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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements about the use of triptan agonists for treating...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the use of triptan agonists for treating migraines is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of an aura

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to take triptans as soon as the headache begins, rather than waiting for the aura to start.

      Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.

      It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.

      Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      151.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as...

    Incorrect

    • A couple brings their 2-year-old son to see the family General Practitioner, as they are concerned about his development. He was born at term. He was a little slow to crawl but started walking at around 18 months. He has never had much speech. In the last few weeks, he has stopped walking and stopped feeding himself. He has started clapping his hands every few minutes and at times seems very distressed and screams. He has not been unwell with a fever or recent illness. The is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Angelman syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      The child in the video exhibits symptoms of a rare neurological genetic disorder called Rett syndrome. This condition is caused by a random mutation of the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome and typically affects girls between six and 18 months of age. Symptoms include delayed speech, muscle weakness, and jerky hand movements, which can be distressing for the individual. Other possible symptoms include microcephaly, seizures, and scoliosis. Sturge-Weber syndrome, Angelman syndrome, phenylketonuria, and encephalitis are unlikely diagnoses based on the absence of specific symptoms and history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start university in a few months. His friends have advised him to get vaccinated before he begins. He is of 'White British' ethnicity, has a clean medical history, and will be studying English at the University of Manchester. Which vaccine should he receive as part of the standard NHS immunisation program?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningitis ACWY

      Explanation:

      Due to a recent surge in meningitis W cases, the NHS is now advising all incoming students to receive the meningitis ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman comes to talk about shingles vaccine. She says she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to talk about shingles vaccine. She says she has had shingles before – although there is no record of this in her notes – and she doesn't want it again, as she has heard it is more severe if you get it when you are older. Which of the following is it most important to make her aware of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should postpone vaccination until he is 70-years old

      Explanation:

      Shingles Vaccination: Who Should Get It and When?

      The national shingles immunisation programme aims to reduce the incidence and severity of shingles in older people. The vaccine is recommended for routine administration to those aged 70 years, but can be given up until the 80th birthday. Vaccination is most effective and cost-effective in this age group, as the burden of shingles disease is generally more severe in older ages. The vaccine is not routinely offered below 70 years of age, as the duration of protection is not known to last more than ten years and the need for a second dose is not known.

      Zostavax® is the only shingles vaccine available in the UK, and is contraindicated in immunosuppressed individuals. Previous shingles is also a contraindication, as there is a natural boosting of antibody levels after an attack of shingles.

      Clinical trials have shown that the vaccine reduces the incidence of shingles and post-herpetic neuralgia in those aged 60 and 70 years and older. However, it is important to note that the vaccine is only effective in reducing neuralgia.

      In summary, the shingles vaccine is recommended for routine administration to those aged 70 years, but can be given up until the 80th birthday. It is contraindicated in immunosuppressed individuals and those with a history of shingles. While the vaccine is effective in reducing neuralgia, it is not a guarantee against shingles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A previously healthy 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the General Practitioner with a 3-day history of coughing. He has now started to go off his feeds and his mother is getting rather concerned. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, with fine crepitations heard all over his lungs, with some wheeze in both lung fields.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Respiratory Symptoms in Infants

      Respiratory symptoms in infants can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some common conditions and their typical symptoms:

      Bronchiolitis: This acute infection of the lower respiratory tract is most common in infants between two and six months old. Symptoms include difficulty feeding, low-grade fever, coryza, cough, dyspnoea, wheezing, and respiratory distress.

      Croup: This inflammation of the upper airways is usually caused by a respiratory virus and affects children from three months to three years old. Symptoms include a barking cough, stridor, and wheeze.

      Asthma: This condition is rarely diagnosed in infants due to the lack of a clear diagnostic test. Symptoms overlap with common childhood illnesses and include coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.

      Heart failure: This should be considered in infants with feeding and breathing difficulties, but typically presents with symptoms since birth.

      Pneumonia: This is another possible diagnosis for respiratory symptoms in infants, but examination findings such as reduced air entry and dull percussion note would support this diagnosis.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and examination findings is necessary to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment for respiratory symptoms in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrizinamide) for pulmonary tuberculosis. The patient also takes sertraline for a history of depression. The patient reports a decline in vision, specifically a decrease in color vibrancy. Which medication is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes for follow-up after experiencing a systemic reaction to a wasp sting during a picnic at the park. She reports swelling and redness at the site of the sting that had begun to spread to her face.

