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Question 1
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct?
Your Answer: Reduces the rate of HIV transmission
Explanation:Understanding Circumcision
Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.
The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.
There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.
Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman comes in with a 3 cm breast lump. After undergoing a mammogram, biopsy, and CT scan for staging, it is discovered that she has a single ER+ve, HER2-ve tumor that is confined to the breast. What is the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Mastectomy
Correct Answer: Wide local excision
Explanation:Breast cancer is primarily treated with surgery, with wide local excision (also known as breast conserving surgery) being the preferred option for tumours that are smaller than 4 cm.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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In what type of tissue do bones that develop in tendons form?
Your Answer: Sesamoid bone
Explanation:Classification of Bones by Shape
Bones can be classified based on their shape. The first type is flat bones, which include the bones of the skull, sternum, pelvis, and ribs. The second type is tubular bones, which can be further divided into long tubular bones, such as those found in the limbs, and short tubular bones, such as the phalanges, metacarpals, and metatarsals in the hands and feet. The third type is irregular bones, which include the bones of the face and vertebral column. The fourth type is sesamoid bones, which develop in specific tendons, with the largest example being the patella. Finally, there are accessory or supernumerary bones, which are extra bones that develop in additional ossification centers or bones that failed to fuse with the main parts during development. Accessory bones are common in the foot and may be mistaken for bone chips or fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old female without underlying medical conditions undergoes a tonsillectomy and suddenly experiences a fever spike up to 40°C. Her heart rate increases to 160 beats per minute and her systolic blood pressure is measured at 180 mmHg. Additionally, the patient displays signs of muscle rigidity in her limbs. Prior to the surgery, her pre-anesthetic evaluation was unremarkable, and there is no known family history of neuromuscular disease or complications during surgery or anesthesia. The patient was induced with propofol and suxamethonium.
What is the definitive treatment for this patient in this situation?Your Answer: Dantrolene
Explanation:Suxamethonium can cause malignant hyperthermia in susceptible individuals, which is a serious side effect that requires treatment with IV dantrolene. Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic disorder that causes a hypermetabolic crisis, including hypercapnia, tachycardia, muscle rigidity, rhabdomyolysis, hyperthermia, and arrhythmia. It is often associated with volatile inhalational anesthetics and suxamethonium. Dantrolene is the only effective treatment for malignant hyperthermia and should be given intravenously. There is no evidence to support the use of IV hydrocortisone in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia. Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, while N-acetylcysteine is an antidote for paracetamol overdose.
Understanding Neuromuscular Blocking Drugs
Neuromuscular blocking drugs are commonly used in surgical procedures as an adjunct to anaesthetic agents. These drugs are responsible for inducing muscle paralysis, which is a necessary prerequisite for mechanical ventilation. There are two types of neuromuscular blocking drugs: depolarizing and non-depolarizing.
Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate. On the other hand, non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs act as competitive antagonists of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Examples of depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium), while examples of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs include tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, and pancuronium.
While these drugs are effective in inducing muscle paralysis, they also come with potential adverse effects. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause malignant hyperthermia and transient hyperkalaemia, while non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs may cause hypotension. However, these adverse effects can be reversed using acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as neostigmine.
It is important to note that suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as it increases intra-ocular pressure. Additionally, suxamethonium is the muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation and may cause fasciculations. Understanding the mechanism of action and potential adverse effects of neuromuscular blocking drugs is crucial in ensuring their safe and effective use in surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a past medical history of dyspepsia presents with a gastric MALT lymphoma confirmed on biopsy. What treatment options are available?
Your Answer: H. pylori eradication
Explanation:To treat gastric MALT lymphoma, it is recommended to eliminate H. pylori.
Gastric MALT Lymphoma: A Brief Overview
Gastric MALT lymphoma is a type of lymphoma that is commonly associated with H. pylori infection, which is present in 95% of cases. The good news is that this type of lymphoma has a good prognosis, especially if it is low grade. In fact, about 80% of patients with low-grade gastric MALT lymphoma respond well to H. pylori eradication.
