-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old patient presents to the ophthalmology OPD with progressive deterioration of vision and dazzling of view in well lit environments. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis leading to this presentation?
Your Answer: Cataracts
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Cataract is a condition characterized by clouding of the lens of the eye. This condition most frequently occurs due to age-related degenerative processes in the lens, but can also be associated with ocular trauma, metabolic disorders, side-effects of drugs, or congenital infections. The clouding causes distortion of light, as it passes through the lens, resulting in visual impairment and glare. Initially, a cataract presents discretely and may even go unnoticed, but the visual impairment worsens as the cataract grows larger.
Diagnosis is typically established on the basis of a thorough history and direct visualization of the cataract (by means of slit-lamp microscopy). Surgery is indicated with significant visual impairment and involves lens extraction and implantation of an artificial lens. Untreated cataracts eventually lead to complete blindness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity. Which of the following is the most likely?
Your Answer: Zinc deficiency
Explanation:Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 21-year-old woman presents with painful vesicles in her right ear and a fever for some time. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster oticus is a viral infection of the inner, middle, and external ear. It manifests as severe otalgia with associated cutaneous vesicular eruption, usually of the external canal and pinna. When associated with facial paralysis, the infection is called Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 55-year-old man with a three-year history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He is currently managed with metformin 1 g BD and feels that his home blood glucose monitoring has deteriorated over the past few months. There is a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia for which he takes Ramipril 10 mg daily and atorvastatin 20 mg. On examination, his BP is 155/82 mmHg, his pulse is 71 and regular. His chest is clear. His BMI is 32. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.9 g/dl (13.5 – 17.7), White cell count 5.0 x109/l (4 – 11), Platelets 180 x109/l (150 – 400), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135 – 146), Potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5 – 5), Creatinine 123 mmol/l (79 – 118), HbA1c 8.0% (<7.0). He would like to start sitagliptin. Which of the following adverse effects would you warn him about?
Your Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Sitagliptin-induced pancreatitis can occur at any time after the initiation of therapy, even after several years. Patients taking sitagliptin who present with signs and symptoms of mild or severe pancreatitis should immediately discontinue sitagliptin and use an alternate medication regimen for control of type 2 diabetes.
In response to pancreatitis reported in post-marketing surveillance through the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS), the FDA has issued revised prescribing information for sitagliptin stating that cases of acute pancreatitis have been reported with use, to monitor closely for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis, and to use sitagliptin with caution in patients with a history of pancreatitis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?
Your Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance
Explanation:Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 37-year-old social worker is referred to you with a long history of diarrhoea and abdominal discomfort. She was diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome 10 years ago and takes mebeverine, peppermint tablets and Gaviscon. She is a vegetarian and rarely drinks or smokes. Examination of all systems is normal. Her blood tests show macrocytic anaemia. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals oesophagitis, hypertrophy of the gastric body and multiple duodenal ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Zollinger–Ellison syndrome
Explanation:This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin:
Your Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Current guidelines recommend the use of ambrisentan, Bosentan (recommendation I, level of evidence A) and macitentan (I, B) in patients with PAH and WHO functional class II and III. In WHO functional class IV, the first-line drug is Epoprostenol and the recommendation for Endothelin receptor antagonists is weaker (IIb, C).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now developed a rash. Chickenpox is diagnosed. What is the appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:You may treat chickenpox with acyclovir if it is commenced within the first 24 hours of the rash’s appearance. Erythromycin, doxycycline, and ampicillin would not help because it’s a viral infection (Varicella) not a bacterial infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a semi-opaque appearance on x-ray?
Your Answer: Cystine stones
Explanation:Only cystine stones are semi-opaque because they contain sulphur. All the other stones will appear either radio-lucent or radio-opaque.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
Your Answer: IV fluids
Explanation:Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following parameters is increased as a result of asthma?
