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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 12 hours ago. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine.
What is the recommended first-line emergency contraception to offer in this situation?Your Answer: Levonorgestrel 1.5mg
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 30 mg
Explanation:First-Line Treatment for Emergency Contraception in Patients on Liver-Inducing Drugs
The question of first-line treatment for emergency contraception in patients on liver-inducing drugs is an important one. It is crucial to understand the terminology used in such questions to avoid confusion and provide accurate answers. The recommended first-line treatment in such cases is the copper intrauterine device. This device is particularly useful for patients on drugs such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, antiretrovirals, and St John’s wort, which induce liver enzymes. If a patient declines the use of an IUD, a double dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line treatment. It is important to note that this information is specific to first-line treatment and not just any possible treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of foot drop following a motorcycle accident. He reports experiencing tingling sensations in his foot. Apart from this, he is in good health.
During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also exhibits altered sensation on the dorsum of his foot. However, his ankle reflexes appear to be intact.
Which of the following structures is the most probable site of injury in this patient?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:Causes of Foot Drop: Nerve Lesions in the Lower Limb
Foot drop is a condition characterized by the inability to lift the foot and toes properly, resulting in a dragging gait. It can be caused by various nerve lesions in the lower limb. Here are some of the common nerve lesions that can lead to foot drop:
1. Common Peroneal Nerve: This nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, is responsible for motor function in the peronei and anterior tibial muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in paralysis of dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. The common peroneal nerve is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower limb, often due to trauma.
2. Lumbar Nerve Roots: A lesion in the L5 nerve root, usually caused by a prolapsed intervertebral disc, can cause back pain radiating down the leg. Numbness on the sole of the foot, dorsum, and anterolateral shin may also be present.
3. Lumbosacral Plexus: Trauma can damage the lumbosacral plexus, which can lead to foot drop. However, this is usually associated with pain in the hip and thigh.
4. Sciatic Nerve: Damage to the sciatic nerve can cause foot drop, weakness of eversion, and pain radiating down the leg. Widespread numbness and loss of ankle reflex are also common.
5. Tibial Nerve: Damage to the tibial nerve would cause weakness of plantarflexion rather than dorsiflexion, so it would not cause foot drop.
In conclusion, foot drop can be caused by various nerve lesions in the lower limb. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying cause are essential for effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a progressive 'numbness' in her lower legs over the past 4 months, described as feeling like walking on cotton wool. She has a medical history of hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, depression, and recurrent urinary tract infections, and is currently taking citalopram, ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, methotrexate, and nitrofurantoin. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral loss of sensation to fine touch up to her knees. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Peripheral neuropathy may be caused by nitrofurantoin.
Medications that can lead to peripheral neuropathy
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord, causing weakness, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet. While there are many causes of peripheral neuropathy, certain medications have been known to contribute to its development. These drugs include amiodarone, isoniazid, vincristine, nitrofurantoin, and metronidazole.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause nerve damage in some patients. Isoniazid is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, but it can lead to peripheral neuropathy in some individuals. Vincristine is a chemotherapy drug used to treat various types of cancer, but it can also cause nerve damage. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, but it can lead to peripheral neuropathy in some patients. Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections, but it can also cause nerve damage.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop peripheral neuropathy, and the risk may be higher in individuals who take these drugs for an extended period of time or at higher doses
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with 3 months of weakness in his hands, which has deteriorated to the point where he has to hold a cup of tea with two hands. On examination he has wasting and fasciculation of his hands but no sensory symptoms. His tongue appears wasted and fasciculates. He chokes on occasions when swallowing fluids.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Symptoms and Presentations
Motor Neurone Disease, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, and Parkinson’s Disease are all neurological disorders that present with different symptoms and modes of onset.
Motor Neurone Disease typically presents with minor symptoms in the hands and limbs, with no sensory symptoms and unaffected eyes. Upper and motor neurone signs are seen, and bulbar signs are present in 20% of patients.
Guillain-Barré Syndrome presents acutely with symmetrical weakness that starts in the lower extremities and ascends progressively. Sensory symptoms also start in the lower extremities.
Multiple Sclerosis can follow a relapsing remitting or progressive course, with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs. Objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of multiple sclerosis is necessary for diagnosis, as is the exclusion of other explanations for the clinical features.
Myasthenia Gravis presents with varying degrees of weakness in muscle groups, with muscles tending to fatigue after exercise. Ptosis and diplopia are often the first symptoms.
Parkinson’s Disease is a movement disorder characterised by tremor at rest, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
In summary, each neurological disorder has its own unique symptoms and presentations, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision. Upon examination, the GP notes bilateral blurring of the optic discs but no other neurological signs. The patient's blood pressure is 130/74 and she has no fever. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:When presented with a young female who is obese and experiencing headaches and blurred vision, it is important to consider idiopathic intracranial hypertension as a potential diagnosis, especially if there is evidence of papilloedema but no other neurological abnormalities.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective initial oral treatment option?
Your Answer: Valproate
Explanation:First-Line Treatments for Epilepsy: A Guide
When it comes to treating epilepsy, it’s important to choose the right medication for the specific type of seizure. While topiramate is often used as a first-line treatment, there isn’t enough evidence to support its effectiveness. Phenobarbital is no longer recommended due to its side effects, and phenytoin can cause problems with long-term use. For primary generalized epilepsy, lamotrigine and valproate are the preferred options, although lamotrigine can worsen myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can also be used, but may exacerbate myoclonic or absence seizures. For partial seizures, carbamazepine or lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, with levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, or sodium valproate as alternatives if needed. By choosing the right medication, patients with epilepsy can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old patient presents with symptoms of allodynia, swelling, and motor dysfunction in their right foot, which developed after a severe ankle sprain four months ago. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline + physiotherapy
Explanation:Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.
Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.
Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female with a past medical history of depression visits her primary care physician complaining of numbness in her right arm affecting the C6 distribution for the past two days. She denies any neck pain or injury. Upon neurological examination, there is a confirmed decrease in sensation in that dermatome, but otherwise, the exam is unremarkable. The patient reports no previous similar episodes, but she does recall an incident three months ago where she experienced reduced vision and painful movements in her right eye, which resolved on its own, and she did not seek medical attention. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Conversion disorder
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:It is probable that the symptoms experienced three months ago were caused by optic neuritis, which is a typical initial symptom of multiple sclerosis.
Although the patient is currently experiencing depression, it cannot be assumed that her symptoms are a result of either conversion or somatization disorder. Depression is a prevalent condition and could potentially be a subtle indication of multiple sclerosis.
Features of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.
MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.
It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a complaint of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over six weeks. He reports a burning sensation that extends into his buttock and down his right leg, along with paraesthesia in the same region. He believes that his right leg is weaker.
What is the one characteristic that indicates a sciatic nerve lesion?Your Answer: Foot drop
Explanation:Understanding Nerve Lesions: Symptoms and Signs
Nerve lesions can cause a variety of symptoms and signs depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common examples:
Foot Drop
A sciatic nerve lesion can lead to foot drop, as the nerve supplies all the muscles of the leg and is responsible for all foot movements and the ankle jerk.Absent Knee Tendon Jerk
Loss of the knee jerk signifies an L3-4 nerve root lesion or femoral nerve involvement.Decreased Sensation on Anterior Thigh and Medial Leg
Femoral nerve lesions typically cause anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss.Inability to Flex the Hip
The femoral nerve, rather than the sciatic nerve, mediates flexion of the hip.Reduced Anal Tone
Reduced anal tone, often accompanied by faecal incontinence, is a sign of cauda equina syndrome and would not be a feature of a sciatic nerve lesion.Understanding these symptoms and signs can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat nerve lesions effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches
Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.
Diagnosis and Explanation
Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.Pharmacological Treatment
Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.Non-Pharmacological Approaches
Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.Neuroimaging
Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.Medication Overuse Headache
Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.Migraine Prophylaxis
Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.Mental Health Referral
Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
Select from the list the single red-flag feature that should prompt further referral.Your Answer: Worsening memory
Explanation:Red Flags for Headaches: When to Consider Further Investigation or Referral
According to NICE (Headaches, CG 150, September 2012), certain features in patients presenting with headaches should prompt further investigation or referral. These include worsening headache with fever, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes, new-onset neurological deficit or cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, headache triggered by certain activities, symptoms suggestive of certain conditions, compromised immunity, history of malignancy, and vomiting without an obvious cause. Memory loss falls under the category of new-onset cognitive dysfunction, while depression can be managed in general practice. Failure to find relief from simple analgesics may indicate medication-overuse headaches, and neck pain radiating to the neck may be indicative of tension headaches that interfere with sleep. It is important to recognize these red flags and consider further investigation or referral when appropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for his unilateral, throbbing headaches accompanied by photophobia that have been occurring once every two weeks for the past year and a half. Despite taking paracetamol, which has had limited effect, he continues to experience these symptoms. His family has a history of migraines. According to NICE, what is the most appropriate treatment for an acute attack?
