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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old child is presented to your allergy clinic by anxious parents. The...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is presented to your allergy clinic by anxious parents. The child has a previous medical record of a mild non-IgE mediated egg allergy. What course of action would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Gradual reintroduction of egg based products using the egg ladder

      Explanation:

      The egg ladder can be used to reintroduce egg in children with non-IgE mediated allergy, starting with baked egg in biscuits. Chlorpheniramine and adrenaline pen are not appropriate choices.

      Identifying and Managing Food Allergies in Children and Young People

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized into IgE-mediated and non-IgE-mediated allergies. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea, and respiratory symptoms such as nasal itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea, congestion, cough, chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, blood and/or mucus in stools, abdominal pain, infantile colic, food refusal or aversion, constipation, perianal redness, pallor and tiredness, and faltering growth.

      If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods and likely co-allergens should be offered. On the other hand, if the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced. It is recommended to consult a dietitian with appropriate competencies about nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up. By identifying and managing food allergies in children and young people, we can prevent severe allergic reactions and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.6
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  • Question 2 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history...

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    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      155.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She is typically healthy and takes a combined oral contraceptive pill. Her mother has a history of hereditary spherocytosis and is with her during the visit. The pain is intermittent but has intensified today. There have been no alterations to her bowel movements, and she has not experienced any nausea or vomiting. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastritis

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Chronic haemolysis and gallstone formation are present in this patient with hereditary spherocytosis. It is crucial to consider splenic rupture as a potential differential diagnosis in a patient with hereditary spherocytosis who is unwell.

      Understanding Hereditary Spherocytosis

      Hereditary spherocytosis is the most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent. It is an autosomal dominant defect of the red blood cell cytoskeleton, which replaces the normal biconcave disc shape with a sphere-shaped red blood cell. This condition reduces the red blood cell survival as they are destroyed by the spleen. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis may present with failure to thrive, jaundice, gallstones, splenomegaly, and aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection. The degree of haemolysis is variable, and the mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is elevated.

      The diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is based on a family history of the condition, typical clinical features, and laboratory investigations such as spherocytes, raised MCHC, and an increase in reticulocytes. The osmotic fragility test was previously the recommended investigation of choice, but it is now deemed unreliable and is no longer recommended. If the diagnosis is equivocal, the EMA binding test and the cryohaemolysis test are recommended. For atypical presentations, electrophoresis analysis of erythrocyte membranes is the method of choice.

      The management of hereditary spherocytosis involves supportive treatment during acute haemolytic crisis, including transfusion if necessary. Longer-term treatment includes folate replacement and splenectomy. It is important to note that hereditary spherocytosis differs from G6PD deficiency, which is an X-linked recessive condition that affects males of African and Mediterranean descent. The diagnostic test for G6PD deficiency involves measuring enzyme activity, while the EMA binding test is used for hereditary spherocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      60.6
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
      Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome

      Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28
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  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to request a repeat prescription of xylometazoline hydrochloride nasal spray. He has been using this for the past four weeks to 'clear up his sinuses.'
      What is the most likely side effect this patient will develop based on his current management?

      Your Answer: Rebound nasal congestion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Long-Term Nasal Decongestant Use

      Nasal decongestants are a common treatment for nasal congestion, but long-term use can lead to adverse effects. One of the most significant risks is rebound nasal congestion, which can encourage further use and hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa. It is recommended to use nasal decongestants for a maximum of seven days to avoid this risk. Other adverse effects of long-term use include nasal burning, irritation, and dryness, but chronic rhinitis is not a recognized side effect. While cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and hypertension are possible, they are more common with oral decongestants. Septal perforation is a rare side effect of intranasal corticosteroids, not nasal decongestants. It is essential to understand the potential risks of long-term nasal decongestant use and to use them only as directed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
      Which medication should this patient be started on?

      Your Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      10.5
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden, painless loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden, painless loss of vision in her right eye. On examination, fundoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula in her right eye. Her left eye is normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal-vein occlusion (CRVO)

      Correct Answer: Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Eye Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by a sudden loss of vision due to the lack of blood supply to the inner layer of the retina. On fundoscopy, the retina appears pale with a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the macula.

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world. However, deterioration in vision is usually gradual in AMD unless there is a retinal haemorrhage, which would be seen on fundoscopy.

