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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman is in the final stages of delivery. The baby's leading shoulder becomes impacted behind her pelvis. The midwife rings the emergency call bell.

      What is the initial step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Fracture the baby's clavicle to enable delivery

      Correct Answer: Flex and abduct the hips as much as possible (McRobert's manoeuvre)

      Explanation:

      The initial step recommended for managing shoulder dystocia is the use of McRobert’s manoeuvre. This involves the mother’s hips being flexed towards her abdomen and abducting them outwards, typically with the assistance of two individuals. By doing so, the pelvis is tilted upwards, causing the pubic symphysis to move in the same direction. This results in an increase in the functional dimensions of the pelvic outlet, providing more space for the anterior shoulder to be delivered. McRobert’s manoeuvre is successful in the majority of cases of shoulder dystocia and should be performed before any invasive or potentially harmful procedures.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the baby.

      There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of shoulder dystocia, including fetal macrosomia (large baby), high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior medical assistance immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often used to help deliver the baby. This involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant harm to the mother. Oxytocin administration is not effective in treating shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury or neonatal death for the baby. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and effectively to minimize these risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      36.4
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  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy. The pain started suddenly 2 hours ago and is spread across her entire abdomen. She has a medical history of appendicectomy eight years ago and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, her pH is 7.25 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and bicarbonate is 9 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29mmol/L). What additional investigations are necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood ketones

      Explanation:

      Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which is the most probable diagnosis in this case. The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain, strongly suggest DKA. Blood ketones are the appropriate investigation as they are part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA, along with pH and bicarbonate.

      Amylase could help rule out acute pancreatitis, but it is not the most likely diagnosis, so it would not confirm it. Pancreatitis typically presents with severe upper abdominal pain and vomiting. Polydipsia and polyuria are more indicative of DKA, and the patient’s known history of type 1 diabetes mellitus makes DKA more likely.

      Beta-hCG would be an appropriate investigation for abdominal pain in a woman of childbearing age, but it is not necessary in this case as DKA is the most likely diagnosis.

      Blood glucose levels would be useful if the patient were not a known type 1 diabetic, but they do not form part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA. Blood glucose levels would also be helpful in distinguishing between DKA and HHS, but HHS is unlikely in this case as it occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      37.5
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  • Question 3 - During a 5-year-old male child's routine check-up, a doctor observes macroglossia, hepatomegaly and...

    Incorrect

    • During a 5-year-old male child's routine check-up, a doctor observes macroglossia, hepatomegaly and renomegaly along with a characteristic ear crease. The child was born at 38 weeks gestation and had a prolonged spontaneous vaginal delivery. His birth weight was 4 kg (8Ib 13oz). He had neonatal hypoglycaemia during the first 12 hours which was treated with IV dextrose. The doctor suspects Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. What childhood cancers are associated with this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Correct Answer: Wilms tumour (nephroblastoma)

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (BWS) is a rare condition that causes excessive growth in children and increases their risk of developing tumors. It affects approximately 1 in 10,300 to 13,700 people. Symptoms of BWS include large body size, enlarged tongue, protruding belly button or hernia, ear creases or pits, enlarged organs in the abdomen, and low blood sugar in newborns. The most common cancer associated with BWS is Wilms tumor, although other childhood cancers can also occur.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 4 - A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing...

    Incorrect

    • A child undergoes a challenging craniotomy for fulminant mastoiditis and abscess. While performing the surgery, the trigeminal nerve is severely affected in Meckel's cave. What is the least probable deficit that the child will experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaesthesia over the entire ipsilateral side of the face

      Explanation:

      The sensory fibres of the trigeminal nerve do not provide innervation to the angle of the jaw, which means that this area is not affected by this type of injury. However, since the trigeminal nerve is responsible for providing motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, an injury in close proximity to the motor fibres may result in some degree of compromise in muscle function.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old male is admitted to the burns unit after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is admitted to the burns unit after being involved in a house fire. He presents with hypoxia, hypotension, and flushed red skin. The suspicion of cyanide toxicity arises, and treatment with intravenous hydroxocobalamin is initiated.

