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Question 1
Correct
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A 20-year-old female has presented to the emergency department with a history of diarrhoea for the past week. She denies any blood in her stool or exposure to infectious agents. The patient reports feeling more fatigued and sleeping more than usual.
The patient has a history of depression and was prescribed sertraline. However, she stopped taking the medication two weeks ago as she felt she no longer needed it. Her mental state is currently stable and euthymic.
During the general examination, the patient's pupils are noted to be bilaterally dilated, which was also observed during her childhood. What is the most likely feature in this patient that is a result of discontinuing her medication?Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Diarrhoea is the correct answer as the patient’s protracted diarrhoea, abdominal cramping, and vomiting are common symptoms of SSRI discontinuation syndrome, which she stopped taking two weeks prior to her presentation. Occam’s razor suggests that this syndrome is more likely than inflammatory bowel disease or gastroenteritis, given the timeline and normal blood results. Euthymia is incorrect as SSRI discontinuation syndrome more commonly results in mood changes, and hypersomnia is incorrect as insomnia is more commonly seen. Generalised weakness is also incorrect as it is likely due to diarrhoea, and there are no focal neurology symptoms to suggest otherwise. Additionally, SSRI discontinuation syndrome can result in paraesthesias rather than a general feeling of fatigue and weakness.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with a history of manic-depressive psychosis, diagnosed at the age of 23, presents to her General Practitioner with polydipsia and polyuria. Current medication includes lithium and a steroid inhaler for bronchial asthma. Examination reveals a blood pressure (BP) of 110/75 mmHg, with a pulse of 80 bpm and regular. There are normal fasting sugar levels and there is no postural drop on standing.
What are the investigation findings most likely to help diagnose this condition?Your Answer: High urine osmolality and low serum osmolality
Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality
Explanation:There are various medical conditions that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels. Lithium is a common cause of acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone secretion or poor kidney response to ADH. On the other hand, high blood sugar levels are associated with polyuria and polydipsia, which can be indicative of diabetes mellitus. Elevated serum calcium levels may be caused by hyperparathyroidism or vitamin D excess, which can also lead to polyuria and polydipsia. However, if the patient has a history of psychosis, psychogenic polydipsia may be the more likely cause. This condition is characterized by low urine and serum osmolality due to excessive water intake, often seen in middle-aged women with psychiatric comorbidities or after lesions in the hypothalamus affecting thirst centers. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is another disorder that can cause changes in urine and serum osmolality levels, characterized by high urine osmolality and low serum osmolality due to excessive ADH production.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry rotation, you come across electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following mental health conditions can be treated and managed using ECT?
Your Answer: Moderate depression
Correct Answer: Catatonia
Explanation:The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment option for certain mental health conditions. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends ECT for severe depression, catatonia, and prolonged or severe mania, but only if the condition is potentially life-threatening and other treatments have proved ineffective. ECT involves attaching electrodes to the scalp and passing an electrical current through to induce a seizure, which is performed under general anaesthesia. The mechanism of action involved in ECT is still not fully understood, but it is thought to cause a neurotransmitter release that improves symptoms. However, ECT can have side-effects such as memory impairment, headache, confusion, and muscle pains. It is not recommended for moderate depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anxiety, or severe dementia.
The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for the past three months. She is due for a review appointment and has had regular blood tests. What is the primary abnormality she is at risk for?
Your Answer: Decreased erythrocytes
Correct Answer: Decreased leukocytes
Explanation:Monitoring of FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine due to the potential life-threatening side effect of agranulocytosis/neutropenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, particularly neutrophils. Therefore, a decrease in leukocytes will be observed in the blood test results. Clozapine is commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia that is resistant to other therapies.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with schizophrenia is evaluated by his psychiatrist, who has been his doctor for more than a decade. During the consultation, the psychiatrist observes that the patient provides brief responses to all inquiries and appears to lack the spontaneous speech that would typically accompany such a response. For instance, when asked How have your grandchildren been since I last saw you?, the patient replies, Fine. Later on, the psychiatrist inquires, Which of your grandchildren are doing well? The patient responds, Samantha. It takes several more questions to determine that Samantha has been excelling in school and has recently won an award.