Your Answer: Oral triptan + ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Nasal triptan + paracetamol
Explanation:For patients aged 12-17 with migraines, it is recommended to use a combination of nasal sumatriptan and an NSAID or nasal sumatriptan and paracetamol for acute treatment. Oral triptans are not approved for use in individuals under 18 years old. For prophylaxis, topiramate or propranolol are recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?Your Answer: Until 12 months have elapsed since last seizure, irrespective of medication status
Correct Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose
Explanation:Driving and Epilepsy Medication
Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a same-day appointment. She complains of experiencing a sudden and severe headache during sexual intercourse the night before. The pain lasted for several hours before gradually subsiding. She had a similar episode two weeks ago but did not seek medical attention at the time. The patient reports that the headache has now completely resolved. She denies any history of medical conditions and illicit drug use. She is currently using a nexplanon implant for contraception.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to the on-call acute medical team
Explanation:The patient’s thunderclap headache could potentially be caused by various factors, but it is crucial to rule out subarachnoid haemorrhage as a possible cause. Therefore, a CT scan and lumbar puncture are necessary, and the patient should be referred to the acute medical team.
The International Headache Society recognizes headaches associated with sexual activity (HSA) as a primary headache disorder, and the patient’s symptoms may fit the criteria for orgasmic headache. However, other potential causes must be ruled out before making this diagnosis. Triptans are the first-line treatment for HSA, and a headache diary may be appropriate if there is diagnostic uncertainty.
Due to the presence of red flag features, outpatient referral is not appropriate, and neuroimaging should be arranged by the acute medical team.
Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy complains of severe headaches associated with photophobia, nausea and occasional vomiting. They typically affect the left side of her head, sometimes with temporary blurring of vision. They persist for up to 12 hours and occur on average once every 6-8 weeks.
Select the single most appropriate first-line medical treatment.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and domperidone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Migraine Without Aura
Migraine without aura is a common type of migraine that can cause severe headaches, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. The first-line treatment for this condition is over-the-counter analgesia with an antiemetic prescribed if necessary. If this doesn’t work, patients can try the triptan group of medications, although some may respond better to one member of this group than another.
For patients who experience at least two migraines per month, prophylactic treatment is normally used. NICE recommends combination therapy with an oral triptan and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, or an oral triptan and paracetamol. Alternatively, monotherapy with an oral triptan, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, aspirin, or paracetamol may be preferred.
However, the BASH approach is considered more logical and is the basis for NICE’s guidelines. It is important to note that each case must be judged on an individual basis, and patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg for acute migraine attacks because over-the-counter remedies were not effective. She has not found them to be effective in spite of taking two doses in attack. Only partial relief was obtained after each dose.
What is the most appropriate drug to prescribe next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sumatriptan 100 mg
Explanation:Managing Migraine: Steps and Medications to Consider
Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects millions of people worldwide. When managing migraine, the first step is to use simple analgesia with or without antiemetics. This may include aspirin, ibuprofen, or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Paracetamol may not be strong enough, while codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided due to their potential for medication-overuse headache and addiction.
If the initial treatment is not effective, the next step is to offer rectal analgesia and antiemetics. Diclofenac suppositories and domperidone suppositories may be suitable for patients experiencing vomiting.
The third step is to use specific anti-migraine drugs or ergotamine. Triptans are the first choice for specific anti-migraine drugs. If the first choice fails to relieve the acute migraine pain adequately, the doctor may consider increasing the dose of the same triptan, using a different formulation for more rapid response, or changing to a different triptan. Ergotamine is best avoided due to its limited absorption and side-effects. If it is used, it is better taken rectally.
It is important to note that opioids and ergotamine should be avoided in the management of acute migraine, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
In conclusion, managing migraine involves a stepwise approach that considers the patient’s symptoms and response to treatment. It is essential to consult the Guidelines for All Healthcare Professionals in the Diagnosis and Management of Migraine, Tension-Type, Cluster and Medication-Overuse Headache by the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) for a more detailed account of migraine management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding thrombolytic treatment of acute ischaemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Control of malignant or severe hypertension is required before thrombolysis
Explanation:Thrombolysis in Acute Ischaemic Stroke: Guidelines and Considerations
Thrombolysis is a treatment option for acute ischaemic stroke, but it must be administered within a narrow window of opportunity. Before thrombolysis can be given, haemorrhage must be excluded by CT scan. Unfortunately, only a minority of patients meet the criteria for thrombolysis due to the time-sensitive nature of the treatment.
While thrombolysis can reduce long-term deaths and disability, it does come with a small increase in short-term deaths. Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor that should be addressed before thrombolysis is considered. Additionally, there are several contraindications, including recent surgery, current anticoagulation, previous intracranial bleeding, urinary tract bleeding, and known cerebral aneurysm.
It’s important to note that thrombolysis is not beneficial for transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). Overall, the decision to administer thrombolysis in acute ischaemic stroke requires careful consideration and adherence to guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements
Explanation:Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.
Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What symptom should raise suspicion for a different diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diplopia
Explanation:The occurrence of diplopia is rare in Parkinson’s disease and could indicate an alternative reason for parkinsonism, such as progressive supranuclear palsy.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a left hemiparesis. What sign would indicate that he is more likely to have an ischaemic stroke rather than a haemorrhagic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid bruit
Explanation:Distinguishing Ischaemic from Haemorrhagic Stroke: The Role of Symptoms and Neuroimaging
Symptoms alone are not enough to differentiate between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke. Neuroimaging is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. However, a meta-analysis has shown that the presence of certain incorrect options can increase the likelihood of haemorrhagic stroke. Coma is also more commonly associated with haemorrhagic stroke. Conversely, the probability of haemorrhage is decreased by the presence of cervical bruit and prior transient ischaemic attack. Therefore, a combination of symptoms and neuroimaging is crucial in accurately distinguishing between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about the use of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease from the given list of options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lowest effective dose should be used
Explanation:Levodopa: A First Line Drug for Parkinson’s Disease Treatment
Levodopa is considered as the primary medication for treating Parkinson’s disease, especially for individuals in the early stages of the disease whose motor symptoms affect their quality of life. Compared to other alternatives such as dopamine agonists and MAO-B inhibitors, levodopa is more effective in managing motor symptoms, although it has more motor complications.
To prevent peripheral metabolism of the drug, levodopa is combined with a peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor called carbidopa. This combination allows a greater proportion of levodopa to cross the blood-brain barrier for central nervous system effect. The most commonly used preparations are Sinemet® and Madopar®.
It is recommended to start with the lowest effective dose that maintains good function, such as Sinemet® 62.5 mg tds with food, which can be increased to 125 mg after two weeks. Levodopa is generally well-tolerated, and side-effects such as nausea and dizziness are rare and mild. There is no evidence that using modified-release levodopa from the start delays the onset of motor complications. However, prolonged use of levodopa may be associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis
Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component
Explanation:The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.
What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis
Explanation:Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations
Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.
It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.
When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.
Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.
While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male smoker develops increasing shoulder pain. After a few weeks, he complains of loss of power and feeling in his left hand. Shortly after, he notices visual disturbances and a left-sided ptosis.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour
Explanation:Common Causes of Arm and Shoulder Pain: Symptoms and Characteristics
Arm and shoulder pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and characteristics. Here are some common causes:
Pancoast Tumour: This tumour in the superior pulmonary sulcus can cause constant pain in the shoulder, upper anterior chest, or interscapular region. Other symptoms include weakness and atrophy of hand muscles, Horner syndrome, hoarseness, and spinal cord compression.
Stable Angina: Chest pain is precipitated by exercise and can also occur in the arms, shoulders, neck, jaw, throat, or back. Ischaemic pain in the arm is described as cramp-like, squeezing, or a band around the arm.
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Tingling, numbness, or pain in the thumb, index, and middle fingers, and medial half of the ring finger on the palmar aspect are characteristic of this condition resulting from median nerve compromise at the wrist.
Coronary Heart Disease: Chest pain, weakness, light-headedness, nausea, or a cold sweat are common symptoms. Pain or discomfort in the arms or shoulder may also occur.
Syringomyelia: A cyst (syrinx) forms within the spinal cord, causing sensory, motor, and autonomic dysfunction. Chronic severe pain is a common symptom.
Vertebral Disc Prolapse of the Cervical Spine: Myelopathy with neck and arm pain, a lower motor neuron lesion of the upper limbs, and upper motor lesion of the lower limbs can result from ventral compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed cervical disc.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment of arm and shoulder pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics
Explanation:Understanding Medication Overuse Headache
Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.
According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles in his feet, along with back pain, three weeks after experiencing gastroenteritis. He has also noticed a gradual increase in weakness in his legs over the past three days. During the examination, the doctor observes absent ankle tendon and patellar tendon reflexes, while bicep tendon reflexes are normal. The plantar response flexor is reduced, but sensation in his feet is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Spinal Cord Compression, CIDP, MS, and MG
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a group of syndromes that cause acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathies, resulting in muscle weakness, diminished reflexes, and paraesthesia. It is often preceded by a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. GBS can cause ascending paralysis, which may involve the cranial nerves and lead to respiratory failure. While most patients recover, some may experience persistent motor sequelae.