      What causes cyanide toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the mitochondrial enzyme cytochrome c oxidase

      Explanation:

      The inhibition of cytochrome c oxidase by cyanide can cause the mitochondrial electron transfer chain to stop functioning, leading to histotoxic hypoxia. Plastic fires can result in cyanide toxicity.

      Carbon monoxide poisoning can cause carboxyhemoglobinemia, which hinders the delivery of oxygen to the body by forming carboxyhemoglobin more readily than oxyhaemoglobin.

      Methemoglobinemia is a type of haemoglobin that contains ferric iron, which impairs the affinity for oxygen and can result in tissue hypoxia. It can be caused by genetic or acquired factors, such as the use of drugs like amyl nitrite.

      Paracetamol toxicity can lead to a depletion of glutathione stores.

      Fomepizole is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase and can be used to treat methanol and ethylene glycol toxicity.

      Understanding Cyanide Poisoning

      Cyanide is a toxic substance that can be found in insecticides, photograph development, and metal production. When ingested, cyanide can inhibit the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase, which can lead to the cessation of the mitochondrial electron transfer chain. This can result in a range of symptoms, depending on the severity and duration of exposure.

      The presentation of cyanide poisoning can vary, but some classical features include brick-red skin and a smell of bitter almonds. Acute symptoms may include hypoxia, hypotension, headache, and confusion. Chronic exposure can lead to ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, and dermatitis.

      If someone is suspected of cyanide poisoning, supportive measures such as administering 100% oxygen should be taken immediately. Definitive treatment involves the use of hydroxocobalamin, which is given intravenously. A combination of inhaled amyl nitrite, intravenous sodium nitrite, and intravenous sodium thiosulfate may also be used.

      It is important to seek medical attention immediately if cyanide poisoning is suspected, as prompt treatment can be life-saving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman in the emergency department who complains of...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman in the emergency department who complains of a gradual decline in her vision over the past year. She reports having good eyesight in her younger years but now experiences hazy vision with halos around lights at night. During ophthalmoscope examination, you observe a dimming of the red reflex in both eyes, making it difficult to visualize the retina. Upon further examination with a slit lamp, you notice a uniform brunescent opacification of the crystalline lens.

      What type of lens pathology is present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nuclear sclerotic cataract

      Explanation:

      Cataract is a condition that occurs with age and affects the lens of the eye. The most prevalent type of age-related cataract is known as nuclear cataract.

      Nuclear sclerotic cataracts are characterized by the hardening and clouding of the center of the lens, which can lead to a decrease in the eye’s ability to focus. The quality of the lens can change as it matures, initially causing haziness and white or gray discoloration. As the cataract progresses, it can become brunescent and even liquefy in severe cases.

      While congenital cataracts are most commonly diagnosed in childhood, posterior subcapsular cataracts are more frequently seen in patients who have undergone cataract surgery or have conditions such as diabetes or have been on prolonged courses of steroids. These cataracts occur on the back surface of the lens.

      Cortical cataracts are less common and are characterized by spoke-like opacities radiating from the center of the lens.

      Understanding Cataracts

      A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.

      Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sharp and stabbing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sharp and stabbing central chest pain that radiates to his back, neck, and left shoulder. He reports feeling feverish and states that sitting forward relieves the pain while lying down worsens it. The patient also mentions a recent hospitalization for a heart attack three weeks ago. During auscultation at the left sternal border, a scratchy sound is heard while the patient leans forward and holds his breath. His ECG shows widespread ST-segment saddle elevation and PR-segment depression. Can you identify the nerve responsible for his shoulder pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The referred pain to the shoulder in this case is likely caused by Dressler’s syndrome, a type of pericarditis that occurs after a heart attack. The scratchy sound heard during auscultation is a pericardial friction rub, which is a common characteristic of pericarditis. The phrenic nerve, which supplies the pericardium, travels from the neck down through the thoracic cavity and can cause referred pain to the shoulder in cases of pericarditis.

