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  • Question 1 - Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which blood test is the most sensitive for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Lipase

      Explanation:

      If the clinical presentation does not match the amylase level, it is important to consider that the serum amylase can fluctuate rapidly and produce an inaccurate negative result. In such cases, it is recommended to conduct a serum lipase test or a CT scan.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.

      The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.

      What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in...

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    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of difficulty in sustaining an erection. He had a heart attack 4 years ago and has been experiencing depression since then. Additionally, he has a history of uncontrolled high blood pressure. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Mirtazapine

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is often caused by beta-blockers, including bisoprolol, which is likely to be taken by someone who has had a previous MI. While amlodipine can also cause ED, it is less common than bisoprolol and is often prescribed for poorly controlled hypertension. Isosorbide mononitrate does not cause ED, but patients taking it should avoid taking sildenafil at the same time due to the risk of hypotension. Mirtazapine is a rare cause of sexual dysfunction, and sertraline is typically the preferred antidepressant for post-MI patients.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.

      For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 4 - A fifty eight year old male presents with a four month history of...

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    • A fifty eight year old male presents with a four month history of an unresolved varicocoele in his left testis. Initially he was given symptomatic advice. He has now presented with macroscopic haematuria and flank pain. He describes having no energy despite being fit for his age. The testes are palpable. No discharge is elicited from the urethral meatus. His urine dipstick demonstrates blood +++ but is negative for leucocytes. You send him for a cystoscopy as you're concerned he has presented with bladder cancer. The results are returned as normal. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform next in light of his normal cystoscopy?

      Your Answer: Renal tract ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Cell Cancer

      Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.

      The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.

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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

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    • A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by two episodes of vomiting within the last hour. Despite a normal CT scan, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later reveals xanthochromia, leading to a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Urgent neurosurgical consultation is requested, and a CT cerebral angiography confirms a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the underlying cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise healthy. What is the most suitable treatment option for the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, urgent intervention is necessary for intracranial aneurysms due to the risk of rebleeding. The most common treatment for this is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist, which involves inserting soft metallic coils into the aneurysm to exclude it from intracranial circulation. This is less invasive than surgical clipping. While nimodipine is used to reduce vasospasm following a SAH, it is not sufficient on its own and additional intervention is required. Typically, nimodipine is administered for 21 days and targets the brain vasculature by inhibiting calcium channels.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with urinary retention. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with urinary retention. Upon examination, a catheter is inserted and 900 ml of residual urine is drained. The patient also complains of upper back pain over the spinal vertebrae. The patient has a history of metastatic prostate cancer and has recently started treatment. What type of prostate cancer treatment is the patient likely receiving?

      Your Answer: Prostate radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Goserelin (GnRH agonist)

      Explanation:

      Starting management for metastatic prostate cancer with GnRH agonists may lead to a phenomenon called tumour flare, which can cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. This was observed in a 78-year-old man who presented with urinary retention and bone pain after recently starting treatment. GnRH agonists work by overstimulating the hormone cascade to suppress testosterone production, which initially causes an increase in testosterone levels before subsequent suppression. Bicalutamide is not the best answer as it does not cause the testosterone surge seen with GnRH agonist use. Bilateral orchidectomy is not typically associated with tumour flare as it aims to rapidly decrease testosterone levels. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, may be a better option as they avoid the risk of tumour flare by avoiding the testosterone surge.

      Management of Prostate Cancer

      Localised prostate cancer (T1/T2) can be managed through various treatment options depending on the patient’s life expectancy and preference. Conservative approaches such as active monitoring and watchful waiting can be considered, as well as radical prostatectomy and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). On the other hand, localised advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4) may require hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, or radiotherapy. However, patients who undergo radiotherapy may develop proctitis and are at a higher risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer.

      For metastatic prostate cancer, the primary goal is to reduce androgen levels. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists such as Goserelin (Zoladex) may result in lower LH levels longer term by causing overstimulation, which disrupts endogenous hormonal feedback systems. This may cause a rise in testosterone initially for around 2-3 weeks before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgen therapy is often used initially. However, this may result in a tumour flare, which stimulates prostate cancer growth and may cause bone pain, bladder obstruction, and other symptoms. GnRH antagonists such as degarelix are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel may also be an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault with a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault with a brick. She complains of abdominal pain and being hit with a brick on her front and back. On examination, she has bruising on her left costal margin and flank, but her abdomen is not distended. Her GCS is 15/15. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 132/88 mmHg, heart rate 78/min, respiratory rate 13/min, and temperature 37.6ºC. Investigations reveal minimal free fluid in the abdomen and a small splenic haematoma on CT abdomen, and minimal free fluid around the left kidney on FAST. CT head is normal, and pregnancy test is negative. What is the best management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with analgesia and frequent observations

      Explanation:

      If a patient shows minimal intra-abdominal bleeding without any impact on their haemodynamic stability, it is not necessary to perform a laparotomy. In such cases, the patient should be treated conservatively and their vital signs should be monitored regularly. The patient should also be catheterised and cannulated at this point.