Spinal cord compression is characterized by upper motor neuron signs below the level of the compression. However, the absence of reflexes and flexor plantar response in a patient doesn’t support this diagnosis.
Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Patients with CIDP present with muscle weakness, numbness, tingling, pain, and difficulty walking. They may also experience fainting while standing or burning pain in the extremities.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that commonly follows a relapsing, remitting course. It can cause a variety of symptoms and signs of motor, sensory, and autonomic origin. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of MS, as well as the exclusion of other possible explanations for clinical features.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder that causes muscle weakness, which typically fluctuates in severity and is characterized by fatigue. Unlike GBS, it doesn’t present in an acute manner, and no sensory signs are seen in MG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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John has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease three years ago. He has come to see you for a regular check-up. He reports that he has been experiencing slower movements, a more pronounced tremor, and difficulty falling asleep at night. He is currently taking co-careldopa 100/25 mg three times a day. What recommendations would you make?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liaise with Parkinson's specialist nurse
Explanation:Charles’ condition appears to be worsening and requires a higher level of care for the titration or adjustment of his Parkinson’s medications. Therefore, it is recommended that he consult with the specialist nurse. Monitoring for 3 months is not suitable in this case, and changing the Parkinson’s medications without proper expertise is not advisable. Additionally, Zopiclone is not an appropriate treatment for the exacerbation of Parkinson’s symptoms.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of foot drop and tingling to his hands. Today he has noticed difficulty rising from a chair and climbing stairs. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent respiratory tract infection.
Upon examination, the patient has normal limb tone, reduced strength in his legs bilaterally (distal muscles worse than proximal), and a loss of his patella and ankle reflexes. Additionally, he has reduced sensation in a glove and stocking distribution.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by a progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This condition is characterized by symmetrical demyelination caused by an autoimmune response, often triggered by a respiratory or GI infection.
Lyme disease, on the other hand, is caused by a tick bite and typically presents with vague neurological symptoms such as headaches and joint pain.
While multiple sclerosis can cause weakness and sensory loss, these symptoms are usually asymmetrical and accompanied by hyperreflexia.
Myasthenia gravis may also cause limb-girdle weakness, but it is more commonly associated with periocular symptoms such as eyelid drooping. Additionally, myasthenia gravis causes muscle fatigue rather than a progressive polyneuropathy.
Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after experiencing a single episode of collapse with jerking of all his limbs. Upon recovery, he was disorientated for a short period and has no memory of the event. On further questioning, he reports quick jerks of the upper limbs going back about three years which have not concerned him. There are also reports of him 'switching off' briefly from time to time during this period. What type of seizure is this man most likely to have experienced? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised motor
Explanation:Different Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics
Seizures can be classified into various types based on their characteristics. Here are some of the common types of seizures and their defining features:
1. Generalised motor seizures: These seizures involve both sides of the brain with a motor response. They can be characterised by absence seizures, myoclonic seizures, and generalised tonic-clonic seizures.
2. Unknown onset motor seizures: These seizures are characterised by a lack of knowledge about their onset, whether focal or generalised. They involve all four limbs and have a motor response.
3. Focal aware seizures: These seizures start in one area of the brain and awareness remains throughout. However, they are less likely to result in collapse and loss of awareness.
4. Focal impaired awareness seizures: These seizures result in loss of awareness and are characterised by generalised jerking. They start in one area of the brain but can spread to other parts.
5. Generalised non-motor seizures: These seizures start from both sides of the brain but do not have a motor response. They can be characterised by absence seizures.
Understanding the different types of seizures and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of migraine over the age of 50 years is unusual and should be investigated
Explanation:Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Risks
Migraine is a neurological condition that is often characterized by a prodromal aura preceding a severe headache that can last for several hours or even days. While the first attack usually occurs in childhood, over 80% of individuals experience their first migraine by the age of 30. However, if the onset of migraine occurs after the age of 50, other underlying conditions should be investigated.
While certain foods and additives such as caffeine, chocolate, and aged cheese have been suggested as potential triggers for migraine, large epidemiological studies have failed to confirm these claims. As such, no specific diets have been shown to alleviate migraine symptoms.
It is important to note that both migraine and the use of combined oral contraceptives are independent risk factors for ischemic stroke. However, the risk is low in the absence of other risk factors, and migraine without aura is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives. Women with other risk factors for arterial disease should use caution when taking the pill, and those with prothrombotic coagulation disorders should avoid it altogether.
Hemiplegic migraine is a rare form of migraine that is characterized by unilateral weakness that accompanies a migraine headache attack. This form of migraine with aura may occur either in families or only in one individual. It is important to distinguish between migraine aura and other conditions such as epileptic aura or transient ischemic attack, which have different characteristics.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and risks associated with migraine is crucial for effective management and treatment of this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke her up from sleep this morning and blurred vision. She reports experiencing similar headaches with nausea and vomiting for the past two years, which have not responded to over-the-counter medications. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication.
During the examination, her vital signs are stable, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:If a young, obese female complains of headaches, blurred vision, and nausea/vomiting, it is likely that she is suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This condition may cause symptoms to improve during the day when the patient is upright, but worsen when they bend down.
While acute angle glaucoma can also cause headaches and blurred vision, it typically presents with unilateral eye pain and abnormal pupillary reflexes on neurological examination.
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is less likely as a cause of the patient’s symptoms, as it typically presents with headache as the primary symptom, along with focal or generalized neurological features such as seizures. Risk factors for clot formation should be considered in the patient’s history.
Although migraines are a common cause of recurrent headaches, the patient’s high BMI and generalized nature of the headache, along with the positional element, suggest idiopathic intracranial hypertension as the most likely cause.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Over the past few months he has suffered a chronic cough and has lost approximately 2 stone (about 12.5 kg) in weight. He has been increasingly drowsy over the past few days and his relatives were unable to rouse him this morning. On examination he has a Glasgow Coma Score of 6 and you notice that he has been incontinent of urine and faeces.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma with cerebral metastases
Explanation:Urgent CT Scanning for Deteriorating Conscious Level in a Heavy Smoker with a History of Chronic Cough and Weight Loss
This patient’s history of chronic cough and weight loss raises the possibility of bronchial carcinoma, which may have metastasized to the brain. The progressively deteriorating conscious level suggests increasing cerebral edema, which is a common complication of cerebral metastases. While stroke and glioblastoma are possible alternative diagnoses, they are less likely given the patient’s history. A meningioma is slow-growing, and subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden severe headache.
Urgent CT scanning is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. Medical treatment may include dexamethasone with or without mannitol IV to reduce cerebral edema. However, even with treatment, the prognosis for this type of presentation is extremely poor.
Intracranial tumors can be caused by metastases, malignant primary brain tumors, or benign brain tumors. Metastases account for around 50% of cases, while malignant primary brain tumors and benign brain tumors account for around 35% and 10%, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing menorrhagia and severe bruising. She has also observed swelling of her gums and a gradual decline in energy and strength. Which medication is the probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Antiepileptic Drugs and their Side Effects: A Comparison
Craniotomies can increase the risk of seizures post-operatively, leading to prophylactic treatment with antiepileptics such as phenytoin. However, this drug is associated with gum hypertrophy and blood disorders. Carbamazepine may cause fatigue, bruising, and menorrhagia, but not gum hypertrophy. Sodium valproate can cause most symptoms but is not commonly associated with gum hypertrophy and should be avoided in women of reproductive age. Topiramate can cause all symptoms except gum hypertrophy, while oxcarbazepine rarely causes thrombocytopenia and doesn’t commonly lead to gum hypertrophy. Overall, phenytoin is the most likely drug causing the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is a common characteristic of pseudoseizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incontinence
Explanation:Pseudoseizures: Understanding the Disorder
Pseudoseizure or dissociated non-epileptic attack disorder is a condition that primarily affects disturbed females, with a ratio of 8:1. This disorder is characterized by erratic movements, closed eyes, and resisted eye opening, which are not typical features of epilepsy. However, lateral tongue bite and incontinence may occur, which are common in epilepsy. Patients with pseudoseizures often resist and fight any intervention.
Individuals with pseudoseizures often have a history of abuse or previous illness behavior. These attacks frequently occur in doctors’ surgeries and out-patient departments, and they usually happen in the presence of others. Previous illness behavior is also common in individuals with pseudoseizures.
In summary, pseudoseizures are a disorder that can be challenging to diagnose and treat. Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of this disorder is crucial in providing appropriate care and support to individuals affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia
Explanation:Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments
Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.
It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.
For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.
In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic and is diagnosed with mild vascular dementia. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and early peripheral vascular disease. Which medication listed below would be the best option for treating his cognitive symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is challenging to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended by NICE for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors are not suitable. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia.
Understanding the Causes of Dementia
Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.
However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.
It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).
In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine with aura). At what point is an aura considered atypical and a potential 'red flag' if it lasts longer than what duration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation:Red Flags for Headaches
Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.
What should her initial management be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging
Explanation:If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.
For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.
Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is 3 times more common in women
Explanation:Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria
Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a duration of up to 72 hours. During an attack, patients often seek a quiet, dark room to alleviate their symptoms. Some patients may experience an aura before the onset of a migraine attack, which is a visual disturbance that can last up to an hour.
Migraine is more common in women, with a prevalence of 18% compared to 6% in men. There are several triggers that can precipitate a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. The diagnosis of migraine is based on specific criteria established by the International Headache Society, which includes the frequency and duration of attacks, the location and quality of pain, and the presence of associated symptoms.
There are also variants of migraine, such as hemiplegic migraine, which is characterized by motor weakness as a manifestation of aura. This type of migraine is rare, affecting only around 1 in 1,000 migraine patients, and is more common in adolescent females.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and diagnostic criteria of migraine can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation:Fluctuating Level of Consciousness in Elderly Patients
When presented with an elderly patient exhibiting fluctuating levels of consciousness, it is important to consider various potential causes. Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, Creutzfeldt-Jacob, and depression can all lead to dementia or apparent dementia, but typically do not result in fluctuating levels of consciousness. However, chronic subdural hematoma is a condition that can be associated with such fluctuations. In the absence of neurological signs, this diagnosis may be the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. It is important to carefully consider all potential causes and conduct appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at a time) accompanied by a blank facial expression. He stops what he is doing during the attack and remains motionless. Several of these can occur during the day.
Which statement correctly describes this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperventilation may precipitate an attack
Explanation:Childhood Absence Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis
Childhood absence epilepsy, also known as petit mal epilepsy, is a type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins between the ages of four and seven. While the seizures associated with this condition are not usually life-threatening, they can have a significant impact on a child’s education, development, and behavior.
Diagnosis of childhood absence epilepsy is typically made through a combination of clinical history and electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. Hyperventilation can be used to trigger an absence seizure, which is characteristic of this type of epilepsy. Neuroimaging is not typically necessary unless there is a suspicion of structural abnormalities.
Treatment for childhood absence epilepsy typically involves medication, with sodium valproate, ethosuximide, and lamotrigine being the drugs of choice. In some cases, a combination of medications may be necessary to fully control seizures. The ketogenic diet may also be effective for some children.
The prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy is generally good, with 80% of patients responding well to medication. However, tonic-clonic seizures may develop in up to 40% of children with this condition, and persistence of seizures is more likely in these cases. Despite the challenges associated with childhood absence epilepsy, educational attainment and behavior are typically not affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman complains of unpleasant sensations in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs. The sensations occur only at night when she is inactive and sometimes occur in bed making it difficult to get off to sleep. There are no abnormal signs on examination of the legs and she is otherwise in good health.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restless legs syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Restless legs syndrome is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move, typically in the legs, accompanied by abnormal sensations such as tingling, aching, or burning. The symptoms tend to worsen in the evening and are temporarily relieved by movement. While some people experience only minor discomfort, others may suffer from severe pain and disruption of sleep, leading to a significant impairment in their quality of life.
The prevalence of restless legs syndrome increases with age and can be associated with various medical conditions and drugs. Iron deficiency, pregnancy, and stage 5 chronic kidney disease are some of the medical conditions that can cause restless legs syndrome, while antidepressants, antiepileptic, and antipsychotic drugs are some of the medications that can trigger the symptoms.
Treatment is necessary only for moderate to severe cases of restless legs syndrome. For idiopathic restless leg syndrome, the first-line treatment options include non-ergot dopamine agonists such as pramipexole, ropinirole, or rotigotine, or alpha-2-delta ligands such as pregabalin or gabapentin.
In summary, restless legs syndrome is a common condition that can cause significant discomfort and disruption of sleep. Understanding the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and is diagnosed with mild Parkinson's-related dementia. Is there a licensed medication available to treat their cognitive impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Rivastigmine is the only acetylcholinesterase inhibitor approved for treating mild to moderate Parkinson’s related dementia, while none of the three (donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) are licensed for use in vascular dementia. However, all three are commonly used to alleviate cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of proximal upper limb pain that has been bothering her for 6 months. She reports experiencing headaches on the right side and suddenly experiences visual blurring on the right side. Upon examination, her right optic disk is found to be swollen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giant cell arteritis (GCA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Headache with Visual Disturbances
Giant cell arteritis (GCA), carotid artery dissection (CAD), cluster headache, idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), and ophthalmoplegic migraine are all potential causes of headache with visual disturbances. GCA is a systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the aorta and its extracranial branches, presenting with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and fatigue. CAD, which often occurs in the internal carotid artery, can cause headaches and neck and facial pain on the same side as the dissection, followed by signs of stroke. Cluster headaches are characterised by severe, unilateral pain around the eyes, accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features. IIH, which typically affects obese young women, is characterised by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances, but no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is a rare condition characterised by transient migraine-like headaches accompanied by long-lasting oculomotor, abducens, or trochlear neuropathy with diplopia. Pupillary abnormalities and ptosis may occur if the oculomotor nerve is involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of Graves’ disease presents with a 6-month history of progressive tingling and weakness of her legs. On examination of the lower limbs, there is bilateral spastic weakness, depressed deep tendon reflexes and flexor plantar responses. There is reduced joint position sense and vibration sensation in her lower limbs, but no other sensory abnormalities. General examination reveals pale conjunctivae, glossitis and oral ulceration.
What is the single most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Explanation:Possible Causes of Spinal Cord Dysfunction: Symptoms and Characteristics
Spinal cord dysfunction can have various causes, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Here are some possible causes and their corresponding features:
Vitamin B12 deficiency: This can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the cord, which affects the dorsal columns and pyramidal tracts. Symptoms include ataxic gait, upper motor neuron signs in the lower limbs, absent reflexes, glossitis, oral ulceration, and pale conjunctivae. Pernicious anemia, which is often autoimmune in nature, is a common underlying cause.
Human T-cell lymphotropic virus-1 infection: This retrovirus can cause T-cell lymphoma and a chronic demyelinating disease resembling multiple sclerosis. It is transmitted through sexual relations, breastfeeding, and blood transfusions. It is most prevalent in certain regions such as Central and West Africa, Japan, the Caribbean, and South America. Infection is rare in the UK, and the patient’s lack of risk factors and travel history makes it unlikely.
Anterior spinal artery thrombosis: This typically presents acutely with severe back pain and loss of pain and temperature sensations due to interruption of the spinothalamic tract. Proprioception and vibratory sensation remain intact due to the intact dorsal columns.
Epidural abscess: This often results from the spread of infection from a distant source through the blood. Symptoms include localised spinal pain, nerve root pain, paraesthesia, muscular weakness, sensory loss, sphincter dysfunction, and paralysis. Back or neck pain is usually present.
Transverse myelitis: This presents with a sensory level, usually in the mid-thoracic region, leg weakness with reduced tone and lower motor neuron signs, and incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis
When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.
While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.
Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.
Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and are now happening every day, accompanied by vomiting. He has also experienced vision loss, specifically an inability to see things on his left side. During the examination, the doctor observes a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
What is the most probable location of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right temporal lobe
Explanation:Localizing Neurological Lesions Based on Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can provide valuable information in localizing neurological lesions. In this case, the patient presents with a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia. By analyzing the location of the defect, we can rule out certain areas of the brain that may be affected.
Defects in the visual field that are restricted to one eye are likely to be in the retina or optic nerve. However, this patient doesn’t have a single eye visual field defect. Parietal or superior bank lesions would cause an inferior quadrantanopia, which is unlikely in this case.
A bitemporal field defect would indicate a lesion in the optic chiasm, but this patient’s defect is not bitemporal. A lesion to the optic tract would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is different from the patient’s quadrantanopia.
