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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis.

    Which investigation is crucial...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis.

      Which investigation is crucial before initiating antituberculous treatment?

      Your Answer: Liver function test

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity in Antituberculous Treatment

      Hepatotoxicity, or liver damage, is a common occurrence in antituberculous treatment. To prevent further complications, the Joint Tuberculosis Committee of the British Thoracic Society recommends that liver function should be checked before starting treatment for clinical cases. This is to ensure that the liver is healthy enough to handle the medication and to monitor any changes in liver function during treatment. By doing so, healthcare professionals can adjust the treatment plan accordingly and prevent further liver damage. It is important to prioritize liver function monitoring in antituberculous treatment to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with HIV disease visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue and weakness. His lab results, taken eight weeks apart, are shown below.

      Results 1:
      Hb - 145 g/L
      WBC - 4.0 Ă—109/L
      Platelets - 70 Ă—109/L
      CD4 - 120 cells/mm3

      Results 2:
      Hb - 76 g/L
      WBC - 4.3 Ă—109/L
      Platelets - 200 Ă—109/L
      CD4 - 250 cells/mm3

      The normal ranges for these values are:
      Hb - 130-180 g/L
      WBC - 4-11 Ă—109/L
      Platelets - 150-400 Ă—109/L

      What is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Started highly active antiretroviral therapy

      Explanation:

      HAART and its Effects on CD4 and Platelet Counts

      Treatment with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) has been initiated between the first and second test results. This therapy involves a combination of three or more antiretroviral agents from different classes, including two nucleoside analogues and either a protease inhibitor or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The use of HAART has resulted in an increase in both CD4 count and platelet count.

      However, antiretroviral therapies can also cause anaemia in HIV-positive patients, with zidovudine (AZT) being the most common culprit due to its bone marrow suppression effects. In severe cases, patients may require blood transfusions. Macrocytosis, or the presence of abnormally large red blood cells, is a common finding in patients taking AZT and can be used as an indicator of adherence to therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP in Manchester with a week long...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP in Manchester with a week long history of an offensive smelling greenish-yellow vaginal discharge with associated vulval itching. She does not complain of lower abdominal pain. She is unkempt and admits to sleeping on the streets. She refuses your request that she should be seen at the local GUM clinic. Examination reveals a greenish-yellow discharge but is otherwise unremarkable. For which of the options provided should the patient be treated?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Syndromic Management for Vaginal Discharge

      When laboratory support is not available, the World Health Organisation recommends syndromic management based on signs and symptoms alone. This means that all possible conditions should be treated, as vaginal discharge is not a reliable indicator of the presence of a sexually transmitted infection (STI).

      Trichomoniasis is the most common non-viral STI worldwide and is more prevalent in less advantaged women in affluent countries. However, the possibility of Chlamydia trachomatis and gonorrhoeae depends on a risk assessment based on local factors.

      In summary, when laboratory support is not available, syndromic management should be used for vaginal discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient comes to you with a fever and rash one week after returning from a trip to Puerto Rico. He reports that his fever began five days ago and was followed by the appearance of a rash. Additionally, he has noticed bleeding gums while brushing his teeth and has experienced two nosebleeds since returning from his vacation. During the examination, you observe multiple mosquito bites on his legs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malaria

      Correct Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected Aedes mosquito. It is prevalent in tropical countries, with an estimated 100 million people being infected annually. The symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache, muscle pain, nausea, vomiting, skin rash, and mild bleeding. However, it cannot be spread from person to person.

      The high-risk areas for dengue fever include the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, Southern China, Taiwan, Pacific Islands, Caribbean, Mexico, Africa, and Central and South America. Diagnosis is made through a blood test to identify the virus, and treatment is supportive with symptom control. Unfortunately, there are currently no vaccines available to prevent dengue fever.

      The best way to prevent infection is to avoid mosquito bites. This can be done by wearing protective clothing, using mosquito repellent, and staying in air-conditioned or screened areas. the symptoms and risk factors of dengue fever can help individuals take necessary precautions to protect themselves from this potentially serious illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man with an indwelling catheter due to urinary incontinence after a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with an indwelling catheter due to urinary incontinence after a stroke is brought to the emergency department by his wife. He has been experiencing fevers, left loin and suprapubic pain for the past two nights, and his wife is worried that he may have a urinary tract infection. Upon examination, he has a temperature of 38.9°C, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a pulse rate of 95 bpm, and regular rhythm. You confirm the tenderness in his left loin and suprapubic area. What is the most appropriate management for his suspected UTI?

