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Question 1
Incorrect
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A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?Your Answer: Vancomycin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases
Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.
Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.
Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns about his walking pattern. During examination, you observe an in-toeing gait. Further examination of his limbs reveals bilateral femoral anteversion as the only abnormality. The child is otherwise developing normally.
What would be the appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Routine referral to orthopaedics
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:It is normal for toddlers and young children to walk with their feet facing inwards, a condition known as in-toeing. This should resolve on its own by the age of 8-10 years, and parents should not be overly concerned. In-toeing is often caused by femoral anteversion, which typically corrects itself as the child grows. Orthotics and physiotherapy are not necessary for this condition, except in cases where it is associated with metatarsus adductus. However, if in-toeing persists beyond the age of 8 with symptoms such as frequent tripping or pain, referral to an orthopaedic specialist may be necessary. It is not necessary to refer children with in-toeing to paediatrics, as it is considered a normal variation.
Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children
Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.
One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.
Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.
Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.
In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has advanced chronic kidney disease.
Select from the list of serum biochemical investigations the single one that is typical for a patient with this condition.Your Answer: Low potassium
Correct Answer: Low bicarbonate
Explanation:Renal Failure and its Effects on Electrolyte Balance
Renal failure can lead to metabolic acidosis due to decreased excretion of H+ ions and reduced synthesis of urinary buffers such as phosphate and ammonia. This results in a marked decrease in urinary phosphate levels and a rise in extracellular potassium levels due to intracellular displacement. Calcium homeostasis is also affected as the kidney’s role in activating vitamin D and increasing calcium reabsorption from the kidneys is inhibited by phosphate retention. Sodium levels may be normal or decreased due to water retention outweighing the decreased excretion. Overall, renal failure has significant effects on electrolyte balance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of increased difficulty in walking. During examination, weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and of the extensor hallucis longus is observed, along with loss of sensation on the lateral aspect of the lower leg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:A lesion in the common peroneal nerve can result in a reduction in the strength of both foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough
A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.
While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.
In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?Your Answer: Trichomonas
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:
Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.
Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.
Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher is undergoing treatment for moderate depression with citalopram 20 mg daily. She initially sought help due to a recent break-up and stress at work caused by a difficult colleague. This is her first experience with depression and she has been taking medication for three months. She has a supportive family, including her parents and sister who live nearby.
At her last appointment one month ago, she reported still feeling sad when alone with her thoughts and not fully recovered. However, at her most recent appointment, she reported feeling like her usual self again. She has resolved the work issues with her colleague and is enjoying her social life with friends. She has also started practicing yoga and is interested in tapering off her medication.
Based on her current progress, when is the earliest appropriate time for her to consider tapering off her medication?Your Answer: He can tail off now that he has recovered
Correct Answer: He can tail off in six months
Explanation:Duration of Antidepressant Treatment
This patient, a relatively young individual who has experienced a first episode of depression, has successfully recovered without any lingering issues that would indicate a high risk of recurrence. It is recommended that he continue taking his antidepressants for at least six more months. While there are situations where treatment may need to be extended, such as for older adults or those at a high risk of relapse, this patient is eager to reduce his medication. Therefore, six months is the earliest opportunity for reducing the dose.
It is common for patients to want to stop taking their medication once they feel better. However, it is important to remind them that depression can be a recurrent condition. Continuing treatment for the recommended period can help prevent relapse and will not result in addiction to the medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Correct
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You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.
Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?Your Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol
Explanation:Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention
Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.
It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?Your Answer: Wear a collar
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.
It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.
Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.
Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Correct
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You receive a discharge summary for Mr. Chen, a 65-year-old man, who has had an acute surgical admission with pancreatitis. The summary notes that it was thought to be drug-related. His past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. His regular medications are ramipril, warfarin, metformin, sitagliptin, and atorvastatin. He also takes an over-the-counter vitamin D supplement.