Which symptom of schizophrenia is the patient exhibiting?Your Answer: Affective flattening
Correct Answer: Alogia
Explanation:Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Alogia, affective flattening, anhedonia, apathy, and formal thought disorder are all symptoms of schizophrenia. Alogia is characterized by a lack of spontaneous speech, where the individual fails to elaborate on their answers in a way that is expected. Affective flattening refers to the loss of a normal range of emotional expression, where the individual may not react appropriately to events. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Apathy is a sense of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be of interest. Formal thought disorder can manifest in various ways, such as circumstantiality, tangentiality, or derailments. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s ability to function in daily life and can be distressing for both the individual and their loved ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as Sarah has not had her first period. She is 1.50m tall and weighs 40 Kg. Her heart rate is 60 beats per minute. Blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg. She has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics. There is a strong family history of eating disorder. You suspect that the delayed puberty may be due to anorexia nervosa.
What evidence supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa in Sarah?Your Answer: Anosmia
Correct Answer: Lanugo hair
Explanation:The presence of lanugo hair, which is fine and downy hair that grows in response to body fat loss, can be a characteristic physical finding that supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. However, this should be considered alongside other features such as the failure of secondary sexual characteristics, bradycardia, cold intolerance, and a yellow tinge on the skin (hypercarotenaemia). Anosmia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa, but it may be relevant in patients with Kallmann syndrome, which involves anosmia and delayed or absent puberty. Hirsutism, which is excessive hair growth, is indicative of elevated testosterone levels and is not compatible with anorexia nervosa. Hyperkalaemia is an incorrect feature, as hypokalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in anorexia. Patients with anorexia nervosa often have high cholesterol levels in their blood.
Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.
Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.
Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient clinic with complaints of involuntary muscle movements of her tongue, fingers and trunk for the past 2 months. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia 10 years ago and has been on flupenthixol and then haloperidol, with good compliance. On examination, her temperature is 37.7 °C, blood pressure 115/80 mmHg and pulse 92 bpm. Her respiratory rate is 14 cycles/min. There is pronounced choreoathetoid movement of the hand and fingers.
What is the next line of management of this patient?Your Answer: Give anticholinergics
Correct Answer: Stop the haloperidol and start olanzapine
Explanation:Treatment options for extrapyramidal side-effects of anti-psychotic medication
Extrapyramidal side-effects are common with anti-psychotic medication, particularly with typical anti-psychotics such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Tardive dyskinesia is one such side-effect, which can be treated by switching to an atypical anti-psychotic medication like olanzapine. Acute dystonia, on the other hand, can be managed with anticholinergics. Decreasing the dose of haloperidol can help alleviate akathisia, or motor restlessness. Supportive therapy is not effective in treating extrapyramidal side-effects. It is important to monitor patients for these side-effects and adjust medication accordingly to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the psychiatric unit due to his abnormal behaviour in a police cell. He claimed that there was a conspiracy against him and started acting irrationally. After 36 hours of admission, the patient complains of visual hallucinations and experiences a grand-mal seizure. What is the probable reason behind the seizure?
Your Answer: Idiopathic epilepsy
Correct Answer: Withdrawal from alcohol
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fits in a Patient with a History of Substance Abuse
There are several possible causes of fits in a patient with a history of substance abuse. LSD withdrawal and amphetamine withdrawal are not known to cause seizures, but amphetamine withdrawal may lead to depression, intense hunger, and lethargy. Hypercalcaemia is not likely to be the cause of fits in this patient, but hyponatraemia due to water intoxication following ecstasy abuse is a possibility. Alcohol withdrawal is a well-known cause of fits in habitual abusers, along with altered behavior. Although idiopathic epilepsy is a differential diagnosis, it is unlikely given the patient’s history of substance abuse. Overall, there are several potential causes of fits in this patient, and further investigation is necessary to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. He began taking citalopram four months ago to treat his depression, and he now feels that his symptoms have significantly improved. He believes that he has returned to his usual self and no longer requires the antidepressant medication. What advice should the GP provide to minimize the risk of relapse?
Your Answer: Continue citalopram for 6 more months
Explanation:Antidepressant medication should be continued for a minimum of 6 months after symptoms have remitted to reduce the risk of relapse. Therefore, the correct course of action is to continue treatment for 6 more months from the point of remission. Continuing for only 2 or 3 more months would not meet the recommended duration of treatment. Gradually reducing doses over 4 weeks is a suitable approach for weaning off SSRIs, but it should only be done after the 6-month period of treatment. Stopping citalopram abruptly is not safe and could lead to discontinuation syndrome or a relapse of depression.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of venlafaxine for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and noradrenaline, making it a type of antidepressant known as a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor. When choosing an antidepressant, factors such as patient preference, previous sensitization, overdose risk, and cost should be considered, although SSRIs are typically the first-line treatment due to their favorable risk-to-benefit ratio.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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