Your Answer: None of these options
Correct Answer: Residual volume
Explanation:In asthma, a reversible increase in residual volume (RV), functional residual capacity (FRC), and total lung capacity (TLC) may occur. There is a fall in FEV1, FVC and gas transfer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 32-year-old lady, known with a history of Type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with increasing tiredness, mild upper abdominal discomfort and itching. The GP has arranged some investigations prior to her clinic visit. Investigations; Hb 13.2 g/dL, WCC 5.0 x109/L, PLT 240 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 μmol/L, HbA1c 8.3%, Anti-Smooth muscle antibody: positive, Immunoglobulins increased. Which of the following would be the next appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Liver function testing
Explanation:The key to this question is anti-smooth muscle antibodies. This is a finding of autoimmune hepatitis, which can be seen in type I diabetics. This also fits with her clinical picture. If you know these two facts, you should get every question correct regarding autoimmune hepatitis. Liver function testing is the best answer, then and should be elevated to indicate inflammation of the liver. Hepatic US, CK, thyroid function testing, short synacthen test are not helpful in the diagnosis of autoimmune hepatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which one of the following statements regarding the normal distribution is correct?
Your Answer: Mean = mode = median
Explanation:Normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a probability distribution that is symmetric about the mean. The normal distribution has the following properties:
– It is symmetric around the mode, the median and the mean of the distribution.
– It is unimodal
– The area under the curve and over the x-axis is unity (i.e. equal to one).
– Its density has two inflection points.
– Its density is log-concave.
The standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean. SD = square root (variance) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
– Bone pain (the most common symptom)
– Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
– Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
– Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
– Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?
Your Answer: 75%
Explanation:Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 56 year old woman taking procainamide develops drug induced erythematosus. Which of the following features is the most characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer: It does not occur with isoniazid
Correct Answer: It may occur with chlorpromazine
Explanation:Drug induced lupus is usually positive for antinuclear and antihistone antibodies, typically without renal or neurologic involvement. However, pulmonary involvement is common. Drugs that can induce lupus include isoniazid, hydralazine, procainamide, chlorpromazine, and other anticonvulsants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?
Your Answer: Blood glucose
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Explanation:Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A study is done on 1000 patients to assess the specificity of a new rapid finger-prick blood test developed to help diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The new test was positive on 200 patients with DVT and on 100 patients without DVT. It was also negative on 20 patients with DVT and 680 without DVT. What is the specificity of the new test?
Your Answer: 680/880
Correct Answer: 680/780
Explanation:Specificity (negative in health)
The ability of a test to correctly classify an individual as disease- free is called the test′s specificity. [Table 2]Specificity = d / b+d
= d (true negative) / b+d (true negative + false positive)
= Probability of being test negative when disease absent.
Example: One hundred persons with normal angles (diagnosed by ′gold standard′: gonioscopy) are examined by peripheral angle chamber depth examination. Eighty-five persons had normal peripheral angle chamber depth [Table 3]. The specificity of the peripheral angle chamber depth examination to PACG is therefore –
85 / 100 = 85%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 25 yr. old male presented with acute severe central chest pain which radiated backwards between his scapulae. He didn't have difficulty in breathing and the pain wasn't exacerbated by deep inspiration or a change in position. His father had died due to a heart disease when he was small. He also has a cardiac murmur which was never properly investigated. On examination he was tachycardic with a BP of 165/60 mmHg. There was a diastolic murmur at lower left sternal border which is best heard with the patient sitting forward. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his chest pain?
Your Answer: Mitral valve prolapse syndrome
Correct Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is Marfan’s syndrome because of a family history of cardiac death and heart murmurs. A characteristic feature is pain which radiates to the back. A wide pulse pressure and a diastolic heart murmur is suggestive of aortic dissection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint. What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?
Your Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate
Explanation:Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.
The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.
The other listed options are ruled out because:
1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
An 18-year-old male was diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis, confirmed on lumbar puncture. After 6 months he presents in the infectious clinic with a second episode of meningitis. His past history is clear and he takes no regular medication. Which of the following is most probably deficient?