Which of his medications might have caused this presentation and should be reported by Yellow Card?Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Pancreatitis is a rare but significant side effect of DPP4-inhibitors, while Bisoprolol, apixaban, and vitamin D do not have this adverse effect. Metformin doesn’t cause pancreatitis, but it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, which is why it should be discontinued in cases where there is a risk of this condition, such as in serious illnesses like pancreatitis. The correct answer is Sitagliptin, as DPP4-inhibitors have been linked to acute pancreatitis and should be discontinued if suspected and reported through the Yellow Card system.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and cholestatic liver dysfunction. Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer: 62-year-old female
Explanation:The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of lower back pain and a burning sensation in her right upper thigh that began 2 weeks ago. She reports that the pain is more noticeable when she stands for extended periods of time at work, but it doesn't interfere with her sleep. During a hip and knee examination, no motor abnormalities are detected. She speculates that the pain may be related to her recent participation in a spin class.
What condition is likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that occurs when the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh is compressed, resulting in burning and numbness in the upper lateral portion of the thigh. This condition typically affects only one side of the body and doesn’t cause any motor deficits. Symptoms may worsen with hip extension or prolonged standing, but sitting down can provide temporary relief.
Femoral neuropathy, on the other hand, affects both the sensory and motor functions of the muscles innervated by the nerve. While burning pain and paraesthesia may be present, weakness in the legs, especially when climbing stairs, is also a common symptom. A hip and knee exam may reveal abnormalities such as weakness when extending or flexing these joints.
Referred lumbar radiculopathy is another condition that can cause leg pain, but the pain is typically located in the back of the leg rather than the upper-lateral portion. The pain is often described as a shooting pain, and patients may also experience motor deficits.
Superior cluneal nerve dysfunction can also cause burning pain and paraesthesia, but this condition affects the lower back and upper gluteal area rather than the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, leading to the development of meralgia paraesthetica. The condition is more common in men than women and is often seen in those with diabetes or obesity.
Symptoms of meralgia paraesthetica include burning, tingling, numbness, and shooting pain in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. These symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. Diagnosis can be made through the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive, or through nerve conduction studies. Treatment options include injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic or surgical decompression.
In conclusion, meralgia paraesthetica is a condition that can cause significant discomfort and restriction in patients. Understanding its causes, symptoms, and diagnostic methods can aid in its timely diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Correct
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Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.
What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?Your Answer: 3
Explanation:As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.
Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Correct
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A 40-year-old male patient complains of a lump in his right scrotum that has been present for the past 2 weeks. He denies any pain or urinary symptoms and reports stable weight. Upon examination, a smooth 4mm lump is palpated above and separate from the testicle, which is mobile and non-tender. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Epididymal cyst
Explanation:Based on the description provided, it is probable that the lump is an epididymal cyst. The patient doesn’t appear to be experiencing any symptoms associated with the lump. It is not a teratoma as it is not located in the testicle. A hydrocoele is a swelling of one side of the scrotum, and there are no lymph nodes in this area. Varicoceles typically feel like a cluster of veins and are more commonly found on the left side. An ultrasound of the scrotum can be used to confirm the diagnosis of an epididymal cyst.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of excessive sweating. Thyroid function tests reveal normal serum TSH concentration, but elevated concentrations of both free thyroxine and free triiodothyronine. What is the most probable explanation for these findings?
Your Answer: Self-administration of thyroxine
Correct Answer: A TSH-secreting pituitary tumour
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hyperthyroidism with Normal TSH Levels
Hyperthyroidism with normal TSH levels can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is a TSH-secreting pituitary tumour, which is a rare condition that can lead to excessive secretion of TSH and growth hormone. Another possible cause is self-administration of thyroxine, but this can be ruled out if TSH secretion is still suppressed. Graves’ disease, a common cause of hyperthyroidism, is less likely as it typically results in unmeasurable TSH concentrations. Heterophilic antibodies in the patient’s serum can cause bizarre results, but this is unlikely to be the cause in a patient with classic symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. Finally, thyroid hormone resistance (Refetoff syndrome) is a rare syndrome where thyroid hormone levels are elevated but TSH levels are not suppressed. However, this is unlikely if the patient is symptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 21-year-old man comes to your clinic for an appointment scheduled by his father, who is worried about his son's lack of sleep.