      What is the best course of action for long-term management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for venom immunotherapy and dispense an adrenaline auto-injector (AAI, e.g. EpiPen®)

      Explanation:

      Venom allergy can cause local or systemic reactions, including anaphylaxis. Acute management is supportive, with anaphylaxis treated with adrenaline, steroids, and antihistamines. Referral to an allergy specialist is recommended for those with systemic reactions or suspected venom allergy. Venom immunotherapy may be recommended for those with a history of systemic reactions and raised levels of venom-specific IgE, but should not be performed in those without demonstrable venom-specific IgE or recent anaphylaxis. VIT has a high success rate in preventing systemic reactions and improving quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is on ramipril, digoxin, metformin, quinine and bisoprolol. She has been experiencing mild ankle swelling lately. Following an echo, she has been urgently referred to cardiology due to moderate-severe aortic stenosis. Which of her medications should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Moderate to severe aortic stenosis is a contraindication for ACE inhibitors like ramipril due to the potential risk of reducing coronary perfusion pressure and causing cardiac ischemia. Therefore, the patient should stop taking ramipril until cardiology review. However, bisoprolol, which reduces cardiac workload by inhibiting β1-adrenergic receptors, is safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis. Digoxin, which improves cardiac contractility, is also safe to use unless there are defects in the cardiac conduction system. Metformin should be used with caution in patients with chronic heart failure but is not contraindicated in those with valvular disease. Quinine is also safe to use in the presence of aortic stenosis but should be stopped if there are defects in the cardiac conduction system.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her life and has rarely had to see the doctor. She smokes 10 cigarettes a week. Examination is unremarkable other than a left-sided ptosis and some slight thinning of the muscles of her left hand, which she thinks might be long-standing.
      What is the most probable reason for her left-sided ptosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes and Characteristics of Unilateral Ptosis and Lid Lag in Thyrotoxicosis

      Unilateral ptosis, or drooping of one eyelid, can be caused by disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris, Horner syndrome, or a third nerve palsy. Local inflammation of the conjunctiva can also lead to ptosis. Myasthenia gravis typically results in bilateral ptosis, but it may be asymmetrical.

      Disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris is characterized by the loss of the crease normally seen on the upper eyelid and is often due to dysfunction of the superior rectus and levator muscles. It may be iatrogenic or degenerative due to senility.

      Lid lag, where the upper eyelid lags behind the upper edge of the iris as the eye moves downward, is a common characteristic of thyrotoxicosis. A similar phenomenon can occur with the lower edge when the eye moves upwards.

      In cases where weakness of hand muscles is present, a T1 root lesion is likely, indicating Horner syndrome. Miosis, or constriction of the pupil, can be subtle and easily missed. In smokers, a high suspicion of a Pancoast’s tumor (apical pulmonary tumor) should be considered in patients with such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - What structure is at highest risk of injury in a fracture of the...

    Incorrect

    • What structure is at highest risk of injury in a fracture of the neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The nerve supply to deltoid

      Explanation:

      Deltoid Muscle and Nerve Supply

      The deltoid muscle, located in the shoulder, is innervated by the circumflex humeral (axillary) nerve. While it is not a common occurrence, injury to this nerve can result in complications with the deltoid muscle. In fact, it is the most likely complication of this type of injury. It is important to be aware of this potential complication in order to properly diagnose and treat any issues that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old woman has come to the sexual health clinic complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has come to the sexual health clinic complaining of a thick, foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has been present for a week. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications. During the examination, vulvitis is observed, but her cervix appears normal. A sample taken from a vaginal swab and examined under light-field microscopy reveals motile trophozoites, and NAAT results are pending. What is the most suitable treatment based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is more common in women than men, and many women with the infection do not experience any symptoms. In order to diagnose trichomoniasis, a sample of vaginal discharge is collected and examined under a microscope for the presence of motile trophozoites. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done through molecular testing. Treatment typically involves taking oral metronidazole for a specified period of time. Other sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and candidiasis, require different treatments.

      Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis

      Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis are two common sexually transmitted infections that affect women. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while Trichomonas vaginalis is caused by a protozoan parasite. Both infections can cause vaginal discharge and vulvovaginitis, but Trichomonas vaginalis may also cause urethritis in men.

      The vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis is typically thin and grayish-white, with a fishy odor. The pH of the vagina is usually higher than 4.5. In contrast, the discharge in Trichomonas vaginalis is offensive, yellow/green, and frothy. The cervix may also appear like a strawberry. The pH of the vagina is also higher than 4.5.

      To diagnose bacterial vaginosis, a doctor may perform a pelvic exam and take a sample of the vaginal discharge for testing. The presence of clue cells, which are vaginal cells covered in bacteria, is a hallmark of bacterial vaginosis. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by examining a wet mount under a microscope. The motile trophozoites of the parasite can be seen in the sample.

