend on the underlying cause and whether the condition is primarily neurogenic or vascular in nature. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist and typically results in numbness and tingling in the hand, without any associated neck pain or headaches. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes a change in the color of the fingers or toes in response to cold temperatures and can be either primary or secondary.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the meaning of the P value of less than 0.05 in a study comparing the effectiveness of drug A versus drug B in lowering blood pressure, where drug A was found to be more effective?
Your Answer: The probability that the results could have occurred by chance is less than 0.05
Explanation:Understanding Null and Alternative Hypotheses and the Significance of P Values
In any scientific study, researchers formulate a null hypothesis that assumes there is no difference between two treatments. The alternative hypothesis, on the other hand, suggests that there is a difference. It is important to note that while the convention is to assume the null hypothesis is true, rejecting it doesn’t necessarily mean that the alternative hypothesis is true.
The P value is a measure of the probability that the observed results in a study (or more extreme results) could have occurred by chance. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the possibility of chance occurrences when interpreting study results. Accepting the alternative hypothesis is not the same as saying it is true, but rather that it is more likely than the null hypothesis.
A P value of 0.05 or below is conventionally considered statistically significant, but this still carries a risk of a chance occurrence of 1 in 20. To reduce this risk, a more stringent rule is to use a P value of 0.01. Understanding null and alternative hypotheses and the significance of P values is essential for accurate interpretation of study results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She has been consistently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the past six years and has two children aged 7 and 9. However, she had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and failed to restart her pill three days ago after her week break. She is now seeking advice on post coital contraception. The patient's medical history includes severe trigeminal neuralgia, and she has been taking carbamazepine for the past three months. Based on FSRH guidance, what would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Copper IUD
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception not necessary
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options and Considerations
The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception option, with a low documented failure rate. It can be inserted up to five days after the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or five days after the estimated date of ovulation. The IUD prevents implantation and is toxic to sperm.
Levonorgestrel is another option, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI (may be effective up to 96 hours). It primarily inhibits ovulation and may be used more than once in a cycle. However, its effectiveness may be reduced in women taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs, such as carbamazepine. In such cases, a double dose of 3mg may be used off-license, but the effectiveness of this has not been studied.
Ulipristal acetate is as effective as levonorgestrel up to 120 hours (five days) and delays or inhibits ovulation. However, it binds to progesterone receptors, so an additional method of contraception is required if on COCP or POP.
All eligible women presenting within 120 hours of UPSI or within five days of expected ovulation should be offered a copper IUD, ideally at first presentation. If this is not possible, oral emergency contraception can be given in the interim, with the woman advised to return for the IUD at the earliest appropriate time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of green-brown nipple discharge. She reports no other breast changes and is in good health. She has breastfed three children and is not using any hormonal contraception. What is the primary cause of brown-green nipple discharge?
Your Answer: Duct ectasia
Explanation:The most common cause of brown-green nipple discharge is duct ectasia. This condition is often found in women around menopause and is caused by the dilation of the milk duct due to aging. It may or may not be accompanied by a small lump under the nipple.
While breast cancer can also cause nipple discharge, it is usually bloody and only comes from one nipple. A prolactinoma, a benign pituitary tumor that produces prolactin, can cause bilateral lactation and a cream-colored discharge.
Fat necrosis of the breast is typically caused by blunt trauma to the breast, resulting in a hard lump, but no nipple discharge. Paget’s disease of the nipple is characterized by a change in the skin of the nipple and areola, but there is usually no associated nipple discharge.
Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment
Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge may occur during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, pituitary tumors, mammary duct ectasia, and intraductal papilloma are other possible causes of nipple discharge.
To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination should be conducted to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass is detected, triple assessment is recommended to evaluate the condition. Reporting of investigations should follow a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation, such as M for mammography, followed by a numerical code indicating the findings.
For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary. Nipple cytology is generally unhelpful in diagnosing the cause of nipple discharge.
Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment for patients. Proper evaluation and reporting of investigations can help in identifying any underlying conditions and determining the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?
Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presents with discomfort in her shoulder. She indicates that the pain is mainly in the deltoid area and worsens when she moves her shoulder. She reports no previous trauma or injury. She is in good health otherwise. She has observed that the pain is most bothersome when she reaches up to place things on a high shelf in her kitchen.
Upon examination, the shoulder appears normal with no redness or visible swelling. She experiences limited mobility and pain between 70-120 degrees of abduction. The internal rotation of the shoulder is somewhat stiff and tender. She has good external rotation of the joint without pain.
What is the most probable underlying cause of her shoulder pain based on this presentation?Your Answer: Frozen shoulder
Correct Answer: Impingement
Explanation:Understanding Shoulder Pain: Impingement, Bicipital Tendonitis, and ACJ Arthritis
Shoulder pain can be caused by various conditions, including impingement, bicipital tendonitis, and ACJ arthritis. To distinguish between impingement and frozen shoulder, external rotation is an important examination finding. Patients with impingement typically have good external rotation, while external rotation is affected in frozen shoulder. Impingement is characterized by pain in the deltoid region with impaired abduction of the affected arm, often noticed during overhead reaching or activities that require internal rotation. On the other hand, frozen shoulder causes global restriction of shoulder movement, especially external rotation and elevation. Plain x-rays can help distinguish frozen shoulder from glenohumeral arthritis, which can give similar clinical findings.
Bicipital tendonitis is characterized by tenderness on palpation of the tendon in the bicipital groove. Pain may also be elicited with resisted flexion with the elbow straight and the forearm supinated, and resisted supination of the forearm with the elbow flexed. Meanwhile, ACJ arthritis can cause diffuse lateral shoulder pain as well as localized ACJ pain. Local tenderness may be present, and cross-adduction often worsens the pain. Treatment for impingement includes rest, corticosteroid injection, physiotherapy, and analgesia/anti-inflammatory use.
In summary, understanding the different causes of shoulder pain and their distinguishing features can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Correct
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You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.
The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?Your Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to account for gaps in his memory. He doesn't realise what he is doing.
On examination he seems apathetic and has an unsteady gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Correct Answer: Complex partial seizures
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome: A Case of Poor Memory and Confabulation
Looking at this case history, it is evident that the patient is experiencing poor memory, confabulation, lack of insight, apathy, and an ataxic gait. These symptoms are typical of Korsakoff’s Syndrome, which is commonly caused by alcohol abuse. The syndrome presents with a triad of symptoms, including mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Confabulation is a characteristic of Korsakoff’s, making it the most likely diagnosis of those given above. However, it can be prevented by administering thiamine.
In summary, Korsakoff’s Syndrome is a serious condition that can result in poor memory, confabulation, and other debilitating symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further damage and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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