During the consultation, the patient reveals that he no longer feels the need to sleep for more than 2-3 hours. He appears talkative and mentions that he has been staying up late to work on an online business that he believes will bring him a lot of money. He expresses annoyance at people questioning him, especially since he usually feels low in mood but now feels much better. There are no reports of delusions or hallucinations.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms, including a significant decrease in sleep without feeling tired, excessive talking, irritability, and overconfidence in their business, suggest a possible hypomanic phase of bipolar disorder. This is further supported by their history of depression. Insomnia, which typically results in feeling tired and wanting to sleep, is less likely as the patient doesn’t report feeling tired. Psychosis is also unlikely as there are no delusions or hallucinations present. Overall, the patient’s symptoms align more closely with hypomania than a manic phase of bipolar disorder.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.
Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on the right side of his head that has been ongoing for the past hour. He also reports excessive watering of his right eye and a blocked nose.
Over the past two weeks, he has experienced five similar episodes, each lasting around two hours. He has been feeling well in between each episode. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day.
During the examination, he appears restless and agitated, making it difficult to perform a neurological assessment. However, you observe that his right pupil is more constricted than the left, and his blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. He is apyrexial.
Apart from referring him to a neurologist for a confirmed diagnosis, what immediate treatment options are available to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer: High-flow oxygen at home
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:This individual is displaying classic symptoms of a cluster headache, including severe unilateral headache lasting between 15-180 minutes, accompanied by lacrimation, nasal congestion, and miosis on the same side.
Subcutaneous triptans are an effective treatment for managing acute bouts of cluster headache. While intranasal triptans can also provide rapid relief, subcutaneous use has been shown to be more effective.
There is no evidence to support the use of opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, paracetamol, or oral triptans in this situation, and they should not be used.
Short-burst oxygen therapy can also be used for rapid relief, but the individual’s current smoking status would make the use of home oxygen unsafe.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 45-year-old man with pancreatic cancer who is receiving palliative care. He presents with jaundice and liver function tests indicate an obstructive pattern. Despite the use of basic emollients, he is experiencing pruritus that is causing discomfort. What would be the most effective approach to managing his symptoms?
Your Answer: Cetirizine
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Palliative Care and Pruritus Treatment
Pruritus is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by medication such as morphine. However, in cases of obstructive jaundice, simple approaches like topical emollients may not be enough. Cholestyramine is the preferred drug for pruritus palliation, given at a daily dose of 4-8 g. This anion-exchange resin forms an insoluble complex with bile acids, the cause of pruritus, in the intestine. To avoid any interaction and inhibition of absorption, other drugs should be taken at least one hour before or four to six hours after cholestyramine use. In summary, pruritus in palliative care can be effectively managed with cholestyramine, providing relief for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year old man comes in with recurrent elbow pain. The pain worsens when he resists wrist flexion and pronation of the forearm.
What is the probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Correct Answer: Medial epicondylitis
Explanation:Common Upper Limb Injuries
Medial epicondylitis, also known as golfer’s elbow, is caused by inflammation at the common flexor origin at the medial epicondyle of the elbow. Patients with this condition experience pain when performing resisted wrist flexion and resisted pronation of the forearm.
Bicipital tendonitis is inflammation of the long head of biceps tendon, which causes anterior shoulder pain. Pain is also experienced when flexing the elbow against resistance.
Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the hand in the median nerve distribution. Symptoms can be reproduced by forced wrist flexion (Phalen’s sign) and tapping over the median nerve at the wrist (Tinel’s sign).
Lateral epicondylitis, or tennis elbow, is more common than golfer’s elbow. It is characterized by tenderness at the lateral epicondyle of the elbow and pain when performing resisted wrist extension.
Ulnar neuritis is caused by a compressive neuropathy at the elbow. It can lead to wasting and weakness of the small muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You receive a phone call from a 60-year-old man who reports a several hour history of acute onset chest pain. He has previously had a DVT and is known to have hypertension and smoke. You advise him to ring 999 but he refuses and wants to wait for a home visit. You are later informed he has passed away.