      Central retinal-vein occlusion (CRVO) results in retinal hypoxia and is characterized by tortuous vessels, retinal-vein engorgement, haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and optic disc swelling.

      Glaucoma is a progressive optic neuropathy that can result in irreversible loss of nerve fibres if left untreated. On fundoscopy, you may see ‘cupping of the optic disc or an increased cup-to-disc ratio.

      Retinal detachment refers to the separation of the inner layers of the retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. It may present with four Fs: floaters, flashing lights (photopsia), field loss, and fall in visual acuity. Retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies encountered in the emergency setting.

      In summary, understanding the different presentations and fundoscopic findings of these eye conditions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13
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  • Question 8 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, depression, and chronic alcohol abuse. His current medications include warfarin 3 mg once daily, ramipril 2.5 mg once daily, bisoprolol 2 mg once daily, erythromycin 500 mg four times daily (day five of a 7-day course for cellulitis on the leg), and sertraline 50 mg once daily (started four weeks ago). He is allergic to penicillin. His blood work shows an INR of 6.5 (target 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely reason for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin is a P450 inhibiter

      Explanation:

      The patient is taking erythromycin for cellulitis, which inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible for breaking down drugs like warfarin and statins. As a result, the effects of warfarin are potentiated, leading to a higher than expected INR. Bisoprolol is unlikely to have contributed to the change in INR as it does not affect the P450 system. Chronic alcohol abuse can induce P450 enzymes, but this would cause a lower INR. Erythromycin is an inhibitor, not an inducer, of P450 enzymes. Sertraline, though recently started, is also an enzyme inhibitor and cannot explain the high INR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents following a fall. During an assessment of his fall, he complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever he looked upwards, eg to change a light bulb. He denies loss of consciousness and did not injure himself during the fall. His past medical history consists of hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, his gait and balance and neurological examination are normal, and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?

      Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common vestibular disorder that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is the best first-line management option for BPPV, as it can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis.

      Medications such as betahistine or prochlorperazine may provide short-term relief of symptoms, but they do not address the underlying cause of BPPV. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective in reducing symptoms if they persist despite the Epley manoeuvre. Overall, a combination of these management options can help alleviate the symptoms of BPPV and improve quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague...

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    • A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a colleague was killed in the line of duty. She reports experiencing recurrent nightmares and flashbacks for the past 4 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      Trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy or EMDR are both effective methods for managing PTSD.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.4
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with drowsiness. Upon examination, he appears rigid. The medical team suspects neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Which of the following is not a feature of this condition?

      Your Answer: Usually occurs after prolonged treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who have recently started treatment are commonly affected by neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which can lead to renal failure due to rhabdomyolysis.

      Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.

      A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.

      In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it...

    Correct

    • A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 49-year-old homeless man has been admitted to the emergency department after collapsing...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old homeless man has been admitted to the emergency department after collapsing with sudden onset left side hemiparesis and facial droop. A CT scan has revealed a large intracerebral haemorrhage, which is likely to have occurred spontaneously. The patient's medical and family history is unknown, but you suspect that coagulopathy may be the cause of the spontaneous bleed. The clotting profile and specific clotting factor levels are as follows:

      - PT prolonged
      - APTT prolonged
      - Factor VIII high
      - Factor II low
      - Factor V low
      - Factor VII low
      - Factor IX low
      - Von Willebrand factor high

      What is the most probable reason for the coagulopathy?

      Your Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that the individual is suffering from liver failure as all clotting factors, except for factor VIII, are below normal levels. In cases of liver failure, both PT and APTT may be prolonged. Haemophilia A and B are unlikely as they result in deficiencies of specific clotting factors, whereas Von Willebrand disease may have low levels of Von Willebrand factor but the other factors remain unaffected. Disseminated intravascular coagulation, on the other hand, leads to depletion of all clotting factors.

      Coagulopathy in Liver Disease: Paradoxical Supra-normal Factor VIII and Increased Thrombosis Risk

      In liver failure, the levels of all clotting factors decrease except for factor VIII, which paradoxically increases. This is because factor VIII is synthesized not only in hepatic endothelial cells but also in endothelial cells throughout the body. Moreover, good hepatic function is required for the rapid clearance of activated factor VIII from the bloodstream, leading to further increases in circulating factor VIII. Despite conventional coagulation studies suggesting an increased risk of bleeding, patients with chronic liver disease are paradoxically at an increased risk of thrombosis formation. This is due to several factors, including reduced synthesis of natural anticoagulants such as protein C, protein S, and anti-thrombin, which are all essential for preventing thrombosis.