Therefore, based on the location of the defect, we can conclude that the lesion is most likely posterior to the optic chiasm, ruling out the right optic tract, left retina, and left parietal lobe. The most probable location of the lesion is the left temporal optic radiations or inferior bank of the calcarine cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 28-year-old female patient who has been experiencing deteriorating migraines over the last half-year. She usually experiences aura before the onset of the headache. During the history-taking process, what is the maximum duration of aura that NICE and the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) consider to be normal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 hour
Explanation:The typical duration of an aura is from 5 to 60 minutes.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a headache lasting 45 minutes associated with lacrimation and nasal stuffiness. A similar headache the previous day lasted for 60 minutes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Differentiating Headache Types: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cluster Headache
Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset of pain around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation, rhinorrhea, eyelid swelling, ptosis, myosis, facial sweating, and flushing. Attacks are unilateral and occur two to three times in a 24-hour period, lasting from 15 to 180 minutes untreated. Sufferers are restless during attacks, and treatment involves 100% oxygen and/or sumatriptan.Intracranial Tumour
The chronic headache of an intracranial tumour or any other cause of raised intracranial pressure is usually worse in the morning, present on waking, and worse when lying down. The headache of raised intracranial pressure is not usually severe.Acute Glaucoma
Acute glaucoma presents with a decrease in visual acuity, nausea, and a dull ache around the affected eye.Maxillary Sinusitis
Maxillary sinusitis presents as constant dull pain over the maxillary sinus, worse on bending over, and may last up to two weeks.Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia presents with intense stabbing pain, usually lasting only a few seconds. Pain occurs in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve and is often precipitated by contact with the skin over the affected area. Pain is unilateral.Understanding the Characteristics of Different Headache Types
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with bilateral paraesthesia in the radial aspects of both hands, over the thumbs and first fingers, as well as paraesthesia in the lateral aspects of both forearms and lower limb spasticity. His HBA1c level is 46 mmol/mol and nerve conduction studies and EMG show evidence of denervation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Degenerative cervical myelopathy
Explanation:The patient’s muscle twitches are likely fibrillations, indicating dysfunction in the lower motor neurons. The neurophysiology report confirms denervation. The patient’s symptoms are mainly in the C6 dermatome distribution on both sides, which is not likely to be caused by median nerve compression at the elbow, given the patient’s age. The patient is probably suffering from degenerative cervical myelopathy, which can take more than two years to diagnose. Symptoms of this condition include pain and stiffness in the neck and limbs, loss of function, and sphincter disturbance. Neurological examination can reveal lower motor neuron signs at the level of the lesion and upper motor neuron signs below. The other answer options are unlikely for various reasons.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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For which one of the following indications is carbamazepine least likely to be a useful management option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence seizures
Explanation:Absence seizures are typically not responsive to carbamazepine.
Understanding Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, and Adverse Effects
Carbamazepine is a medication that is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used to treat trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder. Chemically similar to tricyclic antidepressant drugs, carbamazepine works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.
However, there are some adverse effects associated with carbamazepine use. It is known to be a P450 enzyme inducer, which can affect the metabolism of other medications. Patients may also experience dizziness, ataxia, drowsiness, headache, and visual disturbances, especially diplopia. In rare cases, carbamazepine can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome, leucopenia, agranulocytosis, and hyponatremia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.
It is important to note that carbamazepine exhibits autoinduction, which means that when patients start taking the medication, they may experience a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks of treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to be closely monitored by their healthcare provider when starting carbamazepine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, vomiting and impaired hearing on the right side lasting for 1-4 hours. She has experienced six such episodes over the last 10 months. Neurological examination shows evidence of right sensorineural deafness. An audiogram confirms the presence of right low-frequency sensorineural deafness. She also reports worsening tinnitus.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ménière’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Vertigo: A Guide
Vertigo is a common symptom that can be caused by various conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between different causes of vertigo.
Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal episodes of vertigo, nausea/vomiting, and deafness lasting for hours. An audiogram typically shows unilateral low-frequency sensorineural deafness. Treatment involves antiemetics, betahistine, bendroflumethiazide, and salt restriction.
Vertebrobasilar insufficiency refers to transient ischemic attacks in the vertebrobasilar vascular territory. Attacks typically last about eight minutes and may include vertigo, nausea/vomiting, syncope, facial numbness, visual field defects, sudden hearing loss, speech disturbance, and ataxia.
Acoustic neuroma usually presents with slowly progressive deafness and disequilibrium, but not paroxysmal vertigo. True vertigo is uncommon and usually only occurs with small tumors.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is the most common cause of vertigo and is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by head movement. It may coexist with Ménière’s disease and has a high chance of recurrence.
Labyrinthitis is characterized by sudden onset vertigo, hearing loss, and often tinnitus. Nausea and vomiting are common. It is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by it. Most cases are thought to be viral in origin and resolve within days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding absence seizures is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seizures may be provoked by a child holding their breath
Explanation:Hyperventilation is a typical trigger for seizures.
Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.
The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on the right side of his head that has been ongoing for the past hour. He also reports excessive watering of his right eye and a blocked nose.
Over the past two weeks, he has experienced five similar episodes, each lasting around two hours. He has been feeling well in between each episode. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day.
During the examination, he appears restless and agitated, making it difficult to perform a neurological assessment. However, you observe that his right pupil is more constricted than the left, and his blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. He is apyrexial.
Apart from referring him to a neurologist for a confirmed diagnosis, what immediate treatment options are available to alleviate his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:This individual is displaying classic symptoms of a cluster headache, including severe unilateral headache lasting between 15-180 minutes, accompanied by lacrimation, nasal congestion, and miosis on the same side.
Subcutaneous triptans are an effective treatment for managing acute bouts of cluster headache. While intranasal triptans can also provide rapid relief, subcutaneous use has been shown to be more effective.
There is no evidence to support the use of opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, paracetamol, or oral triptans in this situation, and they should not be used.
Short-burst oxygen therapy can also be used for rapid relief, but the individual’s current smoking status would make the use of home oxygen unsafe.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor in his left hand. Parkinson's disease is diagnosed, but he is currently not experiencing any significant disability. What is the recommended treatment approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New generation dopamine receptor agonist e.g. ropinirole
Explanation:As per the latest NICE guidelines of 2017, it is advised to administer a dopamine receptor agonist for motor symptoms that do not significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his right eye. He has been experiencing these episodes once or twice a day for the past week, with each episode lasting around 30 minutes. Although the pain is severe, it has not been getting worse. His girlfriend reports that during an attack, his eye becomes red and starts to water. Upon examination, his eye appears normal, and his visual acuity is intact. He is currently pain-free, with his last episode occurring about 3 hours ago. What would be the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss with a neurologist the need for neuroimaging
Explanation:These headaches are classified as cluster headaches. It is recommended to consult with a specialist and consider neuroimaging as this is the first occurrence. Simple pain relief medication is not effective for treating cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.
During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.
What is the best initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist splinting
Explanation:For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors
Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.
Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely site of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion
Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.
To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.
Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She experiences 2 or more attacks every month. After maintaining a headache diary, no triggering factors were identified. She has previously tried topiramate and amitriptyline, but her symptoms did not improve. She has a history of severe asthma.
Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.
Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer 10-sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response
Explanation:For patients who experience frequent and severe migraines, preventive treatment should be considered if acute treatments are ineffective or not suitable, or if there is a risk of medication-overuse headaches. Propranolol is the first-line prophylactic treatment, but if it is not suitable, alternative treatments such as topiramate or amitriptyline may be considered. Gabapentin should not be used for migraine prophylaxis. Non-pharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, relaxation techniques, or cognitive behavioural therapy can also be used as an alternative or adjunct to pharmacological therapy. Daily riboflavin may also be helpful in reducing migraine frequency and intensity. It is important to advise patients to limit their use of acute medication to a maximum of 2 days per week to avoid medication-overuse headaches. Referral for same-day neurology assessment is not necessary unless there are red-flag features. If the patient doesn’t respond to acupuncture, a neurology referral may be indicated.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Your next patient is a 50-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis who suffers from severe spasticity that has failed to respond to conventional treatment.
Of which of the following would NICE support a trial?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabis based product
Explanation:Patients with intractable spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis may undergo a trial of THC:CBD spray, a medicinal product derived from cannabis. CKS suggests a 4 week trial for those with moderate to severe spasticity who have not found relief from other treatments, under the supervision of a specialist. Other treatments are not recommended.
Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products
Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.
Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.
Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.
It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.
Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports that the tremor has been present for a long time but has become more noticeable over the past year. The tremor began in his left hand and has always been more severe on that side.
Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a mask-like facial expression and a coarse, rhythmic tremor affecting both hands, which is most prominent at rest. The left hand is more affected than the right.
As the patient walks, you note that he is stooped over and moves with short, shuffling steps. What other clinical signs would you expect to find in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasciculation
Explanation:Understanding Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that presents with a range of symptoms. The core clinical features of PD are bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Bradykinesia is characterized by a slowing of movements, resulting in a shuffling gait and a stooped posture. Patients may also experience a loss of facial expression, known as masked facies. Tremors in PD are typically worse at rest and are rhythmic and repetitive, occurring at a frequency of two to five movements per second. This tremor is often described as pill-rolling if the thumb and index finger are involved. Rigidity, which worsens over time, is also more prominent on one side and can lead to the classic description of cog wheel rigidity in PD. These symptoms can be asymmetrical, with one side of the body being more affected than the other. Understanding these core features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis
Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He has been experiencing headaches for the past year. These headaches occur around 5-6 times per month and last all day. There is no associated aura. He describes the headache as a severe throbbing on both sides of his head with nausea and lethargy. He typically goes to bed when he gets a headache as activity makes it worse. He takes one of his father's diclofenac tablets before bed, which seems to help. Neurological examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Migraine
Explanation:It is highly probable that this headache is indicative of a migraine. The symptoms described align with the typical presentation, although it is worth noting that most patients experience symptoms on only one side of the head. Additionally, there is no indication of medication overuse, which can lead to frequent headaches.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type I diabetes visits his General Practitioner complaining of horizontal diplopia that has lasted for 72 hours. He reports no pain. The images separate more widely when he looks to the right. Covering his right eye during right gaze causes the outer image to disappear. Which cranial nerve is the most likely to be affected? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right abducens
Explanation:Common Causes and Effects of Cranial Nerve Palsies on Diplopia
Diplopia, or double vision, can be caused by various cranial nerve palsies. The effects of paresis on diplopia can be predicted by three rules. Firstly, the distance between the images is at a maximum in the direction of action of the paretic muscles. Secondly, paresis of the horizontally acting muscles tends to produce mainly horizontal diplopia. Lastly, the image projected further from the centre belongs to the paretic eye.