      The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the teres minor and deltoid muscles, and dysfunction of this nerve can result in loss of sensation or movement in the shoulder area.

      While the accessory nerve does innervate muscles in the neck that attach to the shoulder, it has a purely motor function and is not responsible for sensory input. Additionally, the referred pain in this case is not typical of musculoskeletal pain, but rather a result of pericarditis.

      Injuries involving the long thoracic nerve often result in winging of the scapula and are commonly caused by axillary surgery.

      Although the vagus nerve does supply parasympathetic innervation to the heart, it is not responsible for the referred pain in this case, as the pericardium is innervated by the phrenic nerve.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 8 - A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman arrives at the day surgery unit for a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The surgeon provides her with an explanation of the procedure.

      What ligaments must the surgeon open to reach the fallopian tubes and ovaries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad ligament

      Explanation:

      Within the broad ligament of the uterus, one can locate the ovaries and the fallopian tubes.

      Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections

      Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.

      The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.

      Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 9 - A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing frequent urination and is ultimately diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Lithium

      Lithium is a medication that is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. However, it can also cause a number of side effects. One of the most common side effects is gastrointestinal disturbance, which can include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Another common side effect is fine tremor, which can affect the hands and fingers. Weight gain and oedema (swelling) are also possible side effects of lithium.

      In addition, lithium can cause goitre, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. If taken in excess, it can also lead to blurred vision, ataxia (loss of coordination), drowsiness, and coarse tremor. One of the more unique side effects of lithium is that it causes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) resistance, which can lead to the production of large volumes of dilute urine. Overall, while lithium can be an effective treatment for bipolar disorder, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided lower abdominal pain, shoulder tip pain, and small amounts of dark brown vaginal discharge. She reports missing her period for the past 8 weeks despite having a regular 30-day cycle. She is sexually active with multiple partners and does not always use contraception. Additionally, she has been experiencing diarrhea and dizziness for the past 2 days. A transvaginal ultrasound scan reveals a gestational sac in the left Fallopian tube, and her β-hCG level is >1500 IU (<5 IU). What is the most likely underlying factor that increases her risk for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is likely in this case, as the symptoms suggest a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease. This condition can cause scarring and damage to the Fallopian tubes, which can impede the fertilized egg’s passage to the uterus, resulting in an ectopic pregnancy.

      The combined oral contraceptive pill is not a well-documented risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but the progesterone-only pill and intrauterine contraceptive device are. Both IVF and subfertility are also risk factors for ectopic pregnancies, while smoking or exposure to cigarette smoke increases the risk.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy and to seek medical attention immediately if they experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old female presents to the ED with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents to the ED with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She is initiated on three antibiotics intravenously. However, her renal function has deteriorated since the start of antibiotics. Her eGFR has significantly dropped from 98 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². Which antibiotic is the probable cause of this decline in renal function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage.

      Gentamicin, a powerful antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class, is known to have serious adverse effects such as damage to the kidneys and ears. Therefore, before starting treatment with aminoglycosides, the patient’s kidney function is evaluated.

      Cholestatic jaundice is a common side effect associated with the use of co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin. Ceftriaxone can lead to the formation of deposits in the gallbladder.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 13 - A 9-year-old girl visits her GP with blisters around her mouth. The doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl visits her GP with blisters around her mouth. The doctor diagnoses her with non-bullous impetigo and expresses concern about the possibility of an intracranial infection spreading from her face to her cranial cavity through a connected venous structure. Which venous structure is the facial vein linked to that could result in this spread?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is connected to the ophthalmic vein, which can lead to infections spreading to the cranial cavity. However, the dual venous sinus and other external venous systems do not directly connect to the intracerebral structure.

      Understanding the Cavernous Sinus

      The cavernous sinuses are a pair of structures located on the sphenoid bone, running from the superior orbital fissure to the petrous temporal bone. They are situated between the pituitary fossa and the sphenoid sinus on the medial side, and the temporal lobe on the lateral side. The cavernous sinuses contain several important structures, including the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, as well as the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve.