How should you proceed in terms of death certification?Your Answer: Write pulmonary embolism as the underlying cause of death
Correct Answer: Refer the case to the coroner
Explanation:Death Certification Processes and Referral to the Coroner
The mode of death in a patient must be known before issuing a death certificate. If it is unknown, the case must be referred to the coroner. For instance, if a patient dies after acute onset chest pain, it is impossible to determine if they died of a myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolus, a thoracic aortic dissection, or another pathology.
The Coronavirus Act 2020 introduced temporary changes to death certification processes and cremation forms in England, Wales, and Northern Ireland. However, these changes expired in March 2022. The key changes included the requirement for a certifying doctor to have attended the deceased in their last illness and either seen them in the 28 days prior to death or after death. Video consultations were acceptable methods of ‘seeing’ a person in the last 28 days of their life but not after death.
If a medical practitioner has not attended the deceased in their last illness or not seen them in the 28 days prior to death or after death, they must refer the case to the coroner for discussion to establish if the coroner is content for them to issue a death certificate. Medical practitioners are advised to include the name of the person verifying death if they did not view the deceased themselves, whether a Part 100A has been issued by the coroner, and the names of other practitioners attending and their role on all cremation forms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Leadership And Management
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
What is the most appropriate next management step?Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor
Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.
A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).
Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman presents with lumbar back pain that is causing sleep disturbance despite pain relief. On examination, there is perianal numbness and a relaxed anal sphincter. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent MRI scan
Correct Answer: Immediate hospital admission
Explanation:Cauda Equina Syndrome: A Surgical Emergency
Cauda equina syndrome is a medical emergency that requires urgent admission and surgical intervention. It is characterized by non-mechanical back pain and symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression. The most common cause is herniation of a lumbar disc, but it can also be caused by tumours, trauma, or spinal abscess.
The symptoms of cauda equina syndrome include saddle paraesthesia or anaesthesia, perineal or perianal sensory loss, recent onset of faecal incontinence, recent onset of bladder dysfunction, unexpected laxity of the anal sphincter, and severe or progressive neurological deficit in the lower limbs.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent permanent neurological damage. Urgent surgical spinal decompression is usually indicated to relieve the pressure on the spinal cord and nerves. If you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of cauda equina syndrome, seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules 2, 3, or 4 under the Misuse of Drugs regulations 2001 (and subsequent amendments), how many days is it considered valid?
Your Answer: 28 days
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs
Prescriptions for medications and controlled drugs must adhere to specific guidelines to ensure patient safety and prevent misuse. A prescription for medication is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription, and the quantity prescribed should not exceed a 30-day supply unless exceptional circumstances are clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to even stricter regulations, including requirements for indelible prescriptions signed and dated by the prescriber, specifying the prescriber’s address, and stating the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, and the dose. A pharmacist cannot dispense a controlled drug unless all required information is provided on the prescription. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and appropriate use of medications and controlled drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 24
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics
Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:
Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.
Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.
Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.
Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.
Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.
In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide treatment. What is not included in the NICE guidelines for initiating or maintaining this medication?
Your Answer: Greater than 1.0 percentage point HbA1c reduction after 6 months
Correct Answer: Has failed with insulin therapy
Explanation:Prior insulin use is not a requirement for patients to use exenatide.
Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male has successfully made lifestyle changes to lose weight, including diet and exercise. He has lost 10kg over the past 6 months, but his BMI today still measures 33 kg/m^2. He has no other medical issues and is not taking any regular medication. He expresses concern about the potential health risks associated with his excess weight and asks if medication could aid in his weight loss.
Which of the following options would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?
- Trial an appetite suppressant such as sibutramine for 3 months and continue if effective.
- Consider orlistat as a potential treatment option.
- Advise against pharmacological treatment as the patient's BMI is below 35 kg/m^2.
- Offer a referral for bariatric surgery as the patient is a strong candidate.
- Initiate oral thyroxine (T4) to increase the patient's basal metabolic rate.