      Both bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with antibiotics. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for both infections. For bacterial vaginosis, a course of oral metronidazole for 5-7 days is recommended. For Trichomonas vaginalis, a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic dandruff that worsens during the winter months and has not responded to over-the-counter treatments. She reports a rash on her elbows and knees. On examination, she has silvery scale on her scalp, elbows, and knees that can be removed but causes pinpoint bleeding. The thickness of the scalp scale is not significant. What is the most suitable initial management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone lotion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scalp Psoriasis: NICE Guidelines and Beyond

      Scalp psoriasis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment. One telltale sign is Auspitz’s sign, where pinpoint bleeding occurs when a scale is removed due to thinning of the epidermal layer overlying the dermal papillae. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a potent corticosteroid as initial treatment for up to four weeks, followed by a different formulation or calcipotriol if necessary. Topical agents containing salicylic acid, emollients, or oils can also be used to remove scale before resuming corticosteroid treatment. However, tar-based shampoos are not recommended as a sole treatment option. A combined product containing calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate may be used as a first-line treatment, as it has been shown to be more effective than using the drugs separately. Overall, there are various treatment options available for scalp psoriasis, and it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a night, hesitancy of stream, and no frequency. He has also experienced a reduced appetite for the past 6 weeks and increased fatigue in the early evening. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with no masses, but a digital rectal exam reveals a firm, irregularly enlarged prostate with no identifiable median sulcus. A urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and leukocytes. His blood test results are as follows: PSA 4.9 ng/ml; K+ 4.9 (3.5-5.5 mmol/L); Na 134 (135-145 mmol/l); creatinine 107 (60-110 μmol/l); urea 8.6 (2.8 - 8.5 mmol/L); and fasting glucose of 4.9. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral to urologist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Testing and Biopsy Risks for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer. However, it should not be measured without a digital examination. If the screen is positive, a biopsy may be needed, which carries risks such as infection, haematuria, and haematospermia, as well as a small mortality risk. It’s important to note that about one-third of men with a raised PSA will have prostate cancer, but biopsies can miss about one-fifth of cancers.

      When counselling a man for PSA testing, it’s crucial to explain the potential risks and benefits. Urgent referral is not necessary if the prostate is simply enlarged and the PSA is within the age-specific reference range. The Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme recommends age-specific cut-off PSA measurements, with a threshold of 3.5 ng/ml for men under 50, over 3.5 ng/ml for men aged 50-59, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69, and clinical judgement for men aged 70 and over.

      Understanding the nuances of PSA testing and biopsy risks can help men make informed decisions about their prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 15 - A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among...

    Incorrect

    • A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among the 8950 participants diagnosed with prostate cancer through histological examination, 8900 had a positive test outcome. Meanwhile, 13,750 healthy participants had a positive screening result. What is the specificity of this novel screening tool?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 68.70%

      Explanation:

      To calculate specificity, we need to use a 2*2 table with the following values for a sample size of 11,000 participants:

      Disease Healthy
      Positive TP=8900 FP=13750
      Negative FN=50 TN=30120

      Specificity is the probability of getting a negative test result when the person is healthy/doesn’t have the screened disease. We can calculate specificity using the formula:

      Specificity = TN / (TN+FP)

      Plugging in the values from our table, we get:

      Specificity = 30120 / (30120 + 13750) =

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman has been exposed to a case of meningitis and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been exposed to a case of meningitis and is prescribed a short course of rifampicin. She is currently using Nexplanon. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nexplanon cannot be relied upon - suggest a Depo-Provera injection to cover

      Explanation:

      To ensure reliable contraception, it is recommended to take a two-month course of Cerazette (desogestrel) as Nexplanon may not be dependable.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 17 - A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because...

    Incorrect

    • A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because she has been in contact with a child who has been diagnosed with measles.

      Her exposure to the child was within six days of the onset of rash in the affected child. She has not been immunised against measles and she doesn't think that she has contracted measles in the past.

      How would you manage this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer immediate MMR immunisation

      Explanation:

      Managing Measles Exposure in Pregnant Women

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to measles, it is crucial for GPs to know how to respond appropriately. Simply reassuring her that no further action is necessary or to re-attend if she becomes unwell is not enough. Instead, GPs should offer an urgent blood test to check for measles IgG if there is no history of the patient receiving two doses of measles containing vaccine or if she is not known to be immune from previous measles disease.

      If the patient is immune, GPs can reassure her that the risk of measles is low and advise her to contact her GP or midwife if she develops a rash. However, if the patient is non-immune and has been exposed within six days of onset of rash in the suspected or confirmed case, GPs can offer human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) after checking IgG for measles first rather than giving HNIG empirically.

      It is important to note that pregnant women should not be offered MMR vaccine. Measles infection in pregnancy can lead to intrauterine death and preterm delivery, and severe illness in the mother, but is not associated with congenital infection or damage. While HNIG may not prevent measles, it has been shown to attenuate the illness. However, there is no evidence that it prevents intrauterine death or preterm delivery. By following these guidelines, GPs can effectively manage measles exposure in pregnant women and prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.

      Understanding Ludwig’s Angina

      Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.

      Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis

      Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 20 - A group of elderly patients are being prescribed a newly licensed antidepressant, which...