      If there is a small splenic haematoma and minimal free fluid in the abdomen, conservative management is the best course of action. Only severe splenic injuries and haemodynamic instability require exploratory laparotomy. A repeat CT scan of the abdomen is not necessary, and the patient should not be discharged. Instead, they should be closely monitored for any changes in their vital signs or level of consciousness.

      Managing Splenic Trauma

      The spleen is a commonly injured intra-abdominal organ, but in most cases, it can be conserved. The management of splenic trauma depends on several factors, including associated injuries, haemodynamic status, and the extent of direct splenic injury.

      Conservative management is appropriate for small subcapsular haematomas, minimal intra-abdominal blood, and no hilar disruption. However, if there are increased amounts of intra-abdominal blood, moderate haemodynamic compromise, or tears or lacerations affecting less than 50%, laparotomy with conservation may be necessary.

      In cases of hilar injuries, major haemorrhage, or major associated injuries, resection is the preferred management option. It is important to note that the management approach should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and circumstances. Proper management of splenic trauma can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with severe abdominal...

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    • A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department via ambulance with severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He has a history of similar but less severe episodes in the past. The patient has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux, osteoarthritis, and COPD. He has a smoking history of 30 pack-years and drinks 40 units of alcohol per week. After stabilizing the patient using an ABCDE approach, investigations reveal moderately raised amylase, deranged liver function tests, and free air under the diaphragm on chest x-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer perforation

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease is more likely to occur in individuals who have a history of using NSAIDs and steroids. If there is suspicion of pancreatitis, it is important to rule out peptic ulcer perforation by conducting an erect chest x-ray to confirm the presence of free air under the diaphragm. The typical symptom of cholecystitis is a colicky pain that occurs after consuming fatty foods.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

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  • Question 9 - As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating...

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    • As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating a 72-year-old female with type-1 diabetes. She is currently being treated for pneumonia, has a right below the knee amputation, and suffers from diabetic neuropathy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: You should avoid cannulating his foot

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to avoid cannulating the feet of a patient with a known history of diabetes. In this case, the patient has poorly controlled diabetes, diabetic retinopathy, and likely peripheral neuropathy, which has led to amputation. Cannulating the foot could easily result in a diabetic ulcer due to the neuropathy. However, there is no reason why the hand cannot be used for cannulation. While diabetics are more susceptible to infections, there are no guidelines stating that a cannula can only remain in place for 24 hours. It can stay in for up to 3 days, as in most other patients. Administering a shot of antibiotics prior to cannulation is unnecessary and potentially dangerous. A sterile, non-touch technique should be used to minimize the risk of infection, as in any other patient. While cannulation can be stressful for some patients, administering insulin would be inappropriate and hazardous. It is always important to check the patient’s blood glucose levels before administering insulin.

      Intravenous Cannula: Colour, Size, and Maximal Flow Rates

      Intravenous cannulas are medical devices used to administer fluids, medications, and blood products directly into a patient’s bloodstream. These cannulas come in different sizes and colours, each with a specific maximal flow rate. The colour and size of the cannula determine the amount of fluid that can be administered per minute.

      The orange cannula, which has a size of 14g, has the highest maximal flow rate of 270 ml/min. The grey cannula, which has a size of 16g, has a maximal flow rate of 180 ml/min. The green cannula, which has a size of 18g, has a maximal flow rate of 80 ml/min. The pink cannula, which has a size of 20g, has a maximal flow rate of 54 ml/min. Lastly, the blue cannula, which has a size of 22g, has a maximal flow rate of 33 ml/min.

      It is important to choose the appropriate cannula size and colour based on the patient’s needs and the type of fluid or medication being administered. Using the wrong cannula size or colour can result in complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, and extravasation. Therefore, healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about the different types of cannulas and their maximal flow rates to ensure safe and effective patient care.

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  • Question 10 - You are asked by a nurse to review a 47-year-old woman who is...

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    • You are asked by a nurse to review a 47-year-old woman who is day one postoperative following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.3 °C. When you see her, she complains of shortness of breath and a non-productive cough.
      What is the most likely postoperative complication seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Post-operative Complications: Atelectasis

      One of the most common post-operative complications is atelectasis, which typically presents on days 1-2 after surgery. This condition is often caused by positive pressure ventilation used during general anesthesia and can lead to pyrexia and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves the use of salbutamol and saline nebulizers, as well as chest physiotherapy.

      Other potential post-operative complications include wound infection, pulmonary embolus (PE), anastomotic leak, and hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP). However, these conditions typically present at different times following surgery and may have different symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to monitor patients closely for any signs of post-operative distress.

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