      Reference
      Tripodi et al. An imbalance of pro- vs anti-coagulation factors in plasma from patients with cirrhosis. Gastroenterology. 2009 Dec;137(6):2105-11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old construction worker is referred by his family doctor with chronic upper abdominal pain on the right side. He admits to drinking a six-pack of beer every night after work. Over the past year, he has lost about 9 kg (1.5 stone) in weight, and his wife says that he often skips meals in favor of alcohol. He has occasional diarrhea, which he describes as greasy and difficult to flush away. Physical examination reveals a lean man with tenderness upon deep palpation in the right upper quadrant. Blood testing reveals mild normochromic/normocytic anaemia and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level raised to twice the upper limit of normal. Amylase and anti-gliadin antibodies are normal. Upper abdominal ultrasound is performed and there is diffuse pancreatic calcification, but nothing else of note.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Chronic pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Chronic pancreatitis is a condition where the pancreas undergoes ongoing inflammation, resulting in irreversible changes. The most common symptom is recurring abdominal pain, often in the mid or upper left abdomen, accompanied by weight loss and diarrhea. Imaging tests can reveal inflammation or calcium deposits in the pancreas, and pancreatic calcifications are considered a telltale sign of chronic pancreatitis. Excessive alcohol consumption is the leading cause of this condition, as it can cause blockages in the pancreatic ducts and stimulate inflammation.

      Pancreatic carcinoma is a type of cancer that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. Symptoms are often vague and non-specific, such as fatigue, nausea, and mid-epigastric or back pain. Obstructive jaundice is a common symptom, with elevated levels of bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase. Ultrasound is often used for diagnosis, but it may not reveal the extent of the cancer.

      Acute pancreatitis is characterized by sudden, severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Fever, tachycardia, and abdominal muscle guarding are also common symptoms. Serum amylase and lipase levels are typically elevated, and leukocytosis may be present.

      Coeliac disease is a chronic digestive disorder that results in an inability to tolerate gliadin, a component of gluten. Laboratory tests may reveal electrolyte imbalances, malnutrition, and anemia. The most reliable antibodies for confirming coeliac disease are tissue transglutaminase immunoglobulin A, endomysial IgA, and reticulin IgA.

      Recurrent cholecystitis is a condition where the gallbladder becomes inflamed due to gallstones blocking the cystic duct. Symptoms include recurring episodes of biliary colic, but a palpable mass is not always present. Ultrasound may reveal a thickened gallbladder wall, gallstones, or calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      24.7
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner after experiencing buzzing sounds in...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner after experiencing buzzing sounds in both ears intermittently over the past two weeks. He claims that this occurs suddenly, lasts for a few seconds and is not associated with his pulse. He reports no change in his hearing or other symptoms. Ear and cranial nerve examinations are unremarkable.
      Which of the following investigations are necessary?

      Your Answer: Audiogram

      Explanation:

      Investigating Tinnitus: Guidelines and Recommendations

      Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head that do not come from an outside source, affects around 1 in 10 people at some point in their life. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom of ringing in the ears, it can be distressing and may indicate a serious underlying condition. Here are some guidelines and recommendations for investigating tinnitus:

      Audiological Assessment: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that all patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.

      Psychoacoustic Testing: Acoustic reflex testing and psychoacoustic testing are not recommended as part of the investigation of tinnitus.

      Imaging: Imaging should not be offered to people with symmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus with no associated neurological, audiological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms. If they are unable to have this, a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the internal auditory meatus should be offered. An MR scan of the internal auditory meatus should only be offered to people with unilateral or asymmetrical non-pulsatile tinnitus, or non-pulsatile tinnitus with associated neurological, otological or head-and-neck signs and symptoms.