      The lateral wall components of the cavernous sinuses include the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves, while the contents of the sinus run from medial to lateral and include the internal carotid artery and sympathetic plexus, and the abducens nerve. The blood supply to the cavernous sinuses comes from the ophthalmic vein, superficial cortical veins, and basilar plexus of veins posteriorly. The cavernous sinuses drain into the internal jugular vein via the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses.

      In summary, the cavernous sinuses are important structures located on the sphenoid bone that contain several vital nerves and blood vessels. Understanding their location and contents is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various conditions that may affect these structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of abdominal pain, diarrhea, and painful aphthous ulcers that have been bothering him for the last four weeks. He has also observed that his clothes have become loose lately.

      What is the typical disease pattern associated with his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammation anywhere from the mouth to anus

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is characterized by inflammation that can occur anywhere from the mouth to the anus. This patient’s symptoms, including weight loss, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, suggest inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). The presence of mouth ulcers indicates Crohn’s disease, as it is known for causing discontinuous inflammation throughout the gastrointestinal tract. Ulcerative colitis, on the other hand, does not cause mouth ulcers and typically involves continuous inflammation that extends from the rectum. While colorectal polyposis can be a complication of IBD, it alone does not explain the patient’s symptoms. Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous inflammation that is limited to the submucosa and originates in the rectum, which is not the case for this patient.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman visits an obstetrics clinic to review the findings of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman visits an obstetrics clinic to review the findings of her amniocentesis. The karyotyping results reveal that her fetus has trisomy 21 caused by nondisjunction in mitosis.

      At what stage of mitosis did the mistake happen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Anaphase is the stage during mitosis where sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite ends of the cell. This process is called disjunction, and if it fails, it can result in an extra chromosome, which is seen in trisomy 21.

      Cytokinesis is the final step in cell division, where the cytoplasm divides into two daughter cells. Failure of this stage can lead to the development of some tumor cells, but it does not cause genetic abnormalities like trisomy 21.

      During metaphase, chromosomes align in the center of the cell, and microtubules attach to their kinetochores to prepare for anaphase. If chromosomes do not pair up accurately during metaphase, it can result in an imbalance of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

      Prometaphase is the stage before metaphase, where the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing spindle microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. Faults during prometaphase can also lead to an imbalance of chromosomes in the daughter cells.

      After anaphase, telophase occurs, where sister chromatids arrive at opposite ends of the cell, and the mitotic spindle breaks down. New nuclei are formed within the daughter cells. Failure of this phase can result in binucleated cells, which are commonly seen in cancer cells.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 16 - As a medical student in general practice, you come across a patient with...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student in general practice, you come across a patient with poorly controlled hypertension. The decision is made to initiate Bendroflumethiazide therapy. What could be a possible contraindication for starting this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Gout may be a potential side effect of thiazides.

      It is important to note that spironolactone and bendroflumethiazide belong to different drug classes, so being allergic to one does not necessarily mean the other cannot be prescribed.

      Bendroflumethiazide is a type of diuretic that causes the body to lose potassium, so it may actually be prescribed in cases of refractory hyperkalemia rather than being avoided.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome and undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. He has been prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, ramipril, and atorvastatin. Can you explain the mechanism of action of aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suppresses production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme, which results in the suppression of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2 production. This inhibition is non-reversible and affects both COX 1 and 2.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - You are conducting a neurological assessment on a 65-year-old man who complains of...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a neurological assessment on a 65-year-old man who complains of a headache. During the examination, you observe that his left pupil is smaller than the right. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has a past medical history of open-angle glaucoma and had applied eye drops to his left eye earlier in the day, but he cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following eye drop formulations is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pilocarpine

      Explanation:

      Pilocarpine is a medication that activates muscarinic receptors and is sometimes used to treat glaucoma. It is believed to lower intraocular pressure by widening the trabecular spaces and increasing the flow of aqueous humor. Pilocarpine also causes constriction of the pupil due to the presence of muscarinic receptors in the ciliary muscles and iris sphincter. The effect of miosis typically lasts for 4-8 hours after administration.