      Your Answer: You should change his indwelling catheter then begin antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Bacterial Urinary Tract Infection in Patients with Long Term Catheters

      Chronic colonisation of catheters can make it difficult to completely eliminate infections in patients with long term catheters. Therefore, it is recommended to change the catheter before starting antibiotic therapy. Dipstick testing and microscopy are not reliable in such cases, so the management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in adults should be based on symptoms of acute bacterial sepsis, according to SIGN guidelines. Local policies determine the choice of antibiotics, but co-amoxiclav is often the first line empirical option in this situation.

      It is important to note that patients with long term catheters require special attention and care to prevent infections. The management of suspected bacterial urinary tract infection in such patients should be based on careful observation of symptoms and adherence to local policies for antibiotic therapy. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a new fever and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a new fever and a pruritic rash on her trunk and limbs. The rash is mainly macular and has a reticular pattern. She also reports experiencing pain in her knees, elbows, and wrists, with slight swelling in her left wrist. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Morbilliform Rash: Parvovirus B19

      A patient presents with a generalised, macular rash with a lacy appearance on the trunk and extremities, along with arthralgia and arthritis. The differential diagnosis for a morbilliform rash includes infections such as measles virus, rubella, parvovirus B19, human herpesvirus 6, enterovirus, and other non-specific viruses. However, the lacy appearance of the rash and the presence of arthralgia and arthritis suggest a parvovirus B19 infection. In children, this infection presents with slapped cheek erythema, while in adults, it presents with a lacy erythematous rash and rheumatoid arthritis-like arthropathy. Diagnosis is made through positive anti-B19 IgM serology or positive serum B19 DNA polymerase chain reaction. Other infections, such as rubella, may also cause a morbilliform rash with arthropathy, but they do not typically have a lacy appearance. Human herpesvirus 6 does not cause arthropathy or a lacy rash, while staphylococcal toxins cause a sunburn-like or exfoliative rash. Measles is associated with a prodrome of conjunctivitis, coryza, and cough, but not arthritis, and the rash is not reticular in appearance. Therefore, parvovirus B19 should be considered in the differential diagnosis of a morbilliform rash with arthralgia and arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - What is the most frequently occurring infectious agent linked to acute pyelonephritis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring infectious agent linked to acute pyelonephritis?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Common Pathogens in Acute Pyelonephritis

      Acute pyelonephritis is commonly caused by Escherichia coli, which accounts for more than 80% of cases. Other pathogens that can cause this condition include Enterococcus faecalis, Klebsiella, and Proteus species. The infection typically begins in the bladder and then spreads to the renal parenchyma. At first, the bacteria multiply within the tubules. However, within 48 hours, damage to the tubular epithelium begins to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A healthcare assistant in her mid-30s presents to her general practitioner (GP) for...

    Correct

    • A healthcare assistant in her mid-30s presents to her general practitioner (GP) for a routine check-up. She reports a needlestick injury at work that occurred over a month ago, but she did not report it to occupational health as she believed the patient was low risk. She is now concerned about her infection status. The GP orders viral serology tests, which reveal the following results:
      HIV PCR: Negative
      Hepatitis C antibody: Negative
      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg): Negative
      Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core (HBc) antigen: Negative
      Anti-HBc (hepatitis B core antigen): Negative
      Anti-HBs (hepatitis B surface antibody): Positive
      Based on these results, what is the healthcare assistant's hepatitis status?

      Your Answer: Vaccinated against infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and even liver cancer. Vaccination is the best way to prevent infection, but it’s important to understand the results of hepatitis B serology tests to determine if someone is immune, currently infected, or susceptible to infection.

      Vaccinated against infection: This result indicates that the patient has previously been vaccinated with hepatitis B and is now immune to infection.

      Current chronic infection: A positive HBsAg, anti-HBc, and positive IgG anti-HBc result would indicate a current chronic infection. However, the picture shown represents a vaccinated individual.

      Current acute infection: A positive HBsAg, anti-HBc, and IgM anti-HBc result would indicate a current acute infection. However, the picture shown represents a vaccinated individual.

