00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old male comes to the clinic with a complaint of sudden flailing...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male comes to the clinic with a complaint of sudden flailing of his left arm. During examination, it is observed that his left arm occasionally makes rapid, sudden, and uncontrollable thrusts. What is the diagnosis for this condition?

      Your Answer: Chorea

      Correct Answer: Hemiballismus

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus: A Sudden Thrusting Movement of the Right Arm

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by a sudden, forceful movement of the right arm. This condition is caused by a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus on the opposite side of the brain. The lesion can be a result of a stroke or trauma.

      The subthalamic nucleus is a small structure located deep within the brain that plays a crucial role in controlling movement. When it is damaged, it can cause involuntary movements, such as hemiballismus. This condition can be distressing for the patient and can interfere with their daily activities.

      Treatment for hemiballismus typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the lesion, such as managing stroke risk factors or providing rehabilitation for trauma. Medications may also be prescribed to help control the involuntary movements. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove the damaged tissue.

      In conclusion, hemiballismus is a medical condition that causes sudden, forceful movements of the right arm due to a lesion in the subthalamic nucleus. It can be caused by stroke or trauma and can be treated with medication, rehabilitation, or surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the...

    Correct

    • A woman is being evaluated for a chronic cranial nerve lesion in the outpatient clinic. She has no facial weakness, and examination of the eyes reveals a full range of movement. She reports no difficulties with vision, smell, taste, hearing or balance, and facial and pharyngeal sensation is normal. Her gag reflex is present and normal, and she can shrug her shoulders equally on both sides. Her speech is slurred and indistinct, and on protruding her tongue, it deviates to the right side and there is notable fasciculation and atrophy of the musculature on the right.
      With what are these findings most likely to be associated?

      Your Answer: Lower motor neurone lesion of the right cranial nerve XII

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Lesions of Cranial Nerves Involved in Tongue Movement and Sensation

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      Fasciculation and atrophy indicate a lower motor neurone lesion. In this case, the tongue deviates to the side of the damage due to unopposed action of the genioglossus of the opposite side. The cranial nerve involved in motor supply to the muscles of the tongue is the hypoglossal cranial nerve (XII).

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Cranial Nerve XII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage, in this case to the left.

      Upper Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      An upper motor neurone lesion will produce weakness and spasticity. The tongue will deviate away from the side of the damage. Even though the tongue does deviate to the right in this case, the presence of atrophy is seen in LMN and not in UMN.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Left Cranial Nerve VII:
      This would cause lower motor neurone symptoms (weakness and flaccidity) on the left side.

      Lower Motor Neurone Lesion of the Right Glossopharyngeal Nerve:
      The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides the posterior third of the tongue with taste and somatic sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following characteristics is absent in a corticospinal lesion?

      Your Answer: Cogwheel rigidity

      Explanation:

      Neurological Features of Extrapyramidal and Pyramidal Involvement

      Cogwheel rigidity is a characteristic of extrapyramidal involvement, specifically in the basal ganglia. This type of rigidity is commonly observed in individuals with parkinsonism. On the other hand, pyramidal (corticospinal) involvement is characterized by increased tone, exaggerated spinal reflexes, and extensor plantar responses. These features are distinct from Cogwheel rigidity and are indicative of a different type of neurological involvement. the differences between extrapyramidal and pyramidal involvement can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man visits the Neurology Clinic accompanied by his brother. He reports experiencing episodes of confusion and amnesia that typically last for a few minutes. His brother has observed him suddenly stopping what he is doing and staring into space on several occasions. The patient presents a video of one such episode, which shows lip-smacking and chewing. He has no recollection of these incidents, but he has noticed the smell of burning and a strange sense of dĂ©jĂ  vu on multiple occasions. There is no indication of tongue biting or limb jerking. The patient is in good health, but he admits to regularly using cannabis. What is the most probable cause of these occurrences?