One potential feature of gastric MALT lymphoma is the presence of paraproteinaemia, which is an abnormal protein in the blood. However, this is not always present and may not be a reliable indicator of the disease. Overall, gastric MALT lymphoma is a treatable form of lymphoma with a high likelihood of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 44-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden and severe headache. During the examination, he exhibits significant neck stiffness and has a fever of 38ºC. What factor in his medical history would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?
Your Answer: Family history of polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication of ADPKD.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Correct
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A 58-year-old man comes to see his GP with complaints of worsening urinary symptoms. He reports frequent urges to urinate throughout the day and has experienced occasional incontinence. He denies any hesitancy, dribbling, or weak stream. Despite trying bladder retraining, he has seen little improvement.
During the examination, the GP notes that the man's prostate is smooth, regular, and not enlarged. A recent PSA test came back normal. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Antimuscarinic drugs are a recommended treatment for patients experiencing an overactive bladder, which is characterized by storage symptoms like urgency and frequency without any voiding symptoms. If lifestyle measures and bladder training fail to alleviate symptoms, the next step is to try an antimuscarinic agent like oxybutynin, which works by blocking contractions of the detrusor muscle. Finasteride, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor, is not suitable for this patient as it is used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and associated voiding symptoms. Furosemide, which increases urine production during the day and reduces it at night, is not appropriate for this patient as he does not have nocturia and it may even worsen his overactive bladder symptoms. Mirabegron, a beta-3 agonist that relaxes the detrusor muscle and increases bladder storage capacity, is a second-line medication used if antimuscarinics are not effective or well-tolerated.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent vomiting. He reports feeling very bloated for the past week, experiencing cramping abdominal pain and discomfort. This morning he began to feel very nauseous and has been vomiting small amounts of green liquid for the past few hours. The patient has a history of laparoscopic appendectomy for appendicitis at the age of 37.
What investigation would be most suitable to confirm the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:The most appropriate diagnostic investigation for small bowel obstruction is CT abdomen, according to NICE guidelines. This is because it is highly sensitive and can distinguish between mechanical obstruction and pseudo-obstruction. In this case, the obstruction was likely caused by adhesions from previous surgery. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include abdominal pain, distension, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and potential perforation. Abdominal X-rays are not as useful as CT abdomen and may require additional imaging, exposing the patient to unnecessary radiation. Abdominal ultrasound scan is not used for bowel obstruction. Blood tests, including CEA tumour marker, are not relevant in this case as there is no indication of bowel cancer. Bowel cancer typically presents in older patients with symptoms such as blood in stools, weight loss, and signs of anaemia.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe colicky central abdominal pain, vomiting, and the passage of abnormal stool which had the appearance of redcurrant jelly.
On examination, temperature was 37.5°C, she has a pulse of 120 bpm with an irregular rate. Palpation of the abdomen revealed generalised tenderness and peritonitis.
Investigations reveal:
Haemoglobin 128 g/L (120-160)
White cell count 30 ×109/L (4-11)
Lactate 9 mmol/L (<2)
pH 7.10 (7.36-7.44)
She was taken to theatre for emergency surgery.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through consistent history and symptoms. In most cases, the underlying pathology is embolic occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery, which is often caused by undiagnosed atrial fibrillation. One of the key indicators of this condition is a lactic acidosis, which can be detected through an arterial blood gas analysis. The lactate levels are typically elevated due to the ischaemic tissue in the gut, resulting in a metabolic acidosis. It is important to note that a raised white blood cell count is not necessarily an indication of infection, but rather a part of the systemic inflammatory response to severe illness with ischaemic tissue. these key indicators can help in the diagnosis and treatment of acute mesenteric ischaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following would be most consistent with a histologically aggressive form of prostate cancer?
Your Answer: Gleason score of 10
Explanation:The Gleason score is utilized to grade prostate cancer based on its histology, with a score of 10 indicating a highly aggressive form of the disease. Gynecological malignancies are staged using the FIGO system, while the EuroQOL score serves as a tool for measuring quality of life.