    Incorrect

    • A group of elderly patients are being prescribed a newly licensed antidepressant, which has been reported in journals as having superior efficacy and tolerability to alternatives in its class. Nonetheless, after some months, the drug is withdrawn from the market because of an unexpected number of serious adverse reactions reported through drug surveillance schemes.
      Which of the following is the most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small numbers of participants in the clinical trials

      Explanation:

      Explaining Possible Causes of Missed Side Effects in Drugs

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of drugs before they are released on the market. However, these trials involve a relatively small number of participants who may not represent the general population. This is where post-marketing surveillance comes in, to monitor the safety of drugs after they are used by a larger number of people. Inappropriate prescribing of drugs could lead to more side effects, but this should be addressed by tightening prescribing guidelines rather than withdrawing the drug. Misleading marketing by pharmaceutical companies is unlikely, but publication bias could lead to only positive results being reported, which could enhance the apparent efficacy of the drug. Overall, it is important to continue monitoring drugs for potential side effects even after they are approved for use.

      Understanding the Causes of Missed Side Effects in Drugs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 21 - A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes...

    Incorrect

    • A mother presents to the General Practitioner with her 5-day-old son. She believes his scrotum looks abnormal and is worried that he has an undescended testicle.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate method of diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physical examination

      Explanation:

      An undescended testis occurs when a testis is not present in the scrotum. This can be due to various reasons such as testicular maldescent, retractile testes, ascending testis syndrome, or testicular agenesis. To diagnose this condition, physical examination is recommended, and the testes can be categorized as palpable or non-palpable. Magnetic resonance imaging is not necessary as physical examination is cheaper, faster, and more accessible. Parental history may raise concern, but physical examination is still necessary for confirmation. Diagnostic laparoscopy can be used to investigate the underlying cause of undescended testes, but it is not used for diagnosis. Ultrasound scanning is not recommended for routine evaluation as it is not accurate enough to reliably detect or confirm the absence of an impalpable testis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with weakness in his right upper limb. Upon examination, there is weakness in the right triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus. Sensation is normal. The right triceps jerk is absent, and there is some wasting of the dorsum of the forearm. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the back part of the upper limb and originates from the brachial plexus, carrying fibers from spinal nerves C5-8 and T1. It supplies the triceps, brachioradialis, and extensor digitorum profundus muscles, with the myotome of the triceps and extensor digitorum being C7 and that of the brachioradialis being C6. Both radial nerve palsy and C7 radiculopathy can result in an absent triceps jerk, and sensory loss in patients with radial nerve palsy is typically at the anatomical snuffbox, although sensation is usually normal. Trauma or entrapment, particularly between muscle heads, can damage the radial nerve, with the extent of muscle power loss depending on the lesion level. The brachioradialis muscle flexes the forearm at the elbow and tends to supinate when the forearm is pronated and pronate when the forearm is supinated. The extensor digitorum muscle extends the medial four digits of the hand. Brachial plexus injuries can cause weak triceps, wrist drop, and possibly median and ulnar nerve involvement. Radiculopathy is a mechanical compression of a nerve root, usually resulting in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension, decreased sensation in a dermatomal distribution, and pain in the neck, shoulder, and/or arm. The posterior interosseous nerve is a deep motor branch of the radial nerve that emerges above the elbow between the brachioradialis and brachialis muscles, and compression can result in finger drop, radial wrist deviation on extension, and proximal forearm pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - Which option is the most effective in lowering LDL cholesterol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is the most effective in lowering LDL cholesterol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pravastatin 10 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statin Intensity and LDL Cholesterol Reduction

      Statins are a class of drugs that can have varying effects on reducing LDL cholesterol levels, depending on the specific statin used and its dosage. Low intensity statins typically reduce LDL cholesterol by 20-30%, while medium intensity statins can reduce it by 31-40%. High intensity statins, on the other hand, can produce a reduction greater than 40%.

      To be considered a high intensity statin, a drug must cause an approximate 55% reduction in LDL cholesterol. Atorvastatin 80 mg daily is the only option listed that meets this criteria. The other options are either low or medium intensity, exerting a lesser effect on LDL cholesterol reduction.

      Understanding the efficacy of different statins and dosages is important in determining which treatment options are recommended in guidelines and what results can be expected. The statin intensity table provided by NHS England is a helpful tool for comparing statins and their dosages in terms of their intensity. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can make informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 25 - A 4-year-old girl, Lily, has a febrile convulsion at home. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl, Lily, has a febrile convulsion at home. She has been suffering from Chickenpox. This is her third febrile convulsion, the last one was six months ago and was during a viral gastroenteritis. The convulsion quickly terminates within a minute and Lily recovers promptly at home. Mum asks for medication to prevent further febrile convulsions. What advice should the GP give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tell her that no preventative treatment is required for Jonny's febrile convulsions

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use preventative treatment for febrile convulsions as the risks of regular anti-epileptic medications outweigh the benefits. There is no evidence that regular use of paracetamol or ibuprofen during an illness can prevent febrile convulsions. While antipyretics may provide comfort to a febrile child, they do not reduce the risk of febrile convulsions.