      Resolved infection: A positive anti-HBs and anti-HBc result, in addition to a negative HBsAg result, would indicate a resolved infection.

      Susceptible to infection: A completely negative serology result would indicate that the patient is susceptible to infection and should consider vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 4-year-old child is brought to the General Practice by his mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought to the General Practice by his mother. She informs you that her son has had a fever and has not been as active during play sessions. She decided to bring him into the surgery when he erupted in a rash two days ago. On examination, he has a vesicular rash which is widely disseminated and intensely pruritic. He has a temperature of 38 °C. You diagnose him with a common childhood infection. The next day, a patient, who is 14 weeks’ pregnant, reports that she briefly baby sat for the child before she knew about his infection. She has no recollection of having the infection as a child and she is well in herself.
      Given that the patient has been exposed to the infected child, what is the next best step in her management?

      Your Answer: Check for varicella antibodies

      Explanation:

      Management of Varicella in Pregnancy

      Explanation:
      When a pregnant woman presents with a vesicular pruritic rash, it is important to consider the possibility of varicella zoster virus infection. Varicella is a teratogenic virus that can harm the fetus, so prompt management is necessary. The first step is to check the woman’s immune status by testing for varicella antibodies. If the results are not available within two working days, referral to secondary services for prophylaxis should be considered. Watching and waiting is not appropriate in this situation. Administering a varicella zoster vaccine is not recommended due to the theoretical risk to the fetus. Immunoglobulins for rubella are not indicated. acyclovir may be used for symptomatic patients, but informed consent is required as the evidence for its safety in pregnancy is not strong. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in protecting the health of both the mother and the fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past 6 months but has not received any treatment. Recently, she started vomiting frequently and developed diplopia and a stiff neck. She was taken to the accident and emergency department for treatment. What are the possible treatment options for this woman?

      Your Answer: CSF drainage

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcal Meningitis in HIV-Infected Individuals

      HIV-infected individuals are susceptible to various opportunistic infections, including meningitis caused by viruses, mycobacteria, or fungi. Cryptococcal meningitis is a common infection in these individuals and can present insidiously, leading to much morbidity. This infection is notorious for causing raised intracranial tension, which can result in vomiting and altered consciousness.

      Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis involves periodic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), as steroids and mannitol have not been found to be effective in lowering CSF pressure. The mainstay of treatment is Amphotericin B, with 5-flucytosine or fluconazole added. Diagnosis may be delayed as overt signs of meningism, such as neck stiffness, may be absent.

      Tubercular meningitis may present similarly, but it progresses faster than cryptococcal meningitis. Steroids are used in tubercular meningitis but not in isolation, so they are not a good choice for cryptococcal meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is treated with ceftriaxone and vancomycin, but this case was slowly evolving over six months and is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis. acyclovir is used for viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 11 - A 77-year-old man who resides in a nursing home has been treated with...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old man who resides in a nursing home has been treated with co-amoxiclav for a chest infection. After completing the antibiotic course, he experiences abdominal pain, watery diarrhoea, and a temperature of 39.2°C. All other residents in the home are healthy. A stool sample is sent for testing as pseudomembranous colitis is suspected. What is the probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastrointestinal Infections

      Gastrointestinal infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses. Among the most common are Clostridium difficile, Salmonella spp., Norovirus, Escherichia coli, and Campylobacter spp.

      Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming bacterium that causes pseudomembranous colitis, a form of colitis associated with antibiotic treatment. It produces toxins that damage the mucosal lining of the bowel, leading to diarrhea. Risk factors for developing C. difficile-associated diarrhea include age, antibiotic treatment, exposure to infected persons, and hospitalization.

      Salmonella spp. are associated with infections of the gastrointestinal tract and diarrhea. Infection is mostly associated with eating undercooked meat, poultry, eggs, or egg products.

      Norovirus is the most common viral gastroenteritis in the UK and spreads quickly within a contaminated environment. It is often seen in hospital wards and care homes.

      Escherichia coli is associated with infections of the gastrointestinal tract and can cause severe diarrhea. It is most commonly associated with ingestion of contaminated water, unpasteurized milk or cheese, and undercooked beef.

      Campylobacter spp. are a common cause of gastroenteritis, mostly associated with ingestion of contaminated food in the form of raw poultry and unpasteurized milk products.