The most common causes of sixth nerve palsy in adults are diabetes, hypertension, atherosclerosis, trauma and idiopathic palsy. A right abducens (sixth nerve) palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that worsens on rightward gaze. On the other hand, a left abducens nerve palsy would cause horizontal diplopia that is more widely separated on looking to the left.
Trochlear nerve palsy causes weakness or paralysis to the superior oblique muscle resulting in vertical or torsional diplopia. A left trochlear nerve palsy would cause vertical or torsional diplopia, while a right trochlear nerve palsy would have the same effect on the opposite eye.
A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic outward and downward position in the affected eye. The lateral rectus (innervated by the abducens nerve) maintains muscle tone in comparison with the paralysed medial rectus, causing outward displacement. The superior oblique muscle (innervated by the trochlear nerve) is not antagonised by the paralysed superior and inferior rectus muscles and the inferior oblique, causing downward displacement. There will also be ptosis and pupil dilation of the affected eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the right side of her face and difficulty with tears flowing from her right eye. She experienced some mild pain around her right ear the day before the weakness started.
Upon examination, there is evident right facial nerve palsy, and there are no indications of herpes zoster infection.
What can be said about this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-virals are of proven benefit
Explanation:Bell’s Palsy: Treatment and Symptoms
Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. While the cause of Bell’s palsy is unclear, it is thought to be a post-viral phenomenon in many cases. Interestingly, a family history is found in around 4% of patients with Bell’s.
Most patients with Bell’s palsy make a complete recovery, but to protect the cornea, artificial tears are absolutely required. Post-auricular pain is found in around 50% of patients and may occur 2-3 days before presentation.
When it comes to treatment, corticosteroids have demonstrated significantly improved outcomes in Bell’s palsy, in contrast to anti-virals where two recent RCTs were negative. It is important to note that early treatment is crucial for the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old medical student comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral leg weakness and paraesthesia. She reports that the symptoms started in her feet and have been gradually moving up over the past few days. She also mentions that she had a bout of diarrhoea while on an elective in Zimbabwe about a week ago. Upon examination, her GCS is 15/15, her lower limb sensation is intact, but her strength is 2/5 throughout with reduced tone and reflexes. Her plantars are downgoing. Based on her symptoms and examination findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by an ascending peripheral neuropathy, while multiple sclerosis presents with mixed motor and sensory deficits and lesions affecting both upper and lower motor neurons. Transverse myelitis also involves both upper and lower motor neurons, with the specific deficits depending on the location of the spinal cord lesion. Brain abscess, on the other hand, typically results in upper motor neuron lesions.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for an urgent appointment. She has a diffuse headache, which she describes as severe. The headache is acute, having developed within the last three hours. She lost consciousness for a brief period. There is no significant past medical history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:When a patient presents with a sudden, severe headache, subarachnoid haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause, with or without loss of consciousness. Menigeal irritation may take some time to appear. In cases of epilepsy, postictal headaches are common, lasting between six and 24 hours. Cluster headaches are characterized by rapid onset and unilateral pain around the eye, temple or forehead, often accompanied by lacrimation or rhinorrhoea. Migraines are also unilateral and may be preceded by an aura, with associated nausea and vomiting. TIAs usually present with focal neurological symptoms, rather than headaches, and loss of consciousness is not typical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.
Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.
While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.
The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.
The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.
Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They have a pulse and are breathing. The receptionist calls an ambulance whilst you assess the patient. You rub their sternum hard and say loudly ‘can you hear me?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:When evaluating a patient’s GCS score, producing unintelligible noises is assigned a score of 2. In this case, the patient is emitting a groan, which falls under this category and would receive a score of 2 for voice. Additionally, the patient would receive a score of 5 for motor response as they are able to localize pain and push away your hand. The patient would receive a score of 2 for eyes as they are only opening them in response to pain. Overall, the patient’s GCS score would be 9 out of 15.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 pm.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his hand. The symptoms worsen when he raises his hands above his head. The numbness is not specific to any particular dermatome. He also complains of a painful neck and generalised headache. John is an avid golfer and is frustrated as he cannot grip his club properly. He also notices his fingers turning white in the cold. On examination, there is wasting in his thenar eminence. No other focal neurology is detected.
What is the most probable cause of John's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome
Explanation:Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle atrophy in the hands, as well as numbness, tingling, and potential autonomic symptoms. The narrowing of the thoracic outlet can lead to both neurological and arterial symptoms, which may be exacerbated by raising the arm above the head. The specific symptoms experienced will depend on the underlying cause and whether the condition is primarily neurogenic or vascular in nature. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist and typically results in numbness and tingling in the hand, without any associated neck pain or headaches. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes a change in the color of the fingers or toes in response to cold temperatures and can be either primary or secondary.
Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 37-year-old woman presents with new-onset facial weakness. She had been in excellent health until last summer when, after a hiking trip, she noticed an expanding erythematous rash on her abdomen, ultimately about 8 inches in diameter and lasting about three weeks. This improved following treatment with an oral cephalosporin, but she developed six weeks of diffuse arthralgias and headaches.
She has developed acute right facial paralysis, evolving over 24 hours, with retro auricular pain, hyperacusis and a decreased sense of taste. On examination, a complete, right lower motor neurone, seventh nerve palsy is noted.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lyme disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Facial Paralysis and Other Symptoms After a Walking Holiday
Facial paralysis is a common neurological manifestation of Lyme disease, which is a possible diagnosis for a patient with no specific history of tick bite but with a rash and arthralgias after a walking holiday. Sarcoidosis can also cause facial palsy but fits less well with the story. Bell’s palsy is consistent with a complete lower motor neurone seventh nerve palsy, hyperacusis, and retroarticular pain, but doesn’t explain the preceding symptoms. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations, which doesn’t fit with a single episode of seventh nerve palsy. Ramsay Hunt syndrome would cause pain and a vesicular eruption in and around the ear and the facial palsy but not the other features, and is unlikely without the characteristic rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing evening headaches for the past four weeks that start from his neck and extend to the occipital area. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Common Types of Headaches and Their Clinical Features
Tension Headache:
A tension headache can be diagnosed when the headache is featureless, without any accompanying symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement. This differentiates it from migraine, which typically presents with one or more of these features and is the main differential diagnosis. Tension headaches can be either chronic or episodic.Cluster Headache:
Cluster headache is a severe unilateral pain that is localized in or around the eye and is accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features such as lacrimation and rhinorrhea. These attacks occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks, once or twice a year, often at the same time each year. A chronic form of cluster headache also exists.Fibromyalgia:
Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain, unrefreshing sleep, and fatigue. Pain occurs at multiple sites, including headaches, which may be migrainous.Migraine:
Migraine is the main differential diagnosis for tension headache. However, it typically presents with one or more of the following symptoms: nausea/vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement, which are not reported by patients with tension headaches.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that usually affects elderly patients and is characterized by ventricular dilatation in the absence of raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure. It is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality (similar to Parkinson’s), urinary or bowel incontinence, and dementia. The dementia is potentially reversible. About half of the cases are idiopathic, while the remainder may be secondary to meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, tumor, or head injury. Headache is rarely present in normal pressure hydrocephalus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He has been experiencing memory problems for the past few months, frequently repeating questions according to his wife. He struggles to recall recent events but has a good memory of things that happened a long time ago. What finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Objective neurological deficits
Explanation:Understanding Cognitive Impairment in Alzheimer’s Dementia
Alzheimer’s dementia is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects cognitive function. While it doesn’t typically cause objective neurological deficits, it can manifest in a variety of cognitive impairments. These include an inability to plan activities, agnosia (the failure to identify objects despite intact sensory function), apraxia (the inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function), and language disturbance (such as receptive or expressive dysphasia). These impairments are all related to executive function and can be seen in other forms of dementia as well. Understanding these symptoms can help with early detection and management of Alzheimer’s dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is observed by his family to be experiencing increasing confusion. His mental state fluctuates significantly and he appears to be experiencing hallucinations at times. His daughter mentioned that his walking has become abnormal over the past few months and that his doctor had prescribed a medication for his nighttime confusion that seemed to make him much worse. During the examination, he scored 20/30 on the Mini-Mental test, displayed increased tone, and had difficulty performing rapidly alternating movements. His tendon reflexes were slightly brisk, but his plantar responses were normal, and no primitive reflexes were detected.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disease that is the second most common cause of dementia in older people after Alzheimer’s disease. DLB is characterized by extrapyramidal features, variable psychiatric symptoms, and complex hallucinations. To diagnose DLB, two of three core diagnostic features must be present, including fluctuating confusion, persistent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous Parkinsonism. Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol can worsen DLB, while cholinesterase inhibitors like rivastigmine can help treat cognitive decline.