Prostate cancer is a common condition that affects up to 30,000 men each year in the UK, with up to 9,000 dying from the disease annually. Early prostate cancers often have few symptoms, while metastatic disease may present as bone pain and locally advanced disease may present as pelvic pain or urinary symptoms. Diagnosis involves prostate specific antigen measurement, digital rectal examination, trans rectal USS (+/- biopsy), and MRI/CT and bone scan for staging. The normal upper limit for PSA is 4ng/ml, but false positives may occur due to prostatitis, UTI, BPH, or vigorous DRE. Pathology shows that 95% of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas, and grading is done using the Gleason grading system. Treatment options include watchful waiting, radiotherapy, surgery, and hormonal therapy. The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends active surveillance as the preferred option for low-risk men, with treatment decisions made based on the individual’s co-morbidities and life expectancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of Crohn's disease for many years visits a Crohn's clinic with complaints of pain, swelling, and pus around the anus. The patient reports being stable otherwise, and their vital signs are normal. During a rectal exam, the patient experiences pain, and an inflamed opening is visible in the skin surrounding the anus, leading to a suspicion of an anal fistula. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Immediate surgical exploration of the fistula
Correct Answer: Pelvic MRI
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have been diagnosed with anal fistula, the priority is to determine the course of the fistula. This information is crucial in deciding whether surgery is necessary and what type of surgery would be most appropriate. Surgical exploration may be necessary in emergency situations, but it is generally not advisable to perform surgery without first understanding the structure and course of the fistula. The most effective way to characterise the fistula course is through an MRI, as CT scans and x-rays are not as effective in visualising the soft tissue of the fistula. Blood tests are not useful in providing information about the structure and course of the fistula. Currently, the patient is stable and in good health.
Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with the majority arising from diverticular disease and Crohn’s in the abdominal cavity. They can be enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, or enterovesicular. Conservative measures may be the best option for management, but high output fistulas may require octreotide and TPN for nutritional support. Surgeons should avoid probing perianal fistulae with acute inflammation and use setons for those secondary to Crohn’s disease. It is important to delineate the fistula anatomy using barium and CT studies for intraabdominal sources and recalling Goodsall’s rule for perianal fistulae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in his right leg while walking. The pain occurs only during physical activity and subsides with rest. He has a medical history of hypertension and has suffered two heart attacks in the past. He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, aspirin, and atorvastatin. He is a former smoker with a 20-pack-year history. An ECG reveals a normal sinus rhythm, and the ankle-brachial pressure index in his right leg is 0.67. What is the most appropriate initial recommendation for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis, after advising him to quit smoking and optimizing his hypertension management?
Your Answer: Exercise training
Explanation:Peripheral arterial disease can be improved with exercise training, which has been shown to be beneficial. In addition to lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, smoking cessation, and diet, patients should be referred to smoking cessation services and have their comorbidities managed. Aspirin is already being taken by this patient due to a previous myocardial infarction. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is a vasodilator drug used in the treatment of peripheral arterial disease, but exercise training should be recommended first. Angioplasty is a treatment for severe peripheral arterial disease or critical limb ischaemia, which is not applicable to this patient with an ABPI of 0.67 suggesting intermittent claudication. Amputation is a last resort for irreversible limb ischaemia. Bypass surgery is another potential treatment for critical limb ischaemia, but surgical options would only be considered if conservative management, such as exercise training, failed.
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.
For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.
There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 13
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain and nausea. She admits to having experienced several episodes of biliary colic in the past, particularly after consuming fatty foods, but never sought medical attention. What specific set of findings would prompt you to seek immediate senior evaluation?
Your Answer: Ca 1.0 mmol/L, Urea 11 mmol/L, Albumin 30 g/L, Glucose 12 mmol/L
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia can cause pancreatitis, but hypocalcaemia is an indicator of pancreatitis severity according to the PANCREAS scale, which includes factors such as age, blood oxygen levels, white blood cell count, calcium levels, renal function, enzyme levels, albumin levels, and blood sugar levels.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with urinary retention. Upon examination, a catheter is inserted and 900 ml of residual urine is drained. The patient also complains of upper back pain over the spinal vertebrae. The patient has a history of metastatic prostate cancer and has recently started treatment. What type of prostate cancer treatment is the patient likely receiving?