      Your Answer: Absence seizures

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Temporal Lobe Epilepsy from Other Seizure Disorders and Cannabis Usage

      Temporal lobe epilepsy is a neurological disorder that can manifest in various ways, including somatosensory or special sensory aura, visual hallucinations, déjà vu, manual automatisms, postictal confusion, or amnesia. The underlying causes can be diverse, such as previous infections or head trauma, and require investigation through electroencephalogram (EEG) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, hypnagogic hallucinations, or cataplexy, and is not associated with the seizure activity typical of temporal lobe epilepsy. Absence seizures, which involve staring into space, do not feature the sensory aura or postictal confusion of temporal lobe epilepsy. Cannabis overuse may cause seizures and psychosis, but not the specific seizures described in this scenario. Non-epileptic seizures, which can have organic or psychogenic causes, may be a differential diagnosis, but the presence of classic symptoms such as sensory aura, lip-smacking, and déjà vu suggest that temporal lobe epilepsy is more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the Neurology Clinic complaining of increasing dysphagia. You observe that he is having some trouble speaking, and upon further inquiry, he reveals that this has also been worsening over time. He reports no issues with chewing. During the examination, you note that he has a missing gag reflex and displays tongue atrophy and fasciculations.
      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: MRI brain, CT head, lumbar puncture, viral polymerase chain reaction (PCR), fasting glucose

      Correct Answer: MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Investigations for a Patient with Bulbar Palsy

      Bulbar palsy is a condition that affects the lower motor neurons of the cranial nerves, causing difficulty in speech and swallowing. To manage a patient with this condition, appropriate investigations must be conducted to determine the underlying cause.

      MRI brain, syphilis serology, poliomyelitis serology, and lumbar puncture are some of the most appropriate investigations to manage a patient with bulbar palsy. These investigations can help identify reversible causes such as brainstem stroke or tumor, neurodegenerative diseases, infectious neuropathies, and autoimmune neuropathies.

      On the other hand, investigations such as nerve conduction studies and viral PCR have no place in the management of this patient. CT head may be helpful, but MRI brain is a more appropriate form of imaging. Routine bloods can also be done to determine the systemic health of the patient.

      Speech and language therapy is an essential part of managing a patient with bulbar palsy, as it can help improve their speech and swallowing. However, ophthalmology review and ECG are not necessary unless there is a clear clinical indication.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for a patient with bulbar palsy include MRI brain, serology for infectious neuropathies, lumbar puncture, and routine bloods. Speech and language therapy is also crucial for managing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man presents with wrist drop in his right hand. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with wrist drop in his right hand. Upon examination, a small region of sensory loss is noted on the back of his hand. Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies muscles in the forearm and sensation to the dorsum of the thumb and fingers. Damage results in wrist drop and impaired sensation. The long thoracic nerve supplies serratus anterior and damage causes winging of the scapula. Median nerve palsy results in weakness in thumb and finger movement and sensory loss. T1 nerve root lesion results in Klumpke’s palsy. Ulnar nerve compression results in numbness and weakness in the hand, and can progress to a claw hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 6-month history of experiencing ‘tingling’ in his wrists and hands at night, with the right side being more affected than the left. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the thenar eminence of his right hand. He displays slight weakness in thumb opposition and reduced sensation to light touch on the palmar surface of his right hand on the lateral three digits and the lateral half of the fourth digit. Reproduction of his symptoms occurs when you tap immediately distal to the wrist joint of his right hand for about 30 s.
      Which nerve is implicated in this man’s condition?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries in the Upper Limb

      Nerve injuries in the upper limb can cause a range of symptoms, including pain, weakness, and sensory loss. Here are some of the most common nerve injuries and their associated symptoms:

      1. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (Median Nerve): Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause pain and loss of sensation in the lateral three-and-a-half digits. Symptoms are often worse at night and are more common in people who use their hands repetitively throughout the day.

      2. Radial Neuropathy (Radial Nerve): Compression of the radial nerve at the spiral groove of the humerus can cause weakness of wrist and finger extension, as well as elbow flexion. There may also be sensory loss on the dorsum of the hand.

      3. Ulnar Neuropathy (Ulnar Nerve): The ulnar nerve supplies sensation to the fifth digit and the medial aspect of the fourth digit, as well as the interosseous muscles of the hand. It is the second most commonly affected nerve in the upper limb after the median nerve.

      4. Musculocutaneous Nerve: Weakness of elbow flexion and sensory loss over the lateral forearm can occur with musculocutaneous nerve palsy.

      5. Long Thoracic Nerve: Injury to the long thoracic nerve affects the serratus anterior muscle, causing a winged scapula. This nerve is purely motor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

      The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis

      Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.

      Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.

      Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at work, accompanied by dysarthria and clumsiness. During the examination, he appears anemic and has hepatomegaly and Kayser-Fleischer rings in his cornea. He has a detectable liver edge. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and has no history of foreign travel, intravenous drug use, or unprotected sexual intercourse. His weekly alcohol intake is 0-2 units. He reports that his father passed away from a psychiatric illness in his mid-forties. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Liver Failure and Neurological Symptoms

      Wilson’s Disease, Alcohol Abuse, Hepatitis C Infection, Herpes Encephalitis, and Motor Neurone Disease are all potential diagnoses for a patient presenting with liver failure and neurological symptoms. Wilson’s Disease is a genetic disorder that can present in childhood or early adulthood with hepatic or neurological/psychiatric manifestations. Alcohol abuse can cause acute liver failure and hepatitis, but Kayser-Fleischer rings are not associated with it. Hepatitis C infection is spread through blood-to-blood contact and is unlikely in this patient without risk factors. Herpes encephalitis is a viral encephalitis that presents acutely with confusion and altered consciousness, but the patient had a subacute presentation. Motor neurone disease can cause muscle atrophy and weight loss, but does not explain the liver failure. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Vagus

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: Ringer's Solution

      Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of urinary symptoms such as hesitancy and incomplete emptying. He lives independently and has primary progressive multiple sclerosis. He recently recovered from a UTI and upon investigation, it was found that he has heavy colonisation of Proteus. An ultrasound bladder scan reveals 400 ml of residual volume. What is the most suitable long-term management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation

      Explanation:

      Management of Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis often leads to a neurogenic bladder, causing urinary retention and associated symptoms such as incomplete bladder emptying, urgency, discomfort, and recurrent UTIs. The following are some management options for urinary symptoms in multiple sclerosis:

      1. Intermittent self-catheterisation: This is the preferred method for ambulant and independent patients. After training, the patient self-catheterises a few times a day to ensure complete bladder emptying, relieving symptoms and reducing the risk of recurrent UTIs. A muscarinic receptor antagonist, such as oxybutynin, can also be used.

      2. Suprapubic catheterisation: This is only indicated when transurethral catheterisation is contraindicated or technically difficult, such as in urethral injury or obstruction, severe benign prostatic hypertrophy or prostatic carcinoma.

      3. Continuous low-dose trimethoprim: There is no current guidance for the use of prophylactic antibiotics to prevent UTIs in multiple sclerosis. The aim is to primarily relieve the retention.

      4. Long-term urethral catheterisation: If symptoms progress and become bothersome for the patient, despite behavioural methods, medication and/or intermittent self-catheterisation, then a long-term catheter can be the next best option. Additionally, in cases where patients are not ambulant or have a disability that would prevent them from being able to self-catheterise, a long-term catheter may be a more desirable choice of management of urinary symptoms.

      5. Muscle relaxant baclofen: Baclofen is not used in the treatment of urinary retention. It is an antispasmodic used in multiple sclerosis to relieve contractures and spasticity.

      Management Options for Urinary Symptoms in Multiple Sclerosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old motorcyclist is brought to the Emergency Department (ED) 45 minutes after a collision with a heavy-goods vehicle. Immediately after the collision she was unconscious for three minutes. Since regaining consciousness, she appears dazed and complains of a headache, nausea and ringing in her ears, and she is aversive to light and sound. Prior to examination she had an episode of vomiting.
      An ABCDE assessment is performed and the results are below:
      Airway Patent, able to speak
      Breathing Respiratory rate (RR) 18 per min, SaO2 97% on room air, normal and symmetrical chest expansion, normal percussion note bilaterally, normal vesicular breath sounds throughout
      Circulation Heart rate (HR) 97/min, blood pressure (BP) 139/87 mmHg, capillary refill time (CRT) <2 s, ECG with sinus tachycardia, normal heart sounds without added sounds or murmurs
      Disability AVPU, pupils equal and reactive to light, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) = 13 (E4, V4, M5), no signs suggestive of basal skull fracture
      Exposure Temperature 36.8 °C, multiple bruises but no sites of external bleeding, abdomen is soft and non-tender
      Which of the following would be appropriate in the further management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan within eight hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Head Injury: Guidelines for CT Scan, Intubation, Neurosurgery Referral, Discharge, and Fluid Resuscitation