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is another neurodegenerative disease that can cause cognitive and functional impairment, along with myoclonus, visual disturbances, and cerebellar, pyramidal, and extrapyramidal signs. To diagnose different types of dementia, clinicians can refer to the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance from February 2006, which lists the full clinical diagnostic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old former beef farmer is currently being looked after in a care home after a severe deterioration in his memory and ability to care for himself.
You examine him and note that he has nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsy, ataxia, a broad based gait and peripheral neuropathy with sensory loss in his feet. You understand that his father died at an early age, apparently from Alzheimer's disease.
He is known to drink alcohol.
Which one of the following is most likely to be the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that occurs in patients with thiamine deficiency, often associated with chronic alcohol abuse or other malnutrition states. It is characterized by haemorrhage into the mamillary bodies of the brain. If left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a chronic stage of the same condition.
Early stages of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can be reversible, especially the eye signs. However, if left untreated, it can lead to memory loss and other irreversible symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This highlights the importance of early thiamine replacement in patients admitted to the hospital with symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. By recognizing and treating Wernicke’s encephalopathy early, we can prevent the progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with two episodes of right-sided, painless, transient monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute. Each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of her right eye. Neurological examination is normal. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate, glucose and lipids are all within the normal range. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computed tomography brain is normal. Doppler of the carotid arteries shows 40% stenosis of the right internal carotid artery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Treatment Options for Amaurosis Fugax
Amaurosis fugax is a condition characterized by temporary loss of vision in one eye, often caused by emboli or stenosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery. The long-term treatment of choice for this condition is antiplatelet therapy with clopidogrel or aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole if clopidogrel is not tolerated or contraindicated. Other vascular risk factors should also be addressed.
Carotid endarterectomy is only recommended for patients with stenosis of 70-99%, and therefore, it is not indicated for this patient. Anticoagulation with apixaban is only indicated for patients with paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation.
Prednisolone is used to treat giant cell arteritis, which can also cause visual loss, but it is unlikely in this case due to normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate and absence of pain. Angioplasty is still an experimental tool and is not recommended for this situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7
Explanation:The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends his arm. His wife is worried that it may be a serious condition. Other than the tremor, there are no other neurological symptoms observed during examination.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Essential tremor
Explanation:Differentiating Tremors: Essential Tremor, Chorea, Intention Tremor, Parkinsonism, and Motor Neurone Disease
Tremors are involuntary movements that can be caused by various conditions. Essential tremor is a common type that is worsened by movement and relieved by rest. Patients may turn to alcohol to alleviate symptoms. It can be difficult to distinguish from other types of tremors, such as exaggerated physiological tremor or medication-induced tremor. Essential tremor typically affects the upper limbs, but can also involve the neck, face, and jaw muscles.
Chorea, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular, flowing movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic. Intention tremor is a feature of cerebellar ataxia, which is usually accompanied by other cerebellar signs like ataxia and dysarthria. Parkinsonism causes a resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity, which occurs even in a relaxed limb that is fully supported.
Motor neurone disease usually presents with fasciculations, which are involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that are visible under the skin. It is important to differentiate between these different types of tremors to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and epilepsy. The patient's seizure control has deteriorated lately. Which of the following medications is most likely to exacerbate seizure control?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aminophylline
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Epilepsy
Prescribing medications to patients with epilepsy requires careful consideration as some drugs may worsen seizure control. Alcohol, cocaine, and amphetamines are known to have negative effects on seizure control. Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, as well as aminophylline and theophylline, should also be avoided. Bupropion, methylphenidate (used in ADHD), and mefenamic acid are other medications that may worsen seizure control.
It is important to note that some medications, such as benzodiazepines, baclofen, and hydroxyzine, may provoke seizures during withdrawal. Additionally, certain medications may interfere with the metabolism of anti-epileptic drugs, which can worsen seizure control. These medications are known as P450 inducers/inhibitors.
Prescribers should carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with epilepsy. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team is essential to ensure optimal seizure control and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes in with atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar eminences of his right hand, along with weakness of thumb abduction, thumb flexion, and finger abduction and adduction. He also reports sensory loss to pinprick over the ulnar border of the hand and forearm. The rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable.
What is the most probable location of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Nerve Supply to the Hand Muscles: An Overview
The muscles of the hand are supplied by different nerves, and lesions to specific nerves can cause distinct symptoms. The thenar eminence, which includes the abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles, is supplied by the median nerve, except for the adductor pollicis, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. On the other hand, the hypothenar eminence, which includes the abductor, flexor, and opponens digiti minimi muscles, as well as the palmaris brevis, is supplied by the ulnar nerve. The first two lumbrical muscles are supplied by the median nerve.
It is important to note that lesions to the ulnar, median, or anterior interosseous nerve alone cannot cause all the symptoms associated with hand muscle weakness or paralysis. A T1 root lesion, for instance, would primarily affect the intrinsic muscles of the hand, especially the abductor pollicis brevis, and other signs would usually be present, such as Horner syndrome.
In some cases, damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, which can occur due to traction on the arm in an abducted position, can produce combined C8/T1 lesions that mimic a combined median and ulnar nerve lesion in the hand. Understanding the nerve supply to the hand muscles is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of hand muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A slightly overweight 44-year-old man and his spouse visit the GP with concerns about his recent behavior. The wife reports that he has been acting strangely for the past 2 months, becoming easily irritated and frequently criticizing her and their children. Initially, the changes were subtle, but now arguments occur every other day. The husband doesn't acknowledge any issues, and you observe that he struggles to initiate conversations and often pauses mid-sentence. There is no significant family history, and the husband is not on any regular medications.
What is the probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Pick’s disease, also known as frontotemporal dementia, is a type of dementia that typically affects individuals under the age of 65. This condition can manifest in various forms, with some patients experiencing changes in personality and behavior. In some cases, patients may also struggle with speech production and literacy skills, a condition known as primary progressive aphasia.
It is highly unlikely for a 40-year-old to develop Alzheimer’s disease or vascular dementia. Huntington’s disease, which is associated with dementia and personality changes, typically presents with motor dysfunction and tends to have a strong genetic component. While B12 deficiency can cause symptoms of dementia, it is often accompanied by other neurological changes, fatigue, and bowel issues.
Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration
Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.
FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.
CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.
In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a 2-month to 3-month history of slurred speech as well as difficulty in chewing and swallowing, to the point where he is no longer eating solid food. On examination he has weakness of jaw closure and difficulty in protruding his tongue. There is some wasting and fasciculation involving both sides of the tongue. He has lost a few kilos in weight over this time. Apart from a generally thin appearance, the rest of the neurological and general examination appears to be normal. In particular, the tendon reflexes are all within physiological limits.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Types, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis
Motor neuron disease (MND) is a progressive neurological disorder that typically affects individuals in their sixth and seventh decades of life, although there is also a familial form that can present at a younger age. The most common form of MND is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which has three recognized patterns of presentation: limb onset, bulbar onset, and respiratory onset.
The disease is characterized by degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. While other neurological functions such as oculomotor and sphincter are relatively spared, they may sometimes be involved. In some cases, patients may also develop frontotemporal dementia.
Less common variants of MND can present with pure upper neuron features (primary lateral sclerosis) or pure lower motor neuron features (progressive muscular atrophy). The first sign of bulbar palsy, which is a common presentation of MND, is usually slurring of speech due to impaired tongue movement, with dysphagia occurring later.
When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to note that other conditions can produce dysarthria, but the wasting of the tongue excludes a neuromuscular transmission disorder such as myasthenia. Syringobulbia, which is characterized by a syrinx extending into the medulla, can produce several cranial nerve palsies from the seventh nerve upwards, including weakness and atrophy of the tongue due to twelfth nerve palsy. Stroke onset is acute, whereas MND is a progressive disease. Multiple sclerosis can also produce neurological deficits, but they tend to occur episodically over time.
In conclusion, understanding the types, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of MND is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back pain and pain and weakness in his lower limbs. He reports that his symptoms have been getting worse for the past five days. About three weeks ago, he had Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
During the examination, the doctor observes diminished or absent reflexes in the legs and hypotonia. The patient's pain and light-touch sensations are also reduced.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Explanation:Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Multiple Sclerosis, Polymyositis, and Spinal Cord Compression
Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a neurological disorder that causes demyelination and axonal degeneration, resulting in acute, ascending, and progressive neuropathy. It typically presents with symmetrical weakness starting in the lower extremities and may progress to respiratory failure in severe cases. Treatment involves plasma exchange or immunoglobulins and intravenous methylprednisolone, but approximately 20% of patients may experience residual disability and 10% may die from complications.
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is another neurological disorder that causes weakness, but it is characterized by fatigability and doesn’t involve sensory changes. Symptoms range from mild weakness of limited muscle groups to severe weakness of multiple muscle groups.
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disorder that classically presents with symptoms and signs separated by time and space. Transverse myelitis can occur, resulting in acute weakness or paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and loss of control of the bowels and bladder.