      If a parent witnesses their child having a febrile seizure, they should take steps to prevent the child from harming themselves. Placing the child in the recovery position during the seizure is recommended. Seizures that last longer than 5 minutes require medical treatment, and parents should call for an ambulance. If the child experiences regular febrile convulsions, parents may keep PR diazepam at home to administer if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman seeks your advice regarding her risk of passing on Duchenne muscular dystrophy to her future children. Her brother has the condition and genetic testing has confirmed that she is a carrier. She is aware that the disorder is inherited as an X linked recessive trait. Her partner, who is 31 years old, has no significant medical or family history of genetic disease. What guidance do you provide her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daughters of a female carrier have a 50% chance of being a carrier

      Explanation:

      Understanding X Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X linked recessive conditions are caused by a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. This type of inheritance affects males more than females because men only have one gene copy. Females, on the other hand, are typically unaffected but carry the condition.

      One of the key characteristics of X linked recessive inheritance is that there is no male-to-male disease transmission. This means that a father must pass his Y chromosome to all his sons, which makes it impossible for a father to pass on the condition to his son. However, daughters of an affected male must all be carriers because the father must pass his X chromosome to all daughters.

      If a female is a carrier of an X linked recessive condition, her male offspring have a 50% chance of being affected. Female offspring of a female carrier also have a 50% chance of being carriers. Understanding X linked recessive inheritance is important for genetic counseling and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old traveller presents to the GP casualty unit with a five-inch dirty...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old traveller presents to the GP casualty unit with a five-inch dirty wound on his shin after mucking out horses. The wound is cleaned and sutured, but the patient is unsure of his vaccination status.

      What is the most suitable recommendation for tetanus treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give him tetanus immunoglobulin and a course of five tetanus vaccinations

      Explanation:

      Treatment for High-Risk Wounds

      This man’s wound poses a high risk of contamination from horse manure, and we do not know his vaccination status. Immediate action is necessary to prevent tetanus infection. Tetanus immunoglobulin can provide short-term protection, but it takes several months to achieve long-term immunity after the first dose of tetanus vaccine and up to a week after a booster. Therefore, the patient should receive both tetanus immunoglobulin and a full course of five tetanus vaccinations, with intervals of at least four weeks between doses. The standard dose of tetanus immunoglobulin is 250 IU IM, but if the wound is heavily contaminated, or if there is a delay in seeking treatment, a dose of 500 IU is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 28 - A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has Chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:

      Varicella IgM Negative
      Varicella IgG Negative

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your GP clinic seeking advice on infertility. He and his partner have been attempting to conceive for 2 years. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and has a BMI of 24 kg/m2. There is no history of testicular torsion or sexually transmitted infections. His blood pressure and genital examination are normal. His partner has consulted her GP, who is arranging some blood tests for her.

      What investigations should be conducted for this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semen sample and chlamydia testing

      Explanation:

      For men with infertility, NICE suggests that the first primary care investigations should include semen analysis and chlamydia screening using a first void urine sample. Additionally, a clinical examination should be conducted to check for any indications of hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, or scrotal masses. It is recommended that a semen sample be produced after abstaining for at least 2 days but no more than 7 days. However, NICE doesn’t recommend screening for antisperm antibodies.

      Understanding Infertility: Initial Investigations and Key Counselling Points

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. However, it is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sex will conceive within 1 year, and 92% within 2 years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      To determine the cause of infertility, basic investigations are typically conducted. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test, which is done 7 days prior to the expected next period. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if the level is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it consistently remains low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      In addition to these investigations, there are key counselling points that should be addressed. These include advising the patient to take folic acid, aiming for a BMI between 20-25, and having regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Patients should also be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption.

      By understanding the initial investigations and key counselling points for infertility, healthcare professionals can provide their patients with the necessary information and support to help them conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in...

    Incorrect

    • According to probability, what is the most probable cause of a fall in an elderly person? Please

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Environmental hazards

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Falls in the Elderly: Environmental Hazards and Other Factors

      Falls are a common and serious problem among the elderly, with significant consequences such as increased morbidity, mortality, and nursing home placement. While there are many risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, medication use, and cognitive impairment, environmental hazards are a major cause, accounting for 31% of falls. Loose rugs, poor lighting, and clutter are just a few examples of hazards that can contribute to falls.

      Other factors that contribute to falls include gait and balance disorders, dizziness and vertigo, and confusion. Postural hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, is also a common cause of falls, often due to medication use. Vasovagal syncope, a reflex-mediated autonomic failure, can also cause falls in the elderly.