      Head injuries require prompt and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Evidence-based guidelines recommend performing a CT head scan within eight hours for adults who have lost consciousness temporarily or displayed amnesia since the injury, especially those with risk factors such as age >65 years, bleeding or clotting disorders, dangerous mechanism of injury, or more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia. If the patient has a GCS of <9, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Immediate referral to neurosurgery is not required unless there is further deterioration or a large bleed is identified on CT scan. Patients with reduced GCS cannot be discharged from the ED and require close monitoring. Fluid resuscitation with crystalloid, such as normal saline and/or blood, is crucial to avoid hypotension and hypovolaemia, while albumin should be avoided due to its association with higher mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot drop over two months. He also states that he has begun to drop objects that he was previously able to lift with ease and feels that both of his hands are constantly shaking. He does not have any other medical conditions. He recalls that his brother and father passed away from a neurological disease, of which he does not know the name.
      Examination reveals bilateral lower limb weakness. There is hyperreflexia on examination of the knees and ankles. Plantars are upgoing. Examination of the upper limb is pertinent for left arm weakness, in particular in the median and ulnar nerve-innervated hand muscles. Sensation is normal in both upper and lower limbs. A diagnosis of motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is being considered.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the life expectancy of this patient?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Correct Answer: Riluzole

      Explanation:

      Riluzole is the only drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in patients with MND, although its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. Studies have shown that patients who take riluzole have a lower mortality rate compared to those who do not, particularly those with bulbar-onset MND. However, riluzole may cause side effects such as liver damage, gastrointestinal discomfort, and, in rare cases, neutropenia. Baclofen can help manage spasticity in MND patients but does not improve life expectancy. Carbocisteine is a mucolytic that can reduce sputum viscosity and is often used in patients with bulbar symptoms, but it has not been shown to increase life expectancy. Citalopram can treat depression in MND patients but does not affect life expectancy. Memantine, an anti-glutamatergic agent used for severe Alzheimer’s disease, is not recommended for MND patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on the information provided by the patient's spouse, the clinician suspects that the patient may have vascular dementia.
      What are the typical features of vascular dementia?

      Your Answer: Slow, insidious progression

      Correct Answer: Unsteadiness and falls

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that is characterized by a stepwise, step-down progression. This type of dementia is associated with vascular events within the brain and can cause a range of symptoms. One of the early symptoms of vascular dementia is unsteadiness and falls, as well as gait and mobility problems. Other symptoms may include visuospatial problems, motor dysfunction, dysphasia, pseudobulbar palsy, and mood and personality changes.

      Vascular dementia is commonly seen in patients with increased vascular risk and may have a cross-over with Alzheimer’s disease. Brain scanning may reveal multiple infarcts within the brain. To manage vascular dementia, it is important to address all vascular risks, including smoking, diabetes, and hypertension. Patients may also be placed on appropriate anti-platelet therapy and a statin.

      Compared to Alzheimer’s dementia, vascular dementia has a more stepwise progression. Additionally, it can cause pseudobulbar palsy, which results in a stiff tongue rather than a weak one. However, agnosia, which is the inability to interpret sensations, is not typically seen in vascular dementia. Visual hallucinations are also more characteristic of Lewy body dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders

      Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
      Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
      Her observations are as follows:
      Temperature 37.1°C
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
      Heart rate 68 bpm
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
      Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
      Which of the following is the next best step?

      Your Answer: Vitamin K

      Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist

      Explanation:

      Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth

      Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:

      Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.

      Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.

      Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.

      Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.

      Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what...

    Correct

    • If a corticospinal tract lesion occurs above the nuclei of cranial nerves, what neurological signs would be anticipated?

      Your Answer: Upper motor neurone signs in the limbs

      Explanation:

      Neurological Lesions and Their Effects on Motor Function: An Overview

      The human body relies on a complex network of nerves to control movement. When these nerves are damaged, it can result in a variety of motor function impairments. Two types of nerve lesions are upper motor neurone and lower motor neurone lesions.

      Upper motor neurone lesions affect the corticospinal tract, which connects the primary motor cortex to the alpha motor neurones in the spinal cord. This type of lesion causes spasticity, hyperreflexia, pyramidal weakness, clasp-knife rigidity, and extensor plantar responses.

      Lower motor neurone lesions affect the alpha motor neurone and can occur anywhere along the path of the final nerve, from the spinal cord to the peripheral nerve. This type of lesion causes muscle weakness, wasting, hyporeflexia, and fasciculations.

      Other nerve lesions can also affect motor function. Vagus nerve palsy, for example, can result in palatal weakness, nasal speech, loss of reflex contraction in the gag reflex, hoarseness of the voice, and a bovine cough. A plexiform neuroma, a benign tumor of the peripheral nerves, can cause a lower motor neurone lesion.

      Understanding the effects of neurological lesions on motor function is crucial for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression

      Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.