      Otoacoustic Emissions: Otoacoustic emission testing should only be considered if there are other indicative symptoms and signs. All patients with tinnitus should be offered an audiological assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute state of confusion. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause lithium toxicity in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides can cause lithium toxicity, while sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline can lower plasma levels of lithium.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.7
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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with chronic kidney disease is in his seventh year of haemodialysis (HD). He visits his general practitioner with symptoms of pain, numbness and tingling in both hands during the early hours of the morning. He also complains of stiffness in his shoulders, hips and knees.
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Dialysis amyloidosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between potential causes of joint pain: A brief overview

      Joint pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to differentiate between potential causes in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here, we will briefly discuss some of the conditions that may cause joint pain and their distinguishing features.

      Dialysis amyloidosis, also known as beta-2-microglobulin (β-2m) amyloidosis, is a rare condition that affects patients undergoing long-term hemodialysis or continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. It is characterized by the accumulation of β-2m, a major constituent of amyloid fibrils, which can invade synovial membranes and osteoarticular sites, causing destructive osteoarthropathies. Symptomatic relief can be provided with medication, therapy, and surgical procedures, but renal transplantation is the treatment of choice.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic systemic inflammatory disease that is generally accepted to be triggered by an external factor, leading to synovial hypertrophy and chronic joint inflammation. Persistent symmetrical polyarthritis of the hands and feet is the hallmark feature of the disease.

      Diabetic neuropathy is the most common complication of diabetes mellitus, affecting up to 50% of patients with type 1 and type 2 disease. It involves symptoms or signs of peripheral nerve dysfunction in people with diabetes, after other possible causes have been excluded.

      Seronegative arthritis is characterized by joint pain and inflammation in the absence of serum rheumatoid factor (RF), which is present in approximately 60-80% of patients with RA.

      Uraemic neuropathy is a distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy caused by uraemic toxins, which is strongly correlated with the severity of renal insufficiency. Typical symptoms include a tingling and pricking sensation in the lower extremities.

      By understanding the distinguishing features of these conditions, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat joint pain in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      33.2
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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries

      Explanation:

      A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.

      Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.

      Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.

      Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.1
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a history of psoriasis visits his GP complaining of a deterioration in his psoriatic plaques. He has been prescribed multiple medications by his cardiologist to alleviate his cardiac symptoms.
      Which of the following newly prescribed medications is the probable cause of this man's psoriasis exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic plaques can be worsened by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, but not by calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel. However, NSAIDs like aspirin can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, has no impact on psoriasis.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.5
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  • Question 20 - A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular menstrual cycles. She reports feeling weak and depressed. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple purplish striae on her abdomen and bruises on her lower extremities. Laboratory tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and TSH, but elevated cortisol secretion. If the patient has adrenal hyperfunction, what other symptom may also be present?

      Your Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications

      Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:

      Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.

      Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.

      Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.

      Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.

      Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      24.6
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  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man, currently admitted to a medical ward for acute pancreatitis, experiences intermittent episodes of epistaxis. Blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
      - Platelets: 52 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400)
      - Prothrombin time (PT): 23 seconds (normal range: 10-14 seconds)
      - Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 46 seconds (normal range: 25-35 seconds)
      - Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (normal range: 2 - 4)
      - D-Dimer: 1203 ng/mL (normal range: < 400)
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what would be the expected findings on a blood film?

      Your Answer: Spherocytes

      Correct Answer: Schistocytes

      Explanation:

      The presence of schistocytes is indicative of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). DIC is a condition where the coagulation pathways are activated, leading to a procoagulant state. It can be triggered by various factors, including acute illness. The patient’s blood tests show a depletion of platelets and coagulation factors, which is typical of DIC. However, elliptocytes, Heinz bodies, and Howell-Jolly bodies are not expected in DIC. Elliptocytes are usually seen in conditions like iron deficiency and thalassemia, while Heinz bodies are associated with alpha-thalassemia and glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies are characteristic of decreased splenic function, such as post-splenectomy.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      73.6
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  • Question 23 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      6.7
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Explanation:

      Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.

      Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 10-year-old patient develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after getting...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old patient develops an eczematous, weeping rash on their wrist after getting a new bracelet. According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, what type of reaction is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Type IV reaction

      Explanation:

      Allergic contact dermatitis, which is often caused by nickel, is the type IV hypersensitivity reaction observed in this patient.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.7
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and water brash for the past few weeks. He has been taking ibandronic acid tablets for osteoporosis. There is no history of food sticking or significant weight loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. Here are some common conditions and their associated symptoms:

      Oesophagitis: Inflammation of the oesophagus can cause asymptomatic, epigastric or substernal burning pain, dysphagia, and increased discomfort when lying down or straining. It is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, alcohol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, bisphosphonates, smoking, or Candida albicans infection. Treatment involves eliminating precipitating causes and using proton-pump inhibitors.