      Brimonidine is an agonist of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors that reduces the production of aqueous humor and increases its outflow.

      Dorzolamide is a medication that inhibits carbonic anhydrase and reduces the secretion of aqueous humor.

      Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue that enhances the outflow of aqueous humor.

      Drugs Acting on Common Receptors

      The following table provides examples of drugs that act on common receptors in the body. These receptors include alpha, beta, dopamine, GABA, histamine, muscarinic, nicotinic, oxytocin, and serotonin. For each receptor, both agonists and antagonists are listed.

      For example, decongestants such as phenylephrine and oxymetazoline act as agonists on alpha-1 receptors, while topical brimonidine is an agonist on alpha-2 receptors. On the other hand, drugs used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, such as tamsulosin, act as antagonists on alpha-1 receptors.

      Similarly, inotropes like dobutamine act as agonists on beta-1 receptors, while beta-blockers such as atenolol and bisoprolol act as antagonists on both non-selective and selective beta receptors. Bronchodilators like salbutamol act as agonists on beta-2 receptors, while non-selective beta-blockers like propranolol and labetalol act as antagonists.

      Understanding the actions of drugs on common receptors is important in pharmacology and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old new mother is nursing her newborn. The midwife clarifies that while...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old new mother is nursing her newborn. The midwife clarifies that while breastfeeding, the act of the baby suckling on the nipple stimulates the secretion of a substance into the bloodstream that causes the contraction of cells in the mammary glands, leading to the ejection of milk from the nipple.

      What is the name of the substance responsible for this reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The let-down or milk ejection reflex is explained by the midwife as being stimulated by oxytocin. This hormone triggers the contraction of the myoepithelial cells in the alveoli of the mammary glands, leading to milk contraction.

      Understanding Oxytocin: The Hormone Responsible for Let-Down Reflex and Uterine Contraction

      Oxytocin is a hormone composed of nine amino acids that is produced by the paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate the let-down reflex of lactation by causing the contraction of the myoepithelial cells of the alveoli of the mammary glands. It also promotes uterine contraction, which is essential during childbirth.

      Oxytocin secretion increases during infant suckling and may also increase during orgasm. A synthetic version of oxytocin, called Syntocinon, is commonly administered during the third stage of labor and is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage. However, oxytocin administration can also have adverse effects, such as uterine hyperstimulation, water intoxication, and hyponatremia.

      In summary, oxytocin plays a crucial role in lactation and childbirth. Its secretion is regulated by infant suckling and can also increase during sexual activity. While oxytocin administration can be beneficial in certain situations, it is important to be aware of its potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 20 - A 7-day-old infant is brought to a community paediatrician by a general physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-day-old infant is brought to a community paediatrician by a general physician due to poor feeding, vomiting, and increasing lethargy. The baby was born at term through a spontaneous vaginal delivery, and antenatal scans showed no complications.

      During the examination, the infant appears weak and exhausted. The nappy is wet and has a distinct smell of maple syrup.

      What is the potential complication of leaving this condition untreated, considering the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Untreated maple syrup disease can lead to ketoacidosis, which is a recognized complication. This occurs when alpha-ketoacids accumulate in the bloodstream, causing metabolic acidosis. Although respiratory function may be affected in response to the acidosis, it is not the primary cause.

      Understanding Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Maple syrup urine disease is a genetic disorder that occurs when the body is unable to break down certain amino acids, specifically leucine, isoleucine, and valine. This is due to a deficiency in the branched-chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex. As a result, there is an increase in alpha-ketoacids in the blood, which can lead to severe neurological defects, ketoacidosis, and even death if left untreated. One of the most noticeable symptoms of this disease is sweet-smelling urine that resembles maple syrup.