      The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy

      His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits the Elderly Care Clinic with his wife. He has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, which has been under control with various medications. However, his wife is concerned as he has been exhibiting abnormal behavior lately, such as spending a considerable amount of their savings on a car and making inappropriate sexual advances towards his elderly neighbor. Which medication is the probable cause of this man's change in behavior?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s Disease Medications and Their Association with Impulsive Behaviours

      Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and can lead to tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. There are several medications available to manage the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including dopamine agonists, anticholinergics, NMDA receptor antagonists, levodopa, and monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitors.

      Dopamine agonists, such as Ropinirole, are often prescribed alongside levodopa to manage motor complications. However, they are known to be associated with compulsive behaviours, including impulsive spending and sexual disinhibition.

      Anticholinergics, like Procyclidine, are sometimes used to manage significant tremor in Parkinson’s disease. However, they are linked to a host of side-effects, including postural hypotension, and are not generally first line. There is no known link to impulsive behaviours.

      Amantadine is a weak NMDA receptor antagonist and should be considered if patients develop dyskinesia which is not managed by modifying existing therapy. It is not known to be associated with impulsive behaviours.

      Levodopa, the most effective symptomatic treatment for Parkinson’s disease, may be provided in preparations such as Sinemet or Madopar. It is known to feature a weaning-off period and administration should be timed very regularly. However, it is only very rarely associated with abnormal or compulsive behaviours.

      Selegiline is a monoamine-oxidase-B inhibitor and can delay the need for levodopa therapy in some patients. However, it is not linked to compulsive behaviours such as sexual inhibition or gambling.

      In summary, while some Parkinson’s disease medications are associated with impulsive behaviours, others are not. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential side-effects of each medication and monitor patients for any changes in behaviour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is experiencing a difficult separation from her spouse. She presents with a 2-week history of increasing headaches that are affecting her entire head. The headaches worsen when she strains. She is also experiencing more frequent nausea. Although she is neurologically intact, there is slight papilloedema noted on fundoscopy. Other than that, her examination is unremarkable. In her medical history, she had a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in her calf when she was in her 30s, for which she received 6 months of treatment. She has not taken any significant medications recently. A non-contrast CT scan of her brain is performed and comes back normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Venous Sinus Thrombosis from Other Headache Causes

      Venous sinus thrombosis is a condition where one or more dural venous sinuses in the brain become blocked by a blood clot. This can cause a subacute headache with nausea and vomiting, along with signs of increased intracranial pressure. Diagnosis requires a high level of suspicion and imaging with contrast-enhanced CT venogram or MRI with MR venography. Treatment with heparin can improve outcomes, but specialist input is necessary if there has been haemorrhagic infarction. Other conditions that can cause headaches, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, tension headache, and encephalitis, have different presentations and require different diagnostic approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how...

    Correct

    • The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how to distinguish between the various types of dementia based on symptoms during the medical post-take ward round. What is a typical clinical characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Agnosia

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a group of disorders that affect cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, and communication. While Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, there are other types that have distinct symptoms. Here are some common symptoms of different types of dementia:

      Agnosia: The inability to perceive and utilize information correctly despite retaining the necessary, correct sensory inputs. It is a common feature of Alzheimer’s disease and leads to patients being unable to recognize friends and family or to use everyday objects, e.g. coins or keys.

      Pseudobulbar palsy: This is where people are unable to control their facial movements. This does not typically occur in Alzheimer’s disease and is seen in conditions such as progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

      Emotional lability: This is a common feature of fronto-temporal dementia (otherwise known as Pick’s dementia).

      Apathetic mood: This is typically a feature of Lewy body disease, but it can also present in other forms of dementia.

      Marche Ă  petits pas: It is a short, stepping (often rapid) gait, characteristic of diffuse cerebrovascular disease. It is common to patients with vascular dementia, as is pseudobulbar palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What brain structure is likely affected in a 72-year-old man who suddenly experiences...

    Incorrect

    • What brain structure is likely affected in a 72-year-old man who suddenly experiences paralysis on the left side of his body and oculomotor nerve dysfunction on the right side?

      Your Answer: Pons

      Correct Answer: Midbrain

      Explanation:

      Weber’s Syndrome: A Midbrain Infarction

      Weber’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an infarction in the midbrain. This can result in contralateral hemiplegia, which is paralysis on one side of the body, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy, which affects the eye muscles on the same side as the infarction. Patients with Weber’s syndrome often experience an abnormal level of consciousness and asymmetric hemiparesis or quadriparesis, which is weakness or paralysis in one or more limbs.