Polymyositis is a disorder characterized by muscle weakness that starts proximally and progresses over a period of weeks to months. While it may cause muscle aches, it would not normally cause sensory changes.
Symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression include back pain, paralysis, decreased sensation below the level of compression, and urinary and fecal incontinence or retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with recurrent attacks of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which is happening on multiple occasions every day. Each attack lasts about ten seconds and seems to occur whenever she turns in bed, lies down or sits up from the supine position. There are no other associated symptoms. She is taking no medication. Standard neurological examination is normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre
Explanation:Understanding Vertigo and Treatment Options
Vertigo is a common condition that can be triggered by head movement and is characterized by brief bouts of dizziness. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver can be used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), which can be treated with the Epley maneuver. Sumatriptan is used to treat migraines, which may produce symptoms of vertigo but are not specifically related to head movement. Aspirin is used to manage acute stroke, which should be ruled out in patients with vertigo. Prochlorperazine can provide relief from vertigo symptoms, but it is not a curative measure for BPPV and the Epley maneuver should be tried first. Understanding the different causes and treatment options for vertigo can help patients manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last up to four hours and are associated with vomiting and uncomfortable pressure in the right ear.
On examination during an attack he is noted to have right horizontal nystagmus together with mild right-sided sensorineural deafness.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ménière's disease
Explanation:Ménière’s Disease: A History of Paroxysmal Attacks
Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal attacks that can last for hours and consist of vertigo, vomiting, pressure within the ear, and deafness. These attacks can lead to irreversible sensorineural deafness of low frequency. Tinnitus is often present but may not occur in the early stages, making the classic triad of tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness unreliable for diagnosis.
Prochlorperazine or cinnarizine can help with vomiting, and restricting salt and fluid intake may hasten resolution. Diuretics may also be used, but there is little evidence for their efficacy. Unilateral hearing loss caused by acoustic neuroma is uncommonly associated with vertigo.
Benign positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo that are triggered by movement. Labyrinthitis is characterized by acute disabling vertigo, usually preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection, and is rarely episodic. Vertebrobasilar ischaemic attacks last only a few minutes and typically cause a mild swaying or swimming sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for sweet foods. He lost his job as an accountant because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. The neurological examination is normal.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick’s Disease)
Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of progressive dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes of the brain. Unlike other dementias that affect the posterior parietal lobes, frontotemporal dementia is the fourth most common cause of dementia, following Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease, and vascular or non-neurodegenerative dementia. It typically occurs in individuals aged 55-65 and is characterized by insidious onset of behavioral and cognitive effects.
Early symptoms of frontotemporal dementia include psychiatric problems such as aggression, socially inappropriate behavior, and lack of concern or apathy. Depression may also occur early on, before memory loss. Speech and language problems are common, with difficulty in naming objects and grammatically incorrect speech. Memory problems are less severe in the early stages of the disease. Incontinence may also be an early feature, unlike in Alzheimer’s disease. Parkinsonism may develop but is not as prominent as in Lewy body disease.
On examination, patients with frontotemporal dementia may exhibit inappropriate behavior, echolalia, and echopraxia. Neurological examination may show primitive reflexes and akinesia with plastic rigidity. Visuospatial and visual orientation skills are relatively well preserved.
Full clinical diagnostic features of frontotemporal dementia can be found in the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance, February 2006. It is important to differentiate frontotemporal dementia from other types of dementia, as the treatment and management strategies may differ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the right cheek. The pain may last up to a minute before subsiding. He thinks that sometimes shaving or washing his face has precipitated attacks. He had similar trouble 6 months ago but it subsided after a week. It has been going on for over 2 weeks now and he has had up to four attacks per day. There are no other associated symptoms and he has no sensory or motor deficit of his face.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: A Debilitating Condition Resulting in Intense Pain
Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic condition that causes extreme episodes of pain in the cheek and lower jaw. These episodes are sudden and sporadic, often described as electric shocks that can last from a few seconds to several minutes. While the episodes themselves are intermittent, they can recur for days, weeks, or even months before disappearing for extended periods. Some patients may experience bilateral pains. Triggers for these episodes include brushing teeth, eating and drinking, exposure to wind, skin contact (such as shaving or washing), and vibration.
Diagnosis is typically clinical, and no investigations are necessary unless there is uncertainty. Carbamazepine is the most effective treatment and should be tried initially, with the dose titrated up to achieve pain control, usually to about 200 mg three or four times a day (maximum 1600mg per day). Once in remission, the dose should be gradually reduced and discontinued until further attacks occur.
If carbamazepine is ineffective, the patient should be referred to a specialist. Normal analgesics are ineffective, and while gabapentin, clonazepam, baclofen, lamotrigine, and amitriptyline have been used, adequate evidence supporting their use is lacking. Abnormal clinical features, such as burning pain between paroxysms, loss of sensation, or any abnormal neurological signs, should also prompt referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.
Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and aphasia
Explanation:Understanding Alzheimer’s Disease: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by a range of cognitive deficits, including memory impairment, language disturbance, and difficulty with motor activities. In addition to these cognitive symptoms, individuals with Alzheimer’s disease may also experience personality changes and behavioral problems.
While some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are common, others are less so. For example, extrapyramidal signs and myoclonus are uncommon, as are pyramidal signs and seizures, especially in the early stages of the illness.
To diagnose Alzheimer’s disease, doctors typically use the DSM-IV criteria for dementia of the Alzheimer’s type. These criteria include the development of multiple cognitive defects, significant impairment in social or occupational functioning, and a gradual onset and continuing cognitive decline. Additionally, the cognitive deficits must not be due to any other central nervous system conditions, systemic conditions, or substance-induced conditions.
By understanding the common features and diagnostic criteria of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals and their loved ones can better recognize the signs of this debilitating illness and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with headaches. She suffered headaches occasionally in her early twenties but has had them more frequently over the past 2 months.
Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of tension type headache rather than migraine.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Generalised headache
Explanation:Understanding Tension-Type Headaches: Symptoms and Differences from Migraines
Tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common type of headache that can interfere with daily activities. Diagnosis of TTH is based on the presence of at least two of the following symptoms in at least ten previous headaches: a mild-to-moderate bilateral or generalised headache, a frontal-occipital headache, a non-pulsatile pressing or tightening quality, and no aggravation by routine physical activity.
Compared to migraines, tension-type headaches have a more gradual onset, variable duration, and are usually shorter in duration. They are also more constant in quality, less severe, and respond better to over-the-counter medication when they are episodic. Understanding the symptoms and differences between TTH and migraines can help individuals manage their headaches more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 month
Explanation:If you have had a stroke or TIA, the DVLA advises that you should refrain from driving for a period of one month.
The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.
For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in his feet and weakness in his lower limbs. These symptoms have developed over the past week. He has a broad-based ataxic gait. He has a history of using 'laughing gas' recreationally. His aunt has multiple sclerosis (MS) and he is concerned that he may be experiencing the first signs of the condition. What neurological finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent ankle jerk
Explanation:Distinguishing between Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Multiple Sclerosis: Neurological Manifestations
Neurological manifestations can help distinguish between vitamin B12 deficiency and multiple sclerosis (MS). Vitamin B12 deficiency causes degeneration of the white matter in the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, optic nerves, and cerebral hemispheres. Chronic inhalation of nitrous oxide is an increasingly common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. On the other hand, MS is a demyelinating disease that primarily affects the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves.
Sensory peripheral neuropathy, absent distal tendon reflexes, and distal sensory loss are neurological manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency. In contrast, sensory loss consistent with peripheral neuropathy and absent ankle jerks are not features of MS. Ataxia, which is the lack of muscle coordination, is a feature of both subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and MS.
Barber’s chair sign, an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs, can be elicited by bending the head forward or lapping on the posterior cervical spine while the neck is flexed. It is caused by the involvement of the posterior columns and is most commonly associated with MS. However, it may also occur in other lesions of the cervical cord, such as cord compression, syringomyelia, and vitamin B12 deficiency.
Bilateral up-going plantar responses signify advanced subacute combined degeneration of the cord and pyramidal signs associated with MS. Optic atrophy, the degeneration of the optic nerve, is a common feature of MS and subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions
Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.
Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.
Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.
It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of a burning sensation in her left leg. She mentions that the leg is very sensitive to touch as well.
After diagnosis, the GP prescribes amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. However, after 12 weeks, the patient returns and reports no improvement despite taking the medication as directed.
The GP decides to discontinue the use of amitriptyline. What alternative treatment options should the GP suggest next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral duloxetine
Explanation:The initial drugs recommended for treating neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these medications are ineffective, the next step is to try one of the remaining three drugs. Therefore, the correct option is duloxetine.
According to NICE guidelines, lidocaine patches are not a recommended treatment for neuropathic pain.
Topical capsaicin is only suitable for localized neuropathic pain. Using topical capsaicin for neuropathic pain affecting the entire leg would not be appropriate.
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including oral naproxen, are not recommended for treating neuropathic pain.
Understanding Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.
Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right hand. What are the common symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resting tremor + bradykinesia + rigidity
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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