      The treatment for maple syrup urine disease involves restricting the intake of leucine, isoleucine, and valine in the diet. This can help prevent the buildup of harmful substances in the body and reduce the risk of complications. It is important for individuals with this condition to work closely with a healthcare provider and a registered dietitian to ensure that they are getting the nutrients they need while avoiding foods that could be harmful. By understanding the causes and consequences of maple syrup urine disease, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. He has a medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and chronic heart failure. Currently, he is taking statins, paracetamol, ramipril, prednisolone, and verapamil. Which of these medications will need to be discontinued due to his recent diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      When a patient is experiencing acute kidney injury (AKI), it is important to discontinue certain medications that can exacerbate the condition. These medications include ACE inhibitors/ARBs, NSAIDs, and diuretics, which can all have a negative impact on glomerular filtration rate and pressure. A helpful mnemonic to remember these nephrotoxic drugs is DAMN (Diuretics, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, Metformin, NSAIDs). However, medications such as paracetamol, prednisolone, and statins are usually safe to continue during AKI as they do not significantly affect renal function.

      Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.

      The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.

      Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain and haematemesis. The patient reports ongoing epigastric pain over the past few months which was worse after eating meals. She had a similar but milder episode about 4 years ago, which was treated with omeprazole. Past medical history includes osteoarthritis for which she takes ibuprofen.

      Clinical observations reveal a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/78 mmHg, respiratory rate of 25/min, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 37.5ºC. On examination, the patient has severe epigastric tenderness on palpation.

      What is the first-line treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic intervention

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient is a perforated peptic ulcer, which may have been caused by their use of ibuprofen. The recommended first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines is endoscopic intervention, which can confirm the diagnosis and stop the bleeding. This involves injecting adrenaline into the bleeding site and using cautery and/or clip application. Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a perforated peptic ulcer rather than peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion may be considered later, but the patient requires immediate management with endoscopic intervention.

      Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease

      Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.

      When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the final product of glycolysis besides ATP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyruvate

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis: The Energy-Producing Reaction

      Glycolysis is a crucial energy-producing reaction that converts glucose into pyruvate while releasing energy to create ATP and NADH+. It is one of the three major carbohydrate reactions, along with the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain. The reaction involves ten enzymatic steps that provide entry points to glycolysis, allowing for a variety of starting points. The most common starting point is glucose or glycogen, which produces glucose-6-phosphate.

      Glycolysis occurs in two phases: the preparatory (or investment) phase and the pay-off phase. In the preparatory phase, ATP is consumed to start the reaction, while in the pay-off phase, ATP is produced. Glycolysis can be either aerobic or anaerobic, but it does not require nor consume oxygen.

      Although other molecules are involved in glycolysis at some stage, none of them form its end product. Lactic acid is associated with anaerobic glycolysis. glycolysis is essential for how the body produces energy from carbohydrates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.

      What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2

      Explanation:

      Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.

      If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.

      A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.

      Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.

      Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 25 - Which one of the following statements related to the coagulation cascade is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements related to the coagulation cascade is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      The primary route of coagulation is the extrinsic pathway, which is inhibited by heparin’s ability to prevent the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11. The convergence of both pathways occurs during the activation of factor 10. Fibrinogen is transformed into fibrin by thrombin. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin during fibrinolysis, which breaks down fibrin.

      The Coagulation Cascade: Two Pathways to Fibrin Formation

      The coagulation cascade is a complex process that leads to the formation of a blood clot. There are two pathways that can lead to fibrin formation: the intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway. The intrinsic pathway involves components that are already present in the blood and has a minor role in clotting. It is initiated by subendothelial damage, such as collagen, which leads to the formation of the primary complex on collagen by high-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK), prekallikrein, and Factor 12. This complex activates Factor 11, which in turn activates Factor 9. Factor 9, along with its co-factor Factor 8a, forms the tenase complex, which activates Factor 10.

      The extrinsic pathway, on the other hand, requires tissue factor released by damaged tissue. This pathway is initiated by tissue damage, which leads to the binding of Factor 7 to tissue factor. This complex activates Factor 9, which works with Factor 8 to activate Factor 10. Both pathways converge at the common pathway, where activated Factor 10 causes the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Thrombin hydrolyses fibrinogen peptide bonds to form fibrin and also activates factor 8 to form links between fibrin molecules.