      In more than 70% of cases, patients also exhibit ipsilateral third nerve palsies with pupillary abnormalities and oculomotor signs. These symptoms can include drooping eyelids, double vision, and difficulty moving the eye in certain directions. Weber’s syndrome can be a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Treatment may involve medications to manage symptoms and physical therapy to help patients regain strength and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Autoantibody to voltage-gated calcium channels

      Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and tingling in all limbs. He had a recent episode of respiratory symptoms that resolved without treatment. On examination, he has decreased muscle strength in all extremities and absent deep tendon reflexes in the legs. Laboratory results show normal blood counts and electrolytes, as well as elevated CSF protein and normal glucose. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-infectious polyradiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Peripheral Neuropathy Diagnosis

      A history of progressive weakness and loss of tendon reflexes, especially after a recent infection, may indicate Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as post-infectious polyradiculopathy. It is important to monitor respiratory function regularly, and the best way to do this is by measuring the vital capacity. When diagnosing peripheral neuropathy, a focused clinical assessment that addresses several key issues can significantly narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of cough, blood in his sputum, and a 3- to 4-cm right-sided supraclavicular lymph node. During the examination, you observe that the right side of his face is dry, and his right eyelid is drooping. What is the most probable location of the patient's pathology?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Nerves Involved in Horner Syndrome

      Horner syndrome is a condition characterized by drooping of the eyelids (ptosis) and dryness of the face (anhidrosis), which is caused by interruption of the sympathetic chain. When a patient presents with these symptoms, an apical lung tumor should always be considered. To better understand this condition, it is important to know which nerves are not involved.

      The phrenic nerve, which supplies the diaphragm and is essential for breathing, does not cause symptoms of Horner syndrome when it is affected. Similarly, injury to the brachial plexus, which supplies the nerves of the upper limbs, does not cause ptosis or anhidrosis. The trigeminal nerve, responsible for sensation and muscles of mastication in the face, and the vagus nerve, which regulates heart rate and digestion, are also not involved in Horner syndrome.

      By ruling out these nerves, healthcare professionals can focus on the sympathetic chain as the likely culprit in cases of Horner syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked...

    Correct

    • A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity and Intraventricular Haemorrhages

      Prematurity is linked to the occurrence of intraventricular haemorrhages, which are believed to be caused by the fragility of blood vessels. However, it is important to note that intraventricular haemorrhage is not typically a symptom of haemophilia.

      Prematurity refers to a baby being born before the 37th week of pregnancy. Babies born prematurely are at a higher risk of developing intraventricular haemorrhages, which occur when there is bleeding in the brain’s ventricles. This is because the blood vessels in premature babies’ brains are not fully developed and are therefore more fragile. Intraventricular haemorrhages can lead to serious complications, such as brain damage and developmental delays.

      On the other hand, haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot. While haemophilia can cause bleeding in various parts of the body, it is not typically associated with intraventricular haemorrhages. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to his local Emergency Department with sudden loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of his visual field in both eyes. A CT scan of his head reveals an area of infarction in his brain, leading to a diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke. Which blood vessel is most likely occluded?

      Your Answer: Left ophthalmic artery

      Correct Answer: Right middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cerebral Artery Occlusions on Vision

      The brain’s interpretation of visual information is a complex process that involves multiple pathways and structures. The occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments.

      Right Middle Cerebral Artery
      The right middle cerebral artery supplies blood to the right superior optic radiation. An infarction in this area can cause contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia, which is the loss of vision in the lower left quadrant of the visual field of both eyes.

      Left Anterior Cerebral Artery
      An occlusion of the left anterior cerebral artery can lead to complete loss of vision in the left eye due to optic nerve ischaemia.

      Left Posterior Cerebral Artery
      A left posterior cerebral artery infarct can cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia, which is the loss of the medial half of the left eye’s visual field and the lateral half of the right eye visual field.

      Right Vertebral Artery
      The right vertebral artery supplies blood to the basilar artery and contributes blood to many anastomotic vessels. An occlusion in this area can result in unpredictable outcomes.

      Left Ophthalmic Artery
      An occlusion of the left ophthalmic artery can cause complete vision loss of the ipsilateral eye due to infarction of the ipsilateral optic nerve, similar to the possible ocular effects of an anterior cerebral artery infarct.

      In conclusion, the occlusion of different cerebral arteries can lead to various visual impairments, and understanding these effects can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of stroke patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (15/30) 50%
Passmed