      It is important to identify the causative organism early and treat it according to local treatment guidelines to prevent complications such as toxic megacolon, bowel perforation, septicemia, and death. All confirmed cases of gastrointestinal infections must be reported to Public Health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 12 - A tool known as PrePexâ„¢ has been sanctioned by various organizations to reduce...

    Incorrect

    • A tool known as PrePexâ„¢ has been sanctioned by various organizations to reduce the spread of HIV. What is the purpose of this device?

      Your Answer: Blood filtration

      Correct Answer: Painless circumcision

      Explanation:

      PrePex Device Offers Painless Male Circumcision for HIV Prevention

      The PrePex device is a new method of male circumcision that is painless, sutureless, and does not require anaesthesia. It has been approved in countries such as Rwanda and is currently only available in sub-Saharan Africa. The World Health Organization (WHO) has found scientific evidence that male circumcision can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission. As a result, WHO is promoting this strategy in sub-Saharan Africa, where there has been a significant increase in the number of circumcision operations. However, it is important to note that circumcision should be used in conjunction with other measures, such as condom use, to reduce the incidence of HIV infection. The PrePex device is not designed for any other purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department with a red rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department with a red rash. Her mother reports that it started behind her ears and then spread down her head and neck before spreading to the rest of her body. The mother is unsure if her daughter has received all of her vaccinations. Upon further questioning, the mother reveals that her daughter had been feeling unwell with cold-like symptoms and a low-grade fever in the week leading up to the rash.
      During the examination, you observe grey/white spots in the girl's mouth and throat, indicating an infectious illness. What is the most severe complication that can arise from this illness?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

      Explanation:

      Measles and its Complications

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. Patients usually experience non-specific cold-like symptoms such as cough, fever, coryza, and conjunctivitis for a week before the appearance of a rash. Koplik spots, grey/white spots in the oral mucous membranes, are a telltale sign of the disease. Treatment is supportive, and symptoms usually resolve within one to two weeks in mild cases.

      However, measles can lead to various complications, including diarrhea, vomiting, conjunctivitis, and laryngitis. Less common complications include meningitis, pneumonia, encephalitis, hepatitis, bronchitis, thrombocytopenia, and croup. Rare complications such as optic neuritis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur. SSPE is a fatal condition that can develop several years after the measles infection and is characterized by gradual psycho-neurological deterioration, seizures, ataxia, and coma. Fortunately, SSPE is rare, occurring in only 1 in 100,000 cases of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman who is negative for HBV surface antigens is considering having...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is negative for HBV surface antigens is considering having unprotected sexual intercourse with a man who is positive for HBV.

      What should she do in this situation?

      Your Answer: Vaccine and specific hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Vaccine

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Vaccine in the UK

      Although the risk of hepatitis B is low in the UK, certain individuals are considered to be at high risk and are offered the vaccine. These high-risk groups include individuals who inject drugs or have a partner who injects drugs, those who receive regular blood transfusions, people with chronic liver disease, close family or sexual partners of someone with hepatitis B, and individuals traveling to high-risk countries.

      In the case of a patient whose partner has tested positive for the surface antigen (HBsAg), indicating that they are infected with hepatitis B, the patient may not require post-exposure treatment if they plan on having regular unprotected sexual intercourse. In this situation, the best course of action would be to receive the hepatitis B vaccine alone. It is important for individuals in high-risk groups to consider getting vaccinated to protect themselves against this potentially serious infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with advanced HIV disease. What is involved in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with advanced HIV disease. What is involved in strategic planning with antiretroviral medications?

      Your Answer: HIV patients should be started with ART at any CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Myth-busting HIV Treatment Guidelines

      Debunking Common Misconceptions about HIV Treatment Guidelines

      There are several misconceptions about HIV treatment guidelines that need to be addressed. Firstly, it is not necessary to wait until a patient’s CD4 count drops below 350 cells/ml before starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). Both the World Health Organization (WHO) and the British HIV Association (BHIVA) recommend starting treatment at any CD4 count.

      Secondly, intravenous didanosine should not be used for the treatment of pregnant women. The WHO has warned against the use of didanosine and stavudine in pregnant women due to an increased risk of lactic acidosis. Women who are already taking ART and/or PCP prophylaxis before pregnancy should not discontinue their medication. If starting ART during pregnancy, potent combinations of three or more antiretroviral drugs are recommended, but this should be delayed until after the first trimester if possible.