      Oesophageal carcinoma: This type of cancer typically presents with worsening dysphagia, weight loss, heartburn, and changes in voice due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Gastric carcinoma: Symptoms of gastric cancer are often non-specific and include weight loss, anorexia, and fatigue. Heartburn and indigestion are rare.

      Duodenal ulcer: Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is typically improved with eating and severe enough to impact nutritional intake, leading to weight loss. Patients at high risk of gastric ulceration due to medication use may be prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor.

      Pancreatic carcinoma: This type of cancer often presents very late with painless jaundice and weight loss, which are not seen in the presented case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred with fatigue. Her primary care physician observes that she has jaundice and suspects liver disease. She also presents with angular cheilitis. She has a history of taking steroid inhalers for asthma, but no other significant medical history. A blood smear shows signs of megaloblastic anemia, and her serum bilirubin level is elevated, but her other laboratory results are normal. There are no indications of gastrointestinal (GI) issues.
      What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anaemia: Understanding the Causes

      Anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here, we will discuss some of the possible causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings.

      Pernicious Anaemia: This type of anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 due to impaired intrinsic factor (IF) production. It is usually seen in adults aged 40-70 years and is characterized by megaloblastic changes in rapidly dividing cells. Anti-parietal cell antibodies are present in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia. The Schilling test is useful in confirming the absence of IF. Treatment involves parenteral administration of cyanocobalamin or hydroxycobalamin.

      Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia: CML is a myeloproliferative disorder that results in increased proliferation of granulocytic cells. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly. Mild to moderate anaemia is usually normochromic and normocytic. Diagnosis is based on histopathological findings in the peripheral blood and Philadelphia chromosome in bone marrow cells.

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia: This type of anaemia is primarily a laboratory diagnosis and is characterized by microcytic and hypochromic erythropoiesis. It is caused by chronic iron deficiency and can be due to multiple causes, including chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate.

      Crohn’s Disease: This chronic inflammatory process can affect any part of the GI tract and can cause anaemia due to chronic inflammation, iron malabsorption, chronic blood loss, and malabsorption of vitamin B12 or folate. However, the lack of GI symptoms in the clinical scenario provided is not consistent with a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Autoimmune Hepatitis: This chronic disease is characterized by continuing hepatocellular inflammation and necrosis, with a tendency to progress to cirrhosis. Elevated serum aminotransferase levels are present in 100% of patients at initial presentation. Anaemia, if present, is usually normochromic. However, this clinical picture and laboratory findings are not consistent with the scenario given.

      In conclusion, understanding the different causes of anaemia and their corresponding laboratory findings is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      33.7
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  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She reports that her daughter has been complaining of abdominal pain and has had loose stools for the past three weeks. Her weight was previously on the 75th centile but has now dropped to the 50th centile. She appears fatigued, pale and has a bloated abdomen.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. There are several diagnostic tests that can be performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      Initial Blood Tests
      The initial blood tests for coeliac disease are immunoglobulin A (IgA) tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTG) and total IgA. Total IgA is tested because IgA deficiency is associated with coeliac disease and can cause a false-negative tTG-IgA. It is important for patients to be eating a diet containing gluten when they have the blood test to avoid a false-negative result.

      Endoscopy and Duodenal Biopsy
      An endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis in secondary care. However, guidelines state that children may be diagnosed without a biopsy if they have tTG-IgA levels over ten times the upper limit of normal and positive endomysial antibodies (EMA-IgA) in a second blood test.

      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 Blood Tests
      HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 are associated with coeliac disease. This blood test may be performed in secondary care but is not an initial investigation.

      C13 Urea Breath Test
      The C13 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori and has no role in the diagnosis of coeliac disease.

