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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old motorcyclist is involved in a head-on collision with a truck. The air ambulance arrives at the scene and finds that the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 6 (E2, V1, M3) and he has no air entry on the right side of the chest, with an open fractured neck of femur on the left side. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.8ºC, heart rate 120 bpm, blood pressure 70/50 mmHg, SpO2 94% on air, and respiratory rate 24/min. The fractured femur is reduced at the scene, but due to the patient's low GCS, the decision is made to intubate him at the scene. What is the most appropriate agent for induction of anesthesia?
Your Answer: Suxamethonium
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is a suitable anaesthetic option for patients who are haemodynamically unstable. Other anaesthetic agents can cause hypotension, which can be dangerous for patients who are already experiencing low blood pressure. Ketamine is often used in prehospital settings for pain relief and intubation, as it does not reduce blood pressure or cause cardiosuppression. Propofol, suxamethonium, desflurane, and thiopental sodium are not ideal options for induction of anaesthesia in haemodynamically unstable patients due to their potential to cause hypotension or other adverse effects.
Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents
Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.
Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old male is recovering on the surgical ward two days post-open inguinal hernia repair. He has no other past medical history of note.
He has not opened his bowels or passed wind for the last 48 hours. His abdomen is diffusely distended and tender. There is no rebound tenderness. There are no bowel sounds on auscultation. He is currently nil by mouth with a nasogastric tube placed.
His observations are as follows:
Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
Heart rate 110 beats per minute
Blood pressure 100/60 mmHg
Temperature 37.3ºC
Which of the following investigations is most likely to identify factors which are contributing to this patient's postoperative complication?Your Answer: U&Es
Explanation:The patient is experiencing postoperative paralytic ileus, which is evident from her inability to pass gas or have a bowel movement, as well as the absence of bowel sounds during abdominal auscultation. There are several factors that could contribute to the development of an ileus after surgery, including manipulation of the bowel during the procedure, inflammation of the intra-abdominal organs, medications used during and after surgery, and intra-abdominal sepsis. It is likely that a combination of these factors is responsible for the patient’s condition.
Although there are no signs of intra-abdominal sepsis in this patient, it is important to rule out other potential causes, such as electrolyte imbalances or underlying medical conditions. Without more information about the patient’s medical history and medication use, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the ileus. However, it is recommended that patients with paralytic ileus receive daily monitoring of their electrolyte levels to ensure that any imbalances are promptly corrected.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by a reduction in bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves starting with nil-by-mouth and gradually progressing to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemia, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. It is important to monitor the patient closely and adjust the treatment plan as necessary to ensure a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intermittent pain in her right upper quadrant for the past 3 hours. She reports that the pain worsens after eating and spreads to her right shoulder blade. There are no signs of jaundice or fever.
What blood test results would be anticipated for a diagnosis of biliary colic?Your Answer: Normal ALP and γGT, normal AST and ALT, normal CRP
Explanation:Biliary colic is characterized by intermittent pain caused by a gallstone passing through the biliary tree. Unlike other gallstone-related conditions, such as cholecystitis, biliary colic does not cause fever or abnormal liver function tests/inflammatory markers. The absence of jaundice suggests that the stone is not obstructing the common bile duct, resulting in normal liver enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is normal ALP and γGT, normal AST and ALT, and normal CRP. Referred pain may also be present at the tip of the scapula.
Biliary colic is a condition that occurs when gallstones pass through the biliary tree. The risk factors for this condition are commonly referred to as the ‘4 F’s’, which include being overweight, female, fertile, and over the age of forty. Other risk factors include diabetes, Crohn’s disease, rapid weight loss, and certain medications. Biliary colic occurs due to an increase in cholesterol, a decrease in bile salts, and biliary stasis. The pain associated with this condition is caused by the gallbladder contracting against a stone lodged in the cystic duct. Symptoms include right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound. Elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the recommended treatment for biliary colic. However, around 15% of patients may have gallstones in the common bile duct at the time of surgery, which can result in obstructive jaundice. Other possible complications of gallstone-related disease include acute cholecystitis, ascending cholangitis, acute pancreatitis, gallstone ileus, and gallbladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with painless frank haematuria. He has been experiencing a mild testicular ache and describes his scrotum as a 'bag of worms'. He is a heavy smoker, smoking 60 cigarettes a day for 48 years. During the examination, he appears cachectic, and his left testicle has a tortuous texture. His blood work shows anaemia and polycythemia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma on the left kidney
Explanation:Varicocele may indicate the presence of malignancy, as it can result from the compression of the renal vein between the abdominal aorta and the superior mesenteric artery, also known as the nutcracker angle.