Your Answer: Goserelin (GnRH agonist)
Explanation:Starting management for metastatic prostate cancer with GnRH agonists may lead to a phenomenon called tumour flare, which can cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. This was observed in a 78-year-old man who presented with urinary retention and bone pain after recently starting treatment. GnRH agonists work by overstimulating the hormone cascade to suppress testosterone production, which initially causes an increase in testosterone levels before subsequent suppression. Bicalutamide is not the best answer as it does not cause the testosterone surge seen with GnRH agonist use. Bilateral orchidectomy is not typically associated with tumour flare as it aims to rapidly decrease testosterone levels. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, may be a better option as they avoid the risk of tumour flare by avoiding the testosterone surge.
Management of Prostate Cancer
Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.
For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy undergoes an emergency splenectomy for trauma. He makes a full recovery and is discharged home. Twelve weeks postoperatively the general practitioner performs a full blood count with a blood film. What is the most probable finding?
Your Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:After a splenectomy, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, target cells, and irregular contracted erythrocytes due to the absence of the spleen’s filtration function.
Blood Film Changes after Splenectomy
After undergoing splenectomy, the body loses its ability to remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from circulation. This results in the appearance of cytoplasmic inclusions such as Howell-Jolly bodies, although the red cell count remains relatively unchanged. In the first few days following the procedure, target cells, siderocytes, and reticulocytes may be observed in the bloodstream. Additionally, agranulocytosis composed mainly of neutrophils is seen immediately after the operation, which is later replaced by a lymphocytosis and monocytosis over the following weeks. The platelet count is typically increased and may persist, necessitating the use of oral antiplatelet agents in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department after a high-speed road traffic accident. Upon examination, his pulse rate is 110/min, blood pressure is 100/74 mmHg, and his GCS is 15. X-rays reveal a closed but comminuted fracture of his left tibia, which is swollen and tender. As he is being transferred to the orthopaedic ward, he complains of severe, unrelenting pain in his left lower leg and numbness in his left foot. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulsations are palpable, but the pain in his foot worsens with passive dorsiflexion of the ankle. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Compartment syndrome
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is a condition where interstitial fluid pressure increases in an osteofascial compartment, leading to compromised microcirculation and necrosis of affected nerves and muscles. It can be caused by fractures, crush injuries, burns, tourniquets, snake bites, and fluid extravasation. Symptoms include unremitting pain, sensory loss, muscle weakness, and paralysis. Compartment pressures are measured using a slit catheter device, and fasciotomy is necessary if the difference between diastolic pressure and compartment pressure is less than 30 mmHg. It can also affect the upper limb, with the greatest neurologic damage to the median nerve in anterior forearm compartment syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.
Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 18
Correct
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A patient is having an emergency laparotomy for a likely sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticular disease. She is 84, has known ischaemic heart disease under medical management, and was in new atrial fibrillation (AF) pre-operatively. You find that she has two quadrant peritonitis and despite fluid resuscitation her blood pressure is becoming low. You start Noradrenaline. She is going to intensive care unit (ICU) postoperatively.
Which scoring system is generally used in this context to predict outcome?Your Answer: P-POSSUM
Explanation:Scoring Systems Used in Critical Care: An Overview
In critical care, various scoring systems are used to assess patient outcomes and predict mortality and morbidity. The most commonly used systems include POSSUM, P-POSSUM, APACHE, SOFA, SAPS, and TISS.
POSSUM (Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the enUmeration of Mortality and Morbidity) is a scoring system that utilizes surgical data to predict outcomes in emergency abdominal surgery. P-POSSUM is a modification of POSSUM that is more accurate in predicting outcomes.
APACHE (Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation) is an ICU scoring system that is based on physiology. SOFA (Sequential Organ Failure Assessment) and SAPS (Simplified Acute Physiology Score) are also ICU scoring systems that are based on physiology.
TISS (Therapeutic Intervention Scoring System) is a scoring system that measures patient interventions in the ICU. It is used to measure ICU workload and cost, rather than patient outcome.
In critical care, these scoring systems are essential tools for assessing patient outcomes and predicting mortality and morbidity. Each system has its own strengths and limitations, and healthcare professionals must choose the most appropriate system for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Correct
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A 55-year-old sheep farmer who recently arrived in the UK from Iran presents with increasing right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain of two week's duration. She also complains of tiredness and of being generally unwell for several months. She has not experienced a change in her bowel habit, weight loss, or night sweats.
Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate 80/min, blood pressure 135/90 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min. She is mildly jaundiced with RUQ pain and the liver edge is palpable 3 cm below the costal margin.
