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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tinnitus
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.
Your Answer: Immediate corrective operation
Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8
Explanation:Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.
Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.
While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding cholesteatomas is accurate?
Your Answer: Typically presents with a lesion of the 5th cranial nerve
Correct Answer: The peak incidence is 10-20 years
Explanation:Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father. The child recently had an ear infection and his father is concerned that his child may have reduced hearing. There are no signs of inflammation or discharge on examination of the ears, but the GP suspects that the child may have otitis media with effusion (glue ear). His childhood development, including speech and language development, has been normal.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: No active treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Otitis Media with Effusion in Children
Otitis media with effusion is a common condition in children, but it is usually self-limiting and resolves within 12 months. While there is no proven benefit from medication, there are several treatment options available.
Observation is a viable option, as a period of watchful waiting is unlikely to result in any long-term complications. However, if signs and symptoms persist, referral for a hearing test after 6-12 weeks or to a specialist in ear, nose, and throat (ENT) may be necessary.
Antibiotics are not indicated in cases where there are no symptoms or signs of active infection. Intranasal corticosteroids and oral antihistamines are also not recommended by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of otitis media with effusion in children.
Nasal decongestants, such as pseudoephedrine, may provide temporary relief for stuffy nose and sinus pain/pressure caused by infection or other breathing illnesses, but they are not indicated for children with glue ear.
In summary, the best course of action for otitis media with effusion in children is often observation, with referral to a specialist if necessary. Other treatment options should be carefully considered and discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient presents to you with concerns about burning and irritation of their tongue, as well as rapid changes in its color. Upon examination, you observe multiple irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of their tongue. The patient is anxious about these changes and seeks your advice.
What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Geographic tongue
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions and Their Symptoms
Geographic tongue is a common oral condition that presents with mild burning and irritation of the tongue. It is characterized by single or multiple well-demarcated irregular but smooth red plaques on the dorsum of the tongue. Stress and spicy food may exacerbate the condition.
Angular chelitis, on the other hand, presents with irritation of the corners of the lips and dryness. Aphthous stomatitis describes solitary or multiple painful ulcers on the mucosal membranes. Oral hairy leukoplakia is an asymptomatic white thickening and accentuation of the folds of the lateral margins of the tongue.
Lastly, acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis presents with punched-out ulcers, necrosis, and bleeding of areas between teeth. It is important to be aware of these common oral conditions and their symptoms to seek appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic for follow-up. She reports feeling increasingly fatigued and overwhelmed with caring for her grandchild. Additionally, she has noticed a hoarse voice and persistent tiredness. She has no significant medical history and has never smoked. She has also been experiencing constipation and has started taking daily senna. On examination, her blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 55 and regular, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. She has a smooth, non-tender goiter. Laboratory results show Hb 118 g/L (115-165), WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10), PLT 180 ×109/L (150-450), Na 131 mmol/L (135-145), K 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), and Cr 99 µmol/L (70-110). What test or investigation would be most helpful in clarifying the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: C reactive protein
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Hypothyroidism
In this case, the patient presents with symptoms of tiredness, weight gain, and bradycardia on examination, along with a smooth non-tender goitre and low sodium on U&E testing. These clues suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be confirmed through thyroid function testing. C reactive protein is a nonspecific result that may indicate possible infection or inflammation, while a chest x-ray can help rule out chest pathology as an alternative cause for the hyponatraemia. If the thyroid function testing is normal and the chest x-ray is unremarkable, an ENT referral may be appropriate. Ultrasound is indicated if there is a suspicion of nodularity within the thyroid gland. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can effectively diagnose and manage hypothyroidism in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl undergoes pinnaplasty.
What is the most significant risk of the surgery that should be discussed with her parents?Your Answer: Imperfect result
Explanation:Pinnaplasty: A Solution for Congenitally Prominent Ears
Congenitally prominent ears can have a significant impact on a child’s emotional and behavioral well-being. Pinnaplasty, also known as otoplasty, is a surgical procedure that aims to improve the appearance of the auricle. It is typically performed on children between the ages of 5 and 14, but can be done at any age.
During the procedure, an incision is made behind the ear in the natural fold where the ear meets the head. The necessary amount of cartilage and skin is removed to achieve the desired effect. In some cases, the cartilage may also be trimmed and reshaped before being pinned back with permanent stitches.
While pinnaplasty is generally safe, incomplete correction of prominent ears is the most common undesirable outcome. Other potential complications include postoperative bleeding or fluid accumulation, infection, and scarring.
It’s important to note that pinnaplasty only addresses the external ear and doesn’t involve the middle ear or eardrum. As such, other complications are unlikely to occur. Overall, pinnaplasty can be an effective solution for those seeking to improve the appearance of congenitally prominent ears.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass pollen allergy) has just started. Despite starting her nasal steroid, nasal antihistamine, and oral antihistamine 2 weeks ago, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. She is getting married in a few days and is looking for a quick solution to improve her nasal itching and watery discharge.
What would you recommend as a possible option for her?Your Answer: Offer short course of oral prednisolone
Explanation:When standard treatment fails to control allergic rhinitis, it may be necessary to use short courses of steroids to manage important life events. However, it is important to note that oral steroids should only be used for a brief period if the symptoms are severe and significantly impacting the person’s quality of life. There is no evidence to suggest that switching to a different steroid nasal spray would be more effective. Chlorphenamine, a sedating antihistamine, would not be suitable in this situation. Intramuscular steroids are not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis from repeated doses. While immunotherapy may be an option in the long term, it will not provide immediate relief in time for a significant event such as a wedding.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a slowly enlarging, unilateral, smooth, painless lump below her left ear.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:Salivary Gland Neoplasms: Common Benign Tumors and Signs of Malignancy
Salivary gland neoplasms are mostly benign, with pleomorphic adenoma being the most common. Pain may occur, and a persistent and unexplained neck lump warrants urgent referral. Mumps is not a likely cause as it typically affects both parotid glands. Lymphoma usually causes enlargement of multiple lymph nodes, while parotid carcinoma is much less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant tumors may present with rapid growth, hardness, fixation, tenderness, lymph node involvement, and metastatic disease. Infiltration may affect local sensory nerves and the facial nerve. Reactive lymphadenopathy usually involves multiple lymph nodes and is transient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What are the indications for tonsillectomy?
Your Answer: Three attacks, with time off school, in two years
Correct Answer: Parental pressure
Explanation:Indications for Tonsillectomy
The SIGN guidelines for tonsillectomy have been updated to suggest seven acute attacks of proven tonsillitis in one year or five in each of two successive years as an indication for the procedure. Weight loss alone is not a sufficient indication, but complications such as nephritis and rheumatic fever, as well as peritonsillar abscess, are. Children with obstructive sleep apnoea have also been shown to benefit from tonsillectomy. Malignancy is an absolute indication. However, three attacks in two years and two attacks in two months are considered too short a period to warrant tonsillectomy. It is important to note that while children may experience an improvement in general health post-tonsillectomy, weight loss alone is not a valid indication for the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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