      Visual impairment is another significant risk factor for falls, as it can affect perception of environmental elements. Individuals with visual impairment are almost twice as likely to fall compared to those with normal vision.

      To prevent falls, it is important to address all risk factors, including environmental hazards, through exercise, medication review, vision assessment, and home safety modifications. By understanding the causes of falls in the elderly, we can take steps to prevent them and improve the health and well-being of older adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 31 - A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.

      Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.

      Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.

      If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 32 - A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat

      Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:

      1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.

      2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.

      3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.

      4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.

      It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 33 - A 42-year-old female patient complains of left-sided facial muscle weakness that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient complains of left-sided facial muscle weakness that has been present for 72 hours. She has no known medical conditions and is not taking any medications. The symptoms started during a camping trip, and she believes that her delay in seeking medical attention may have contributed to the severity of her condition. Upon examination, she exhibits left-sided facial nerve palsy with no forehead movement. All other cranial nerves appear normal, and there are no neurological deficits in her upper or lower limbs. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for this woman’s symptoms and signs of Bell’s palsy is oral prednisolone, which should be prescribed within 72 hours of symptom onset. Antiviral treatments, either alone or in combination with prednisolone, are not recommended as they have been shown to be ineffective or have weak evidence of benefit. Referring to an ENT specialist is not necessary unless there are signs of worsening neurological disturbance or systemic upset. Self-care measures alone are not sufficient and additional treatment such as eye care should be provided.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 34 - A 26-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He has a history of non-compliance with his medication regimen. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 600 L/min. What is the characteristic feature that indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 100/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma, which is often tested in exams. Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, and the inability to complete sentences in one breath. Oxygen therapy should aim to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%. Increasing symptoms is not a marker of an acute severe attack, but rather denotes a moderate asthma exacerbation. There is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their personal best or predicted reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack. In the case of a peak flow of 250 L/min, which is considerably reduced from the patient’s usual best of 600 L/min, this is the only indicator of an acute severe attack. If any of these features persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 35 - A 6-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother and stepfather....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother and stepfather. He has a 2-month history of intermittent abdominal pain. The pain is colicky in nature and periumbilical. His appetite is slightly reduced. He is not constipated. The pain is causing him to miss some school, but he also experiences it at the weekend. The patient is otherwise normal and his height and weight are on the 50th centile.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Functional abdominal pain is a common condition among children, affecting up to 25% of them. It is characterized by pain in the abdominal area that is not caused by any organic factors. Symptoms that may indicate a non-organic cause include pain near the belly button, absence of other gastrointestinal symptoms, no disturbance in sleep, normal physical examination, and the child’s overall well-being. In most cases, a thorough history, examination, and explanation are sufficient to manage the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, referral to a pediatrician and further investigations may be necessary to rule out organic causes. School refusal is a psychological disorder that causes severe anxiety in children when attending school or being separated from their parents. Abdominal pain may be a symptom, but it is not usually experienced on weekends. Abdominal migraine is characterized by sudden episodes of intense pain in the periumbilical area, lasting for at least an hour, accompanied by anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, photophobia, or pallor. Intussusception is a rare condition that occurs mostly in infants aged five to ten months, making it unlikely to be the diagnosis for this patient. Irritable bowel syndrome is also unlikely as the patient has no changes in bowel habits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 36 - A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having stopped breastfeeding her youngest child one week ago. She has a history of mastitis during breastfeeding her older children. On examination, a non-tender lump is found in the left breast at the three o'clock position, 4 cm away from the nipple. The skin overlying the lump appears unaffected. Her vital signs are as follows:

      Heart rate: 88, respiratory rate: 12, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg, Oxygen saturation: 98%, Temperature: 37.4 Cº.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation. Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a common risk factor for both conditions. However, galactoceles are typically painless and non-tender on examination, with no signs of infection, while breast abscesses are usually associated with local or systemic signs of infection. Although the patient’s history of mastitis raises suspicion for a breast abscess, the absence of tenderness, erythema, and fever strongly suggests a galactocele in this case.

      Understanding Galactocele

      Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and doesn’t cause any local or systemic signs of infection.

      In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and doesn’t require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 37 - A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Up to 90%

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy

      Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.

      If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.

      Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 38 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 39 - A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman who is taking oral prednisolone for a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis is planning a 4-week holiday to a remote jungle region of Asia. She has completed her childhood vaccination programme and received a polio booster six years ago. However, she has heard that she requires further travel vaccinations. Her travel agent has suggested the items below, but she is a bit concerned about the safety of these given her medical history.
      Which vaccine would be contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Considerations for Immunocompromised Individuals

      Live vaccines, such as rubella, measles, mumps, BCG, yellow fever, and oral polio vaccine, should not be administered to individuals who are immunocompromised. However, the hepatitis, typhoid Vi, and tetanus vaccines, which are formaldehyde-inactivated virus, polysaccharide antigen, and adsorbed toxoid, respectively, pose no risk to these individuals. Although their efficacy may be reduced in immunocompromised individuals, inactivated polio vaccine is available if needed. It is important to note that polio has been eradicated in the Americas since 1991. The main concern for immunocompromised individuals is the yellow fever vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 40 - A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.