Blood tests revealed raised eosinophils and her LFTs were as follows:
- Bilirubin 30 µmol/l
- ALP 190 u/l
- ALT 36 u/l
An ultrasound scan of her liver demonstrated a 7 cm cystic lesion. The scan was technically challenging but there appeared to be daughter cysts present.
What is the recommended next investigation to carry out?Your Answer: CT abdomen
Explanation:CT is the most appropriate investigation for hydatid cysts, while percutaneous aspiration is not recommended.
When dealing with cystic liver lesions, there are several possibilities to consider, such as simple cysts, cancers, abscesses, and microabscesses. Depending on the situation, any of the available options could be a valid diagnostic tool. However, in this case, the symptoms and findings suggest a hydatid cyst as the most likely cause. The patient’s location and occupation increase the likelihood of a parasitic infection, and the presence of eosinophilia and daughter cysts on ultrasound further support this diagnosis. To differentiate between hydatid cysts and amoebic abscesses, CT is the preferred imaging modality.
It is crucial to note that percutaneous aspiration of hydatid cysts is not recommended due to the risk of triggering anaphylaxis and spreading daughter cysts throughout the abdomen.
Hydatid Cysts: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hydatid cysts are caused by the tapeworm parasite Echinococcus granulosus and are endemic in Mediterranean and Middle Eastern countries. These cysts are enclosed in an outer fibrous capsule containing multiple small daughter cysts that act as allergens, triggering a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. The majority of cysts, up to 90%, occur in the liver and lungs and can be asymptomatic or symptomatic if the cysts are larger than 5 cm in diameter. The bursting of cysts, infection, and organ dysfunction, such as biliary, bronchial, renal, and cerebrospinal fluid outflow obstruction, can cause morbidity. In biliary rupture, the classical triad of biliary colic, jaundice, and urticaria may be present.
Imaging, such as ultrasound, is often used as a first-line investigation, while CT is the best investigation to differentiate hydatid cysts from amoebic and pyogenic cysts. Serology is also useful for primary diagnosis and for follow-up after treatment, with a wide variety of different antibody/antigen tests available. Surgery is the mainstay of treatment, but it is crucial that the cyst walls are not ruptured during removal, and the contents are sterilized first.
Overall, hydatid cysts can cause significant morbidity if left untreated, and early diagnosis and treatment are essential for a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 20
Correct
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A 23-year-old man is in a car accident and is diagnosed with a pelvic fracture. During his hospital stay, the nursing staff notifies you that he is experiencing lower abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, you discover a bloated and sensitive bladder. What is the optimal course of action?
Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter
Explanation:Due to the patient’s history, there is a potential for urethral injury, therefore, urethral catheterisation should not be performed.
Lower Genitourinary Tract Trauma: Types of Injury and Management
Lower genitourinary tract trauma can occur due to blunt trauma, with most bladder injuries associated with pelvic fractures. However, these injuries can easily be overlooked during trauma assessment. In fact, up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries.
Urethral injuries are mainly found in males and can be identified by blood at the meatus in 50% of cases. There are two types of urethral injury: bulbar rupture and membranous rupture. Bulbar rupture is the most common and is caused by straddle-type injuries, such as those from bicycles. The triad signs of urinary retention, perineal hematoma, and blood at the meatus are indicative of this type of injury. Membranous rupture, on the other hand, can be extra or intraperitoneal and is commonly due to pelvic fractures. Penile or perineal edema/hematoma and a displaced prostate upwards are also signs of this type of injury. An ascending urethrogram is the recommended investigation, and management involves surgical placement of a suprapubic catheter.
External genitalia injuries, such as those to the penis and scrotum, can be caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure-enhancing devices, and mutilation.
Bladder injuries can be intra or extraperitoneal and present with haematuria or suprapubic pain. A history of pelvic fracture and inability to void should always raise suspicion of bladder or urethral injury. Inability to retrieve all fluid used to irrigate the bladder through a Foley catheter is also indicative of bladder injury. An IVU or cystogram is the recommended investigation, and management involves laparotomy if intraperitoneal and conservative treatment if extraperitoneal.
In summary, lower genitourinary tract trauma can have various types of injuries, and prompt diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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