      Thirdly, HIV treatment does not involve three nucleoside analogues. Instead, treatment involves a combination of three drugs, which includes two nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and one ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitor (PI/r), one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), or one integrase inhibitor (INI).

      Lastly, the use of zidovudine in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for needlestick injuries in healthcare workers does not completely remove the risk of seroconversion. While this treatment option has been shown to reduce the risk, it does not eliminate it entirely.

      In conclusion, it is important to stay up-to-date with current HIV treatment guidelines and to dispel any misconceptions that may exist. Starting ART at any CD4 count, avoiding certain medications during pregnancy, using a combination of three drugs, and understanding the limitations of PEP are all crucial components of effective HIV treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - What is a true statement about Koplik's spots? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Koplik's spots?

      Your Answer: Diagnostic of measles

      Explanation:

      Koplik’s Spots: A Diagnostic Sign of Measles

      Koplik’s spots are a distinctive sign of measles, characterized by small, irregular, bright red spots with blue-white centers. These spots are typically found on the inside of the cheek next to the premolars and are only seen in cases of measles, making them a diagnostic indicator of the disease.

      Koplik’s spots usually appear briefly after the onset of fever and a few days before the generalized rash associated with measles appears. In some cases, the spots may disappear as the rash develops. These spots typically start to appear around two days after initial infection.

      Overall, the presence of Koplik’s spots is an important diagnostic sign of measles and can help healthcare professionals identify and treat the disease more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a nine-week history of fever. She has been experiencing daily temperatures up to 40°C, malaise, and occasional aches in the hands and knees. She also noticed a transient pink rash on her abdomen. Her GP prescribed a one-week course of ampicillin, but it had little effect. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.9°C, a pulse of 110 per minute, and a faint systolic ejection murmur. Her spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Her haemoglobin level is 115 g/L, and her white cell count is 12.8 Ă—109/L. Her ASO titre is 250 units, and her rheumatoid factor and ANF are negative. Blood cultures have been requested but are not yet available. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adult onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      Adult Onset Still’s Disease

      Adult onset Still’s disease is a type of inflammatory disorder that affects young adults. Its exact cause and development are still unknown, but it is characterized by various symptoms such as fever, rash, joint pain, and organ enlargement. The disease can have systemic exacerbations and chronic arthritis, with periods of remission in between. To diagnose adult onset Still’s disease, a person must have at least five criteria, including two major criteria such as high fever lasting for a week or longer, joint pain lasting for two weeks or longer, rash, and abnormal white blood cell count. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymph node or spleen swelling, liver problems, and the absence of rheumatoid arthritis.

      It is important to note that mildly raised ASO titres may be present in inflammatory or infective conditions, but an ASO titre of at least 500-1000 is expected in active acute rheumatic fever. Additionally, an ejection systolic murmur may be caused by the hyperdynamic circulation in adult onset Still’s disease, unlike acute rheumatic fever or acute bacterial endocarditis, which cause acute valvular regurgitation and result in pan-systolic or early-diastolic murmurs. Lastly, bacterial endocarditis does not cause the pink rash associated with adult onset Still’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - What is the accurate information about primary pulmonary tuberculosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate information about primary pulmonary tuberculosis?

      Your Answer: Usually produces cavitation acutely.

      Correct Answer: May be totally asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      When you see the CD symbol on a prescription, it means that the medication is a controlled drug. This indicates that the substance must be requested by a qualified practitioner and signed and dated. The prescription must also include the prescriber’s address. Additionally, the prescriber must write the patient’s name and address, the preparation, and the dose in both figures and words. If the prescription is written by a dentist, it should state for dental use only. Controlled drugs include opiates and other substances that require careful monitoring and regulation. By the CD symbol and the requirements for prescribing controlled drugs, patients can ensure that they receive safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old man has recently come back from a bachelor party in Latvia....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has recently come back from a bachelor party in Latvia. He is experiencing pain while urinating and a white discharge from the tip of his penis. Additionally, he is suffering from a swollen and painful left knee. During the examination, the doctor observes a white discharge from his penis and an erythematosus, tender, and swollen left knee. The man is also running a fever of 38.1 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Correct Answer: gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Differentiating gonorrhoeae from Other Infections

      gonorrhoeae is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis and arthritis. When someone returns from an area with a high prevalence of gonorrhoeae, they may experience symptoms such as a purulent discharge, fever, and joint pain. This is not a reactive arthritis because the patient has both urethritis and arthritis at the same time, and is pyrexial during the current illness.