      In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.

      If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a complaint of right elbow pain. The pain has been persistent for the last four weeks and is most severe approximately 4-5cm distal to the lateral aspect of the elbow joint. The pain is exacerbated by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Elbow Pain

      Elbow pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own characteristic features. Lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. Pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes typically last between 6 months and 2 years, with acute pain lasting for 6-12 weeks.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the medial epicondyle. Pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation, and symptoms may be accompanied by numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th finger due to ulnar nerve involvement.

      Radial tunnel syndrome is most commonly due to compression of the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve, and is thought to be a result of overuse. Symptoms are similar to lateral epicondylitis, but the pain tends to be around 4-5 cm distal to the lateral epicondyle. Symptoms may be worsened by extending the elbow and pronating the forearm.

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to the compression of the ulnar nerve. Initially, patients may experience intermittent tingling in the 4th and 5th finger, which may be worse when the elbow is resting on a firm surface or flexed for extended periods. Later, numbness in the 4th and 5th finger with associated weakness may occur.

      Olecranon bursitis is characterized by swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, with associated pain, warmth, and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 42 - A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a six week history of dry cough, weight loss of 1 stone and generalised fatigue. He has smoked 15 cigarettes per day for 45 years. He had a chest x ray done a week ago which reports a suspicious mass in the left lung with hilar enlargement ? lung cancer. The radiologist recommends urgent referral.

      You explain the findings to the patient and his wife and discuss the need for referral. The patient states that he has private medical insurance to cover out-patient appointments and he also has a close friend who is a general physician. He requests private referral to him as he knows he will be seen within a few days.

      There are other options for referral in your area. You have a district general hospital nearby where a respiratory physician does a clinic once a month, however the last clinic has only just been held. You have a community hospital nearby with a general physician visiting every two weeks. The tertiary referral hospital is some distance away but this is where the specialist lung cancer multi-disciplinary team are based and the patient will be seen within two weeks.

      The patient would rather be seen as near to home as possible.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NHS referral to multi-disciplinary lung cancer team at the tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      Referral for Cancer Symptoms

      NICE guidance recommends that patients with symptoms suggestive of cancer should be referred to a team specializing in the management of that particular type of cancer. Referral to a private physician or a general physician at a community hospital doesn’t fulfill this requirement for specialized care. While a respiratory physician at a district general hospital may be an option, the potential delay of more than four weeks is not ideal. Therefore, despite the greater distance to travel, the best course of action is to refer the patient to a specialist team for optimal management of their cancer symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability, hypertension, ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of a learning disability, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to hospital and subsequently dies.
      What is the most common cause of death in people with a learning disability?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circulatory disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Death in People with Learning Disabilities

      People with learning disabilities are at a higher risk of premature death compared to the general population. The most common cause of death in this group is circulatory or cardiovascular disease, accounting for 22.9% of deaths. Regular health check-ups can help promote long-term health and prevent such diseases.

      Cancer is another major cause of death, responsible for 13.1% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. While it is a significant cause of death, it is not the most common.

      Aspiration pneumonitis, a potentially preventable cause of death, accounts for 3.6% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. It is important to be aware of this cause of death and take necessary precautions to prevent it.

      Epilepsy is responsible for 3.9% of deaths in people with learning disabilities. Like aspiration pneumonitis, it is a preventable cause of death, and awareness can help reduce the risk.

      Respiratory disease is the second most common cause of death in people with learning disabilities, accounting for 17.1% of deaths. It is crucial to monitor and manage respiratory conditions in this population to prevent premature deaths.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 44 - A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.

      Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.

      There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.

      Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 45 - A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and smoking presents to the clinic with severe abdominal pain. He appears pale, sweaty, and reports that the pain is radiating to his back. He also mentions that he has lost sensation in his feet. Upon examination, he has a tachycardia and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg while lying down.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain and Shock with Neurological Symptoms

      Abdominal pain and shock with neurological symptoms can be indicative of several medical conditions. One possible diagnosis is a ruptured aortic aneurysm, which may cause a pulsatile mass in the abdomen and involve the spinal arteries. Acute pancreatitis may also cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would not typically produce neurological symptoms. Biliary colic, on the other hand, may cause pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant that radiates to the back, but it usually resolves within 24 hours. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is another emergency presentation that may produce abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve chest or jaw pain/heaviness and ECG changes. Finally, a perforated duodenal ulcer may cause abdominal pain and shock, but it would also involve marked tenderness and rigidity. Therefore, a ruptured aortic aneurysm is the most likely diagnosis in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 46 - A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and gradual weakness in his legs. After undergoing an MRI scan of his spine, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy caused by a C4/5 disc prolapse. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical decompressive surgery

      Explanation:

      Specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery) should urgently assess all patients with degenerative cervical myelopathy due to the importance of early treatment. The timing of surgery is crucial as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Early treatment, within 6 months of diagnosis, offers the best chance of a full recovery. However, most patients are presenting too late, with an average of over 5 appointments before diagnosis, representing more than 2 years in one study.

      Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment that has been shown to prevent disease progression. Close observation is an option for mild stable disease, but anything progressive or severe requires surgery to prevent further deterioration. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage.

      To ensure good outcomes for patients, prompt diagnosis and onward referral are crucial. National initiatives are underway to raise awareness of the condition and improve referral times. None of the other listed options in this question control the patient’s primary pathology.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 47 - A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate...

    Incorrect

    • A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate release oxybutynin tablets.

      She says she had to stop taking them because of side effects.

      What side effect is commonly found in elderly women taking oxybutynin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Oxybutynin

      Oxybutynin is a medication that belongs to the antimuscarinic class of drugs. It is commonly used to treat urinary incontinence and overactive bladder. However, it can cause several side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, dry eyes, and decreased sweating. If the immediate release formulation of oxybutynin is not well-tolerated, a sustained release formulation may be considered.

      It is important to note that a recent clinical review published in the BMJ has highlighted the potential cognitive side effects of medications with a high anticholinergic burden, including oxybutynin. This can lead to cognitive impairment, which can worsen the symptoms of dementia or even lead to false positive diagnoses. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential side effects of oxybutynin and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 48 - A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is discharged after suffering a fractured neck of femur. Upon follow-up, his progress is satisfactory, but there is a need to consider secondary prevention of future fractures. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start oral bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Treatment is recommended for women who have confirmed osteoporosis following fragility fractures. Vitamin D and calcium supplements should be offered to all women unless they have adequate intake. Alendronate is the first-line treatment, but if patients cannot tolerate it, risedronate or etidronate may be given. Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if bisphosphonates cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are complex and based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, while vitamin D and calcium supplements have a poor evidence base. Raloxifene, strontium ranelate, and denosumab are other treatment options, but they have potential side effects and should only be prescribed by specialists. Hormone replacement therapy is no longer recommended for osteoporosis prevention due to concerns about increased rates of cardiovascular disease and breast cancer. Hip protectors and falls risk assessments may also be considered in the management of high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 49 - A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of atopic eczema that has been challenging to manage. Upon examination, the child has multiple umbilicated papules primarily on the neck and trunk. When compressed, the lesions discharge a cheesy substance.

      What would be your plan of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No specific treatment necessary

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: A Common Skin Condition in Children

      Molluscum contagiosum is a skin condition caused by a DNA pox virus that is more common in children with atopic eczema. It is characterized by dome-shaped papules, usually a few millimeters in diameter, with a central punctum that is often described as umbilicated. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy material.

      While no specific treatment is needed, the lesions may take 12-18 months to disappear. However, if patients are concerned about the unsightly appearance of the rash, they can be shown how to squeeze the lesions to express the central plug out of each Molluscum. This can speed up the resolution process.

      In summary, Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin condition in children that can be managed with simple techniques. It is important to reassure patients that the lesions will eventually disappear on their own and that treatment is only necessary for cosmetic reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 50 - A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's...

    Incorrect

    • A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's Syndrome. They are concerned that over the past year, their daughter’s social skills have diminished and she has become irritable and un-co-operative. They are especially worried that there may be an underlying medical condition causing these changes.
      Which of the following conditions occurs most commonly in adult patients with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia

      Explanation:

      Health Conditions Associated with Down Syndrome

      Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions associated with Down Syndrome:

      Alzheimer’s Dementia: Individuals with Down Syndrome have a significantly higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s Dementia. The onset of clinical features is typically around the age of 55, and dementia is thought to contribute to death in around a third of patients.

      Ischaemic Heart Disease: The prevalence of Ischaemic Heart Disease is not increased in individuals with Down Syndrome, and for men, it has been reported to be lower than the general population.

      Addison’s Disease: While relatively rare in comparison to Alzheimer’s Dementia, Addison’s Disease is still more prevalent in individuals with Down Syndrome than in the general population.

      Carcinoma of the Thyroid: While fewer solid and other haematological malignancies are seen in individuals with Down Syndrome compared to the general population, the incidence of childhood leukaemia is increased.

      Coeliac Disease: Coeliac Disease is another autoimmune disease that occurs more commonly in people with Down Syndrome, with a prevalence of around 5%. Some recommend screening for this condition.

      In conclusion, individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and provide appropriate screening and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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