Based on the patient’s medical history, there is a strong possibility of malignancy. A mass can cause compression of the renal vein, typically on the left side, leading to increased pressure on the testicular vessels and resulting in varicocele.
Hepatocellular carcinoma is unlikely as it occurs on the right side of the body and cannot compress the left renal vein. Torsion is also unlikely as the patient would experience severe pain and would not be able to tolerate an examination.
The absence of tenderness in the testicle makes epididymo-orchitis an unlikely diagnosis. Additionally, there is no swelling that transilluminates, ruling out the possibility of a hydrocele.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is brought to the emergency department (ED) after sustaining a head injury during a soccer game. According to his parents, he lost consciousness immediately after the collision for several minutes. He regained consciousness and was himself for a few hours, but they brought him to the ED when he became drowsy and complained of a headache. On examination, his Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is 12, his pupils are unequal, and there is a noticeable swelling on the right side of his head. Based on the probable diagnosis of an intracranial hemorrhage, which vessel is most likely damaged?
Your Answer: Bridging veins
Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The patient’s presentation is indicative of an extradural haemorrhage, which typically involves a lucid period following a significant head injury. In contrast, subdural haemorrhages often result in fluctuating consciousness and are more commonly seen in elderly individuals or those with a history of alcohol abuse. The primary pathology in a subdural haematoma is the tearing of bridging veins, while damage to the middle meningeal artery is the primary cause of extradural haematomas. The carotid artery is not located within the intracranial space, and berry aneurysms typically burst in the Circle of Willis, resulting in a subarachnoid haemorrhage that presents with a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache. The dural artery does not exist.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman without medical history presents to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting that has been ongoing for 12 hours. Upon examination, she is found to be tender in the epigastrium and has a low-grade fever. An abdominal ultrasound reveals the presence of gallstones, but no signs of cholecystitis. Blood tests are ordered and show the following results:
- Hb: 121 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
- Platelets: 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
- WBC: 15.5 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6)
- Amylase: 1056 U/L (normal range: 70 - 300)
- Bilirubin: 5 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
- ALP: 92 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
- ALT: 33 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
- γGT: 41 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)
As she awaits transfer to the ward, the patient's condition worsens. She becomes increasingly short of breath and tachypnoeic, and eventually develops central cyanosis. What is the most likely cause of her deterioration?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s initial presentation is most likely due to acute pancreatitis, as evidenced by the elevated serum amylase levels. Her age (>55), low serum calcium levels (<2 mmol/L), and high white cell count (>15 x 109/L) indicate a Modified Glasgow Score of >3, putting her at risk of severe pancreatitis and its complications. Although the other options could also cause shortness of breath and cyanosis, the most probable explanation in this case is acute respiratory distress syndrome, a known complication of acute pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.
Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of malaise, fever, and rigours. Upon CT scan, it is revealed that he has fulminant pancolitis and an emergency subtotal colectomy with stoma formation is necessary. What type of stoma will he have post-surgery?
Your Answer: Flush with the skin, single opening in the left iliac fossa
Correct Answer: Spouted from the skin, single opening in the right iliac fossa
Explanation:An ileostomy is a stoma formed from the small bowel, specifically the terminal ileum, and is typically located in the right iliac fossa. It is spouted from the skin to prevent alkaline bowel contents from causing skin irritation when attaching and removing stoma bags. The output of an end ileostomy is liquid and it has a single opening that is spouted from the skin.
A colostomy, on the other hand, is usually flush with the skin and has a more solid output. It is typically located in the left iliac fossa, except for defunctioning loop transverse colostomies which are located in the epigastrium. An end colostomy is a single opening, flush stoma in the left iliac fossa, while a loop ileostomy is a spouted stoma with a double opening in the right iliac fossa.