      The acute monoarthritis is a manifestation of disseminated gonococcal infection, which can be confirmed through a Gram stain that shows intracellular Gram negative diplococci. While reactive arthritis can occur after gonorrhoeae, it typically presents as a polyarthritis and has a lag of one to three weeks from the time of the initial disease.

      Chlamydial infection, on the other hand, does not usually cause a purulent discharge and symptoms usually occur slightly longer after exposure than with gonorrhoeae. Pyelonephritis presents with fever and pain in the renal angles, while trichomoniasis is much less common than gonorrhoeae and does not usually present with arthritis. By the differences between these infections, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A teenage girl is brought to you by her concerned mother. The girl...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is brought to you by her concerned mother. The girl has an erythematosus rash on her cheeks but is feeling fine otherwise. Upon examination, she has a 'slapped cheek' appearance.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Beta-haemolytic Streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Skin Rashes and Their Symptoms

      Parvovirus B19: This virus causes erythema infectiosum or ‘fifth disease’ which is a self-limited disease with mild constitutional symptoms. Symptomatic management can be provided with NSAIDs.

      Staphylococcus aureus: This common bacteria can cause skin diseases like folliculitis, cellulitis, impetigo, or secondary skin infections of wounds.

      Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6): HHV6A and HHV6B can cause diarrhoea, fever, and occasionally a roseola rash in young children. Infection with this virus does not cause the characteristic ‘slapped cheek’ rash.

      Beta-haemolytic Streptococcus: Group B Streptococcus can cause complications during pregnancy and can be passed on to the newborn baby.

      Measles virus: Measles causes a generalised maculopapular erythematous rash, alongside symptoms of fever, cough, runny nose, and red eyes. A child with a rash who is otherwise well is unlikely to have measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulcers, accompanied by feelings of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of painful genital ulcers, accompanied by feelings of being unwell, feverish, headache, and muscle pains. She had engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a casual male partner two weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. Upon examination, multiple shallow ulcers are observed on her vulva, along with mildly tender muscles and a low-grade fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes zoster virus

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Genital Ulcers

      Chancroid, a sexually transmitted infection, is characterized by multiple painful ulcers that appear within three to ten days after exposure to the bacteria. This infection is more common in tropical regions. On the other hand, genital infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) typically presents with multiple painful ulcers one to two weeks after exposure to the virus. HSV is the most common cause of multiple painful genital ulcers and can also cause a systemic illness. Herpes zoster, another viral infection, can also cause multiple painful genital ulcers, but this is much less common than HSV. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) usually causes a single, painless ulcer and is associated with unilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Finally, primary syphilis causes a single, painless ulcer, while secondary syphilis causes multiple painless ulcers. the different causes of genital ulcers is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - An 82-year-old man has presented to the Emergency Department, following a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man has presented to the Emergency Department, following a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath, productive cough and fever. His past medical history is significant for type II diabetes, currently controlled with metformin. He is a non-smoker, denies recent travel and has no regular contact with animals.
      An examination is performed, which reveals a heart rate of 91 bpm, a blood pressure of 98/59 mmHg, a temperature of 38.2 °C and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute. Coarse crackles are heard on auscultation of the right lower lobe. A chest X-ray is performed, which confirms the presence of a right lower lobe pneumonia. The patient is admitted to the Respiratory Ward for intravenous (IV) empirical antibiotics and fluid resuscitation. A sputum culture result has been received two days later:
      Investigation Result
      Sputum
      Rust-coloured sputum
      After two days of growth, a Gram-positive spherical bacterium which tends to grow in chains is observed
      Partial haemolysis is observed on blood agar plate
      Which of the following organisms is the most likely responsible for the patient’s pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various bacteria. The most common organism associated with pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can be identified by its Gram-positive spherical shape and chain formation. It is also known for causing rust-coloured sputum. Staphylococcus aureus, another Gram-positive bacterium, grows in clusters rather than chains. Klebsiella pneumoniae, a Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium, is commonly associated with aspiration pneumonia. Haemophilus influenzae, a small Gram-negative rod-shaped bacterium, is often linked to exacerbation of COPD. Streptococcus pyogenes, a Gram-positive spherical bacterium that aligns in clusters, does not typically cause pneumonia and is associated with complete haemolysis on a blood agar plate. Knowing the characteristics of these bacteria can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old practising solicitor attends the Neurology Clinic with his wife. She is deeply concerned regarding his worsening memory. Over the past three months, he has become increasingly forgetful, to the point where he has had to take sick leave from work. He has had two recent presentations to the Emergency Department following falls, though a computed tomography (CT) head scan did not demonstrate any abnormality. On examination, there is an ataxic gait and you notice fasciculations and involuntary jerking movements of the upper limbs. He has had no family history of neurological disease and was previously fit and well.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Correct Answer: Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Case Study