      Finally, fibrinolysis occurs, which is the process of clot resorption. Plasminogen is converted to plasmin to facilitate this process. It is important to note that certain factors are involved in both pathways, such as Factor 10, and that some factors are vitamin K dependent, such as Factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. The intrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while the extrinsic pathway can be assessed by measuring the prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old man is referred to a neurology clinic due to experiencing uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is referred to a neurology clinic due to experiencing uncontrolled movements of his limbs. The probable diagnosis is Huntington's disease, which results in the deterioration of the basal ganglia.

      Which neurotransmitters are expected to be primarily impacted, leading to the manifestation of the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACh and GABA

      Explanation:

      The neurons responsible for producing ACh and GABA are primarily affected by the degeneration of the basal ganglia in Huntington’s disease, which plays a crucial role in regulating voluntary movement.

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.

      Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling and reports experiencing moderate pain and discomfort. The diagnosis is an inguinal hernia, and he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect. During the procedure, which nerve running through the inguinal canal is at risk of being damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The inguinal canal is a crucial anatomical structure that houses the spermatic cord in males and the ilioinguinal nerve in both genders. The ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves stem from the L1 nerve root and run through the canal. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the canal via the abdominal muscles and exits through the external inguinal ring. It is primarily a sensory nerve that provides sensation to the upper medial thigh. If the nerve is damaged during hernia repair, patients may experience numbness in this area after surgery.

      Other nerves that pass through the pelvis include the femoral nerve, which descends behind the inguinal canal, the obturator nerve, which travels through the obturator foramen, and the sciatic nerve, which exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and runs posteriorly.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP for a routine health check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her GP for a routine health check-up. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with a daily dose of ACE inhibitor. During a screening DEXA scan, her pelvis and femur show T-scores of -2.6 and -2.9, respectively.

      What results would you anticipate from her laboratory tests?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP and PTH

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is the diagnosis for this patient, as indicated by a T-score of less than -2.5 on their DEXA scan. Their lab results for serum calcium, serum phosphate, ALP, and PTH are all within normal ranges for osteoporosis.

      Patients with osteomalacia typically have decreased serum calcium and serum phosphate levels, along with increased ALP and PTH levels.

      Paget’s disease is characterized by an isolated increase in ALP, while the rest of the lab values are normal.

      Hyperparathyroidism is indicated by increased PTH levels, with the specific lab values depending on whether the patient has primary or secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by raised PTH, calcium, and ALP levels, as increased bone resorption leads to high serum calcium and ALP levels. PTH also causes increased phosphate excretion by the kidneys, resulting in low serum phosphate levels.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is indicated by raised PTH, phosphate, and ALP levels, typically seen in patients with chronic kidney disease. In this case, the kidneys cannot excrete phosphate, leading to increased serum phosphate levels, which in turn causes increased PTH secretion. PTH causes bone resorption, leading to high ALP levels. Chronic kidney disease also impairs vitamin D activation, resulting in hypocalcemia.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 29 - Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. She undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.

      Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-8

      Explanation:

      Interleukins (IL) are cytokines that have various important roles in the immune system. One such IL is IL-8, which is produced by macrophages and is responsible for the chemotaxis of neutrophils. This is crucial in the acute inflammatory response, as neutrophils are recruited to areas of inflammation.

      Another important IL is IL-2, which is produced by T helper 1 cells and stimulates the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. This makes it essential for fighting infections.

      IL-4, produced by T helper 2 cells, activates B cells and can also induce the differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells. It plays a crucial role in dealing with infections.

      IL-5, also produced by T helper 2 cells, primarily stimulates the production of eosinophils.

      Finally, IL-10 is produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to a neurologist by her GP due to developing increasingly severe involuntary movements, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.

      Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that her mother and grandmother were both diagnosed with the same condition at ages 32 and 36, respectively.

      What is the most suitable phrase to describe this trend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders, such as Huntington’s disease, exhibit anticipation, which is the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations. This phenomenon is also observed in other neurological disorders like myotonic dystrophy. It is important to note that Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, not autosomal recessive. Codominance and epistasis are not related to the earlier onset of symptoms in successive generations and are therefore not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

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