      In conclusion, a combination of blood tests and endoscopy with a duodenal biopsy may be required to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. It is important for patients to continue eating a gluten-containing diet before undergoing diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been going on for three months. Upon examination, there is swelling on one side of the scrotum that illuminates when light is shone on it. The swelling is soft and painless, and the testis cannot be fully felt due to the presence of fluid. What is the best next step to take?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Although the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient at a later time would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound has ruled out cancer. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. While a unilateral hydrocele may be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the initial investigation in this case. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl is brought in by her father, who reports that the child experiences constant urinary dribbling and dampness. A urine dipstick was negative.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Explanation:

      Medications for Urinary and Bowel Issues in Children

      Overactive bladder and nocturnal enuresis are common urinary issues in children. Here are some medications that can be used to treat these conditions:

      1. Oxybutynin: This medication relaxes the urinary smooth muscle and is used to treat overactive bladder in children over 5 years old.

      2. Imipramine: A tricyclic antidepressant that is used as a second-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis.

      3. Desmopressin: A vasopressin analogue that can be used to treat nocturnal enuresis in children.

      4. Duloxetine: A serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) used to treat stress urinary incontinence in women. It is not licensed for use in individuals under 18 years old.

      In addition, loperamide is an opioid antimotility drug that can be used to treat diarrhoea caused by gastroenteritis or inflammatory bowel disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.8
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  • Question 31 - A 76-year-old man has been hospitalized with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been hospitalized with an infective exacerbation of COPD. He is receiving controlled oxygen therapy, nebulized bronchodilators, steroids, and antibiotics. A blood gas test is conducted two hours after admission, revealing the following results: pH 7.31, PaO2 7.8kPa, PaCO2 9 kPa, and HCO3- 36 mmol/l. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BIPAP)

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) recommends that patients suspected of having an exacerbation of COPD undergo several tests, including arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, electrocardiogram, full blood count and urea and electrolytes, and theophylline level (if applicable). Sputum microscopy and culture should also be done if the sputum is purulent, and blood cultures if the patient has a fever. Medical therapy should include oxygen to maintain the patient within their individualized target range, nebulized bronchodilators, steroid therapy, antibiotics if necessary, and chest physiotherapy. If the patient does not respond well to nebulized bronchodilators, intravenous theophyllines may be considered. For patients with persistent hypercapnic ventilatory failure despite optimal medical therapy, non-invasive ventilation should be considered. In this case, a trial of BIPAP would be the best option since intravenous theophylline is not available. BIPAP is a form of non-invasive ventilation that has been proven effective in acute type two respiratory failure. It works by stenting alveoli open to increase the surface area available for ventilation and gas exchange. CPAP is another form of non-invasive ventilation but is not as effective as BIPAP in COPD. Intubation and ventilation may be necessary in some patients with COPD, but a trial of non-invasive ventilation is the most appropriate next step. It is important to set a ceiling of care for all patients presenting with an exacerbation of COPD. Regular arterial blood gas analysis is necessary to assess the patient’s response to NIV.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      57.5
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  • Question 32 - A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A woman who gave birth 4 weeks ago visits her nearby GP clinic with her partner. She reports feeling 'constantly tearful' and 'unable to connect' with her newborn. Which screening tool is best suited for identifying postpartum depression?

      Your Answer: Edinburgh Scale

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.2
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  • Question 34 - A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is reviewed on the Oncology Ward. He has metastatic lung cancer and a potassium (K+) level of 6.1 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l). The lab report indicates that there was a delay in processing this sample. His last K+ level recorded two days ago was 4.2 mmol/l. An electrocardiogram (ECG), urine output and observations all provide normal results.
      What is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Repeat sample immediately

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where hyperkalaemia is suspected, it is important to verify whether the elevated potassium levels are due to true hyperkalaemia or an erroneous result. This can be caused by a delay in sample processing, venepuncture technique, or haemolysis of the blood sample.

      If hyperkalaemia is confirmed, treatment should be initiated without delay. Calcium gluconate or calcium chloride may be given to protect the myocardium in cases of severe hyperkalaemia. Insulin and dextrose are usually given to drive potassium into the cells.

      However, before prescribing any medications, it is crucial to repeat the sample immediately to confirm the diagnosis of true hyperkalaemia. Delaying treatment may lead to fatal arrhythmia. Therefore, it is essential to manage suspected hyperkalaemia with urgency and accuracy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He initially experienced weakness in his legs a few days ago, which has now progressed to involve his arms. Additionally, he is experiencing shooting pains in his back and limbs. About four weeks ago, he had a brief episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon examination, reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are confirmed.