      A patient presents with rapidly progressive dementia, imbalance leading to falls, and myoclonus. The most likely diagnosis is Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease (CJD), a devastating prion disease without cure. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred for diagnosis, as CT head is ineffective.

      Vascular dementia, another common cause of cognitive impairment, typically has a slower and stepwise onset in patients with a significant vascular history. A CT head would likely identify existing small vessel disease in the brain of a patient with vascular dementia.

      Huntington’s disease, characterized by abnormal movements and cognitive impairment, is not the most likely diagnosis due to the rapid progression and lack of family history.

      Lewy body dementia, which features visual hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, usually presents over a longer period of time.

      Motor neuron disease, which includes weakness and fasciculations, is unlikely due to the absence of weakness in this presentation. Frontotemporal dementia may rarely develop in motor neuron disease, but it is a slowly progressive phenomenon, unlike the rapid deterioration in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her parents....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her parents. She has been experiencing a dry cough with coryzal symptoms. On examination, there is evidence of conjunctivitis and an erythematosus rash on her forehead and neck which is confluent. Oral examination reveals red spots with a white centre on the buccal mucosa, adjacent to the lower second molar tooth. She is currently apyrexial, though her parents state she has been feverish over the past two days. Her heart rate is 80 bpm. No one else in her family is unwell, though her sister did have chickenpox earlier in the month.
      What is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Measles and Other Viral Infections

      Measles, a highly contagious viral infection, is often mistaken for other viral illnesses such as rubella, Kawasaki disease, mumps, and parvovirus B19. However, there are distinct differences in their clinical presentations. Measles is characterized by cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis, along with the presence of Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa. Rubella, on the other hand, presents with low-grade fever, conjunctivitis, and an erythematosus rash, but without Koplik spots. Kawasaki disease is an idiopathic vasculitis that affects young children and is associated with fever, inflammation of the mouth and lips, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Mumps, caused by a paramyxovirus, typically affects the salivary glands and is not associated with a rash. Parvovirus B19, also known as fifth disease, causes an erythematosus rash on the cheeks and can also cause a morbilliform rash, but without Koplik spots. Therefore, recognizing the presence of Koplik spots is crucial in distinguishing measles from other viral infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with HIV and started on antiretroviral medication....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with HIV and started on antiretroviral medication. She initially responded well to treatment, but now presents with fatigue and abdominal discomfort after 8 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      - Haemoglobin: 92 g/L (115-165)
      - Urea: 6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Bilirubin: 3 mg/dL; direct: 0.2 mg/dL (0.3-1.9)
      - AST: 39 IU/L (<35)
      - ALP: 150 IU/L (44-140)

      Which specific antiretroviral drug is this patient currently taking?

      Your Answer: Atazanavir

      Explanation:

      Drug Reaction with Atazanavir and Indinavir

      The use of protease inhibitors such as atazanavir and indinavir can lead to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is characterized by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. This condition was observed in a patient who had normal renal function and mildly raised liver enzymes. The reaction is usually benign and reversible upon discontinuation of the drug. The mechanism of this drug reaction is competitive inhibition of the UGT1A1 enzyme. Individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome are more susceptible to this reaction.

      Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles. Nevirapine can cause hepatitis, which is characterized by elevated liver enzymes. Stavudine can cause peripheral neuropathy and pancreatitis, but it is being phased out of treatment regimens. Tenofovir can lead to renal dysfunction, which was not observed in this patient. Zidovudine can cause anemia, hepatitis, and myopathy, among other side effects.