Note: According to NICE guidelines, orlistat can be considered for patients with a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more, provided they have other risk factors such as type 2 diabetes or hypertension. Safe prescribing is a key component of the MRCGP Applied Knowledge Test (AKT).Your Answer: He is a strong candidate for bariatric surgery and you should offer him a referral for this if he wishes
Correct Answer: You could consider orlistat
Explanation:Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following is the least commonly associated with antiphospholipid syndrome during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:Antiphospholipid Syndrome and Pregnancy: Risks and Management
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of both venous and arterial blood clots, recurrent miscarriage, and low platelet count. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other illnesses, such as systemic lupus erythematosus. When a woman with antiphospholipid syndrome becomes pregnant, there are several potential complications that may arise, including pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, and preterm delivery.
To manage these risks, low-dose aspirin is typically prescribed as soon as the pregnancy is confirmed through a urine test. Once a fetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound, low molecular weight heparin is added to the treatment plan. This medication is usually discontinued at 34 weeks gestation. These interventions have been shown to increase the live birth rate by seven-fold. It is important for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to work closely with their healthcare provider to ensure the best possible outcome for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man who has undergone routine blood tests to monitor his Antihypertensive medication.
The blood results are as follows:
Na+ 126 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
eGFR 85 ml/min/1.73m2
Upon calling the patient, he reports no symptoms and confirms that he is taking his regular lisinopril and amlodipine.
What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Continue current medication and repeat urea and electrolytes in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital
Explanation:Patients who have acute severe hyponatraemia, which is defined as having a serum sodium concentration of less than 125 mmol/L, must be urgently hospitalized, as per the current NICE CKS guidelines. Therefore, referring the patient to a routine endocrinology clinic is not appropriate, as immediate action is necessary. Although diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause low sodium, it would be inappropriate to wait for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium levels. Similarly, ramipril can also cause low sodium, but waiting for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium level would be inappropriate, and urgent measures must be taken. Waiting for 2 weeks for repeat blood tests is not appropriate, and the patient should be admitted to the hospital due to the low level of serum sodium.
Understanding Hyponatraemia: Causes and Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition that can be caused by either an excess of water or a depletion of sodium in the body. However, it is important to note that there are also cases of pseudohyponatraemia, which can be caused by factors such as hyperlipidaemia or taking blood from a drip arm. To diagnose hyponatraemia, doctors often look at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity.
If the urinary sodium level is above 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to renal loss or the use of diuretics such as thiazides or loop diuretics. Other possible causes include Addison’s disease or the diuretic stage of renal failure. On the other hand, if the patient is euvolaemic, it may be due to conditions such as SIADH (urine osmolality > 500 mmol/kg) or hypothyroidism.
If the urinary sodium level is below 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to extra-renal loss caused by conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating, burns, or adenoma of rectum. Alternatively, it may be due to water excess, which can cause the patient to be hypervolaemic and oedematous. This can be caused by conditions such as secondary hyperaldosteronism, nephrotic syndrome, IV dextrose, or psychogenic polydipsia.
In summary, hyponatraemia can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. By looking at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity, doctors can determine the cause of hyponatraemia and provide the necessary interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You see a 13-year-old boy who has burns on his hands. Three months ago he had a fractured radius.
You talk to him and he reveals that his father has been causing the injuries. You inform him that you will be referring him to child protection services, but he pleads with you not to. He comprehends the situation and the role of the child protection team, but he expresses his love for his family and doesn't want to be separated from them. You are familiar with his father and his grandfather, as they are all patients of yours.
What course of action should you take?Your Answer: Refer her to paediatrics outpatients
Correct Answer: Refer her to the child protection team
Explanation:Referring Child Abuse Cases: A Doctor’s Responsibility
As a doctor, it is your responsibility to protect children and young people from abuse. In cases where there is ongoing risk of serious abuse, it is important to refer the child in a timely manner, even if it goes against their wishes. This is because the safety of the child should always be the top priority.
According to the General Medical Council (UK), doctors have a duty to protect children and young people from harm. Referring cases of abuse is a crucial step in ensuring their safety. It is important to act quickly and make the necessary referrals to safeguard the child’s well-being. Even if the child expresses reluctance or resistance to the referral, it is important to prioritize their safety and take appropriate action. By doing so, doctors can fulfill their responsibility to protect vulnerable children and young people from harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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