It is rare to find an end ileostomy in the left iliac fossa, especially after a subtotal colectomy. The only reason a left-sided ileostomy would be fashioned is if there was an anatomical reason it could not be brought out on the right, such as adhesions or right-sided sepsis. A subtotal colectomy involves resecting most of the large bowel, except the rectum, and forming an end ileostomy. In contrast, a Hartmann’s procedure for sigmoid perforation secondary to diverticulitis or a tumor involves forming an end colostomy in the left iliac fossa.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old Nigerian patient presents with a 3-month history of jaundiced sclera, weight loss, and pale stools. Suspected malignancy is being worked up, and a pancreatic protocol CT reveals a low attenuating mass within the pancreatic body and neck, distension of the pancreatic duct within the pancreatic tail, and non-opacification of the portal confluence. Peritoneal nodular thickening and masses are also noted, along with a right hepatic lobe focal lesion in the arterial phase. After MDT discussion, it is determined that the extent of the disease is unresectable. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Percutaneous biliary drainage via transhepatic route
Correct Answer: Biliary stenting
Explanation:Biliary stenting is the preferred treatment for patients with malignant distal obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic carcinoma. Although it does not provide a cure, it can alleviate symptoms and reduce short-term morbidity and mortality. Percutaneous biliary drainage via transhepatic route may be considered if biliary stenting fails, but it is not the first option. However, due to the complexity of the procedure and the presence of peritoneal seeding and liver metastases, it requires careful consideration before being performed.
A choledochoduodenostomy is an anastomosis between the common bile duct (CBD) and jejunum, which is used to relieve biliary obstruction distal to the junction of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct. Although it is indicated for chronic pancreatitis, it is not recommended for many patients with pancreatic head malignancies because the tumours can prevent proper repositioning of the duodenum, leading to a tension-filled surgical anastomosis that can cause bile leakage. As the patient has unresectable pancreatic cancer, this procedure is not appropriate.
The CT report shows a significant pancreatic malignancy with metastases in the right liver lobe and peritoneum, making pancreaticoduodenectomy or pancreatic resection inappropriate options.
Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department (ED) after hitting his head on a low-hanging branch while hiking 3 hours ago. He recalls feeling dizzy and disoriented immediately after the incident but has since felt fine.
Upon examination, the patient has a small bump on his head and a mild headache. His neurological exam is normal, and his GCS is 15. He reports feeling nauseous but has not vomited since the incident.
The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.
What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Discharge with safety netting
Correct Answer: CT head within 1 hour
Explanation:If a person experiences more than one episode of vomiting after a head injury, it is necessary to perform a CT head within 1 hour to check for any intracranial pathology. This is the case for a 24-year-old man who has presented to the emergency department with a severe head injury and multiple vomiting episodes. Other criteria for an urgent CT head within 1 hour include evidence of basal skull fracture, depressed skull fractures, and altered GCS. Admitting the patient for neuro-observations only is not appropriate, as a CT head is necessary to rule out any intracranial pathology. Similarly, a CT head within 8 hours is not appropriate for this patient, as it is indicated for head injuries with altered consciousness or amnesia following the event. Discharging the patient with safety netting is also not appropriate, as the patient is experiencing repeated vomiting after a head injury, which requires urgent CT head imaging within 1 hour.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old male presents to his GP with concerns about his recent difficulty achieving erections, which is causing strain in his relationship. He reports a sudden onset of this issue a few weeks ago, but denies any changes in mood or previous medical or psychiatric conditions. The patient smoked occasionally in his teenage years but has been smoke-free for over 20 years. He maintains a healthy diet and exercises by cycling for an hour each week. Based on this history, what features suggest an organic cause for his erectile dysfunction?
Your Answer: Normal libido
Explanation:When it comes to the causes of erectile dysfunction (ED), there are two main factors to consider: organic and psychogenic. If a patient with ED has a normal libido, it is likely that an organic cause is to blame. However, in this particular case, the sudden onset of symptoms makes it difficult to determine whether the cause is organic or psychogenic. While smoking can contribute to ED, the patient’s history of occasional smoking during their teenage years is not significant enough to be a factor. Relationship issues are often linked to psychogenic causes of ED. Additionally, some studies suggest that cycling for more than three hours per week can compress nerves and arteries in the Alcock canal, leading to ED.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual activity. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with gradual onset of symptoms, lack of tumescence, and normal libido favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms, decreased libido, and major life events favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk, as well as free testosterone levels in the morning. If free testosterone is low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors.
For young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, referral to urology is appropriate. Additionally, people with ED who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop. Overall, ED is a common condition that can be effectively managed with appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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