      In conclusion, the patient’s presentation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is most likely due to the use of atazanavir or indinavir. Discontinuation of the drug is usually sufficient to reverse the condition. Other drugs used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS have different side effect profiles and should be considered when evaluating patients for drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 26 - A sexually active 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of lower abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of lower abdominal pain that has been present for two days. She reports that her last menstrual period was six weeks ago and has experienced post coital bleeding along with deep dyspareunia. Upon examination, there is tenderness in the lower abdomen and adnexal tenderness during pelvic examination. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Pelvic Inflammatory Disease: Symptoms, Differential Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that affects the female reproductive system. It is often characterized by lower abdominal pain and abnormal vaginal discharge. However, these symptoms may also be indicative of other conditions, such as ectopic pregnancy, which is why it is important to consider differential diagnoses. Other symptoms of PID include intermenstrual and post-coital bleeding, dysuria, deep dyspareunia, and fever. The most common pathogens responsible for PID are Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

      Early treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial in reducing the risk of long-term complications, such as infertility. PID can lead to scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, which can result in difficulty getting pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
      On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
      Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?

      Your Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 8

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.

      CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female has suffered a minor cut on her right hand while gardening. She has received all necessary immunisations. What is the most appropriate course of action for tetanus prevention?

      Your Answer: Oral penicillin should be administered

      Correct Answer: No action is required

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Toxoid Immunisation Schedule

      Active immunisation with tetanus toxoid is a routine vaccination given to infants at 2, 3, and 4 months of age as part of the DPT vaccine. A fourth dose is administered after three years, and a fifth dose is given before leaving school. Once a patient has received all five injections at the appropriate intervals, further toxoid is generally not required due to the risk of side effects and decreased immunity caused by overstimulation. Therefore, this man is considered fully immunised against tetanus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man from Manchester presents to you with a complaint that he has been treated for oral thrush by one of your colleagues for several months, but the topical treatment has not been effective. He is currently taking an oral anticoagulant for a DVT that occurred without any apparent cause, and has recently experienced an outbreak of shingles. He has not taken any antibiotics recently and has recently separated from his long-term male partner. Upon examination, he appears to be thin and has typical Candida on his tongue and palate. Which test would be the most appropriate to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Swab of tongue for MC&S

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Oral Candidiasis and its Association with Immune System Defects

      Oral candidiasis, a fungal infection in the mouth, is a concerning condition in young healthy individuals as it may indicate an underlying defect in the immune system. Further investigation is necessary to identify the root cause of the infection. In London, men who have sex with men have a high prevalence of HIV, which is a likely diagnosis in such cases. HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and other health complications.

      Apart from HIV, other immune system defects may also lead to oral candidiasis. Recurrent attacks of shingles in a young person may also indicate a weakened immune system. Additionally, HIV infection is a predisposing factor for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a condition where blood clots form in the veins deep within the body. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the underlying cause of oral candidiasis and other related conditions to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

      Overall, oral candidiasis is a red flag for immune system defects, and healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying and addressing the root cause of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - What is the probable diagnosis for a 20-year-old woman who has been experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a 20-year-old woman who has been experiencing myalgia, high fever, headache, diarrhea, and an erythematosus rash that started in the groin and has spread over the past four days?

      Your Answer: Lupus erythematosus

      Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Skin Disorders

      Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) is a condition caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Half of the cases of TSS are linked to tampon use in women, while the other half result from localized infections. The initial symptom is often sudden and severe pain, which is followed by tenderness or physical findings. In some cases, patients may experience an influenzae-like syndrome, which includes fever, chills, myalgia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever is the most common early sign, but hypothermia may be present in patients with shock. Therefore, TSS should always be considered in young women presenting with these symptoms.

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a life-threatening skin disorder that causes blistering and peeling of the top layer of skin. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is another skin infection that is characterized by peeling skin. The most common symptoms include an erythematosus painful infection site, blistering, fever, chills, weakness, fluid loss, and peeling of the top layer of skin in large sheets. Epidermolysis bullosa is a group of diseases that cause blister formation after minor injury to the skin. This family of disorders, most of which are inherited, ranges in degrees of severity from mild to severely disabling and life-threatening diseases of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (18/30) 60%
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