Your Answer: C5
Explanation:Pneumococcal meningitis is the most common and severe form of bacterial meningitis. Fatality rates are substantial, and long-term sequelae develop in about half of survivors. Disease outcome has been related to the severity of the proinflammatory response in the subarachnoid space. The complement system, which mediates key inflammatory processes, has been implicated as a modulator of pneumococcal meningitis disease severity in animal studies. C5 fragment levels in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with bacterial meningitis correlated with several clinical indicators of poor prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A study is developed to assess a new anti-hypertensive drug and two groups of patients are randomly chosen. The first group takes an established anti-hypertensive drug for 3 months and the second group receives the new drug, again for 3 months. To assess the efficacy of the new drug, blood pressure is measured before and after taking the drug in both groups of patients. After a period of 1 month off medication, the groups swap medication and blood pressure is measured again, finally the difference in blood pressure after receiving each drug is calculated. Which of the following significance tests would you apply to assess the results of the study?
Your Answer: Mann-Whitney test
Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test
Explanation:A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, and they belong to the same patients, so a paired t test should be used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?
Your Answer: Secreted in response to an oral glucose load
Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 24 year old presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. She has also had two recent episodes of loin to groin pain. Her bloods are normal including her inflammatory markers What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Short bowel syndrome
Explanation:Given her history of bowel resections, the most likely answer in this case is short bowel syndrome. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion and less likely. Bacterial overgrowth does not relate to resection history, so unlikely. Celiac disease or a flare of IBD are also less likely than short bowel syndrome in this case, simply given the history. Also her labs are normal making these unlikely. History, history, history!
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: TB adenitis
Explanation:Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Around 20% of women have some degree of thyroid dysfunction post partum
Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery
Explanation:Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.
High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 65-year-old real estate broker presents with a tremor. Which one of the following features would suggest a diagnosis of essential tremor rather than Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched
Explanation:Difficulty in initiating movement (bradykinesia), postural instability and unilateral symptoms (initially) are typical of Parkinson’s. Essential tremor symptoms are usually worse if arms are outstretched and eased by rest and alcohol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain. A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra. A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression. A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain). He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch. Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?
Your Answer: Morphine
Correct Answer: Oxycodone
Explanation:Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.
Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure.
These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose.
Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.
Adverse effects:
Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc.Medications in renal failure:
Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failure
Antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
NSAIDs
Lithium
Metformin
Drugs that require dose adjustment:
Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
Digoxin, atenolol
Methotrexate
Sulphonylureas
Furosemide
Opioids
Relatively safe drugs:
Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicin
Diazepam
Warfarin -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 72 year old retired fisherman presents with weakness of shoulders and hips over the last four months. Finger flexion is also weak but the extension is normal. There has been some difficulty swallowing liquids. Past medical history is not significant except for sexually transmitted disease that he caught some 40 years ago in South Pacific and got treated with antibiotics. He smokes and drinks one or two tots of rum at the weekend. Creatine kinase level is 125. Which of the following investigations is most significant in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy with electron microscopy
Explanation:Inclusion body myositis (IBM) is a progressive muscle disorder characterized by muscle inflammation, weakness, and atrophy (wasting). It is a type of inflammatory myopathy. IBM develops in adulthood, usually after age 50. The symptoms and rate of progression vary from person to person. The most common symptoms include progressive weakness of the legs, arms, fingers, and wrists. Some people also have weakness of the facial muscles (especially muscles controlling eye closure), or difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). Muscle cramping and pain are uncommon, but have been reported in some people. The underlying cause of IBM is poorly understood and likely involves the interaction of genetic, immune-related, and environmental factors. Some people may have a genetic predisposition to developing IBM, but the condition itself typically is not inherited. Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood (at most ,10 times normal) are typical in IBM. Muscle biopsy may display several common findings including; inflammatory cells invading muscle cells, vacuolar degeneration, inclusions or plaques of abnormal proteins.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)