      What test results would you anticipate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Abnormal nerve conduction studies

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome can be diagnosed with the help of nerve conduction studies. The presence of ascending weakness after an infection is a common symptom of this syndrome. Most patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome show abnormal nerve conduction study results. If there are cord signal changes, it may indicate spinal cord compression or a spinal lesion. Inflammatory infiltrates on muscle biopsy are typically observed in patients with myositis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the CSF protein level is usually elevated, not decreased.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old man who drinks 6 cans of soda a day would like...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man who drinks 6 cans of soda a day would like to stop his habit. He is considering taking varenicline (Champix®) to help him quit smoking and wants to learn about its potential side effects.
      What is the most common side effect associated with orlistat?

      Your Answer: Abnormal dreams

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Varenicline

      Varenicline is a medication commonly used to help people quit smoking. However, like any medication, it can have side effects. One of the most common side effects is abnormal dreams and sleep disorders. While eye pain, lacrimation, and visual disturbances can occur, increased intraocular pressure is not a known side effect. Menorrhagia and vaginal discharge may occur, but amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea are not associated with varenicline. It’s important to note that nicotine withdrawal symptoms can occur as early as 4 hours after the last cigarette and peak around 48 hours after quitting. These symptoms can include headache, anxiety, tobacco cravings, appetite changes, nausea, paraesthesiae, sleep disturbance, sweating, and low mood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to alcoholic liver cirrhosis. The medical team performs an ABCDE assessment and administers terlipressin. An urgent endoscopy is requested. What medication should be administered to the patient prior to the endoscopy?

      Your Answer: Antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic therapy is the appropriate course of action to reduce mortality in cirrhotic patients experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding. Prophylactic antibiotics, particularly quinolones, should be administered alongside terlipressin for individuals suspected of having variceal bleeding. The use of cimetidine is not recommended for acute treatment before endoscopy, but it may be used as a preventative measure for mild acid reflux symptoms. Octreotide is sometimes used as an alternative to terlipressin, but studies indicate that it is less effective in reducing mortality. Propranolol is utilized as a prophylactic measure to decrease the incidence of variceal bleeding.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient before endoscopy. Correcting clotting with FFP and vitamin K is important, as is the use of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method of treatment, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. Propranolol and EVL are effective in preventing rebleeding and mortality, and are recommended by NICE guidelines. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: A calcium-channel blocker only

      Correct Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he experienced over the weekend. He reports that the discomfort began in his upper abdomen shortly after eating a large pizza on Friday night. The discomfort then shifted to the left side of his abdomen. He also vomited a few times. Most of the symptoms subsided within 24 hours. During the examination, he is still slightly tender in the left upper quadrant and has no fever or jaundice.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is a common symptom of gallstones, occurring in 1-4% of patients with choledocholithiasis. The pain is intense and dull, usually resolving within 30-90 minutes, and often occurs after consuming fatty meals. This matches the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. If left untreated, biliary colic can progress to acute cholecystitis, which presents with upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. However, since the patient’s symptoms resolved within 24 hours, acute cholecystitis is unlikely. Acute viral hepatitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as the patient has no known exposure to the viruses and her symptoms resolved too quickly. Acute pancreatitis presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever, which does not match the patient’s symptoms. Ascending cholangitis is also unlikely, as the patient is afebrile and not jaundiced, and her symptoms resolved within 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which one of the following is not a notifiable disease in the United...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a notifiable disease in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      Notifying authorities about HIV is not required.

      Notifiable Diseases in the UK

      In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. The Proper Officer at the team will then inform the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, legionnaires disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.

      It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK, and in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases. The purpose of notifiable diseases is to monitor and control the spread of infectious diseases in the population. By requiring healthcare professionals to report cases, public health officials can track outbreaks and take appropriate measures to prevent further transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.4
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  • Question 41 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A concerned father brings his 20-month-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. He is...

    Correct

    • A concerned father brings his 20-month-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. He is worried that she has not yet started combining two words and is only able to say single words. The father reports no other developmental concerns and there is no significant family history.

      What would be the first step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure her that this is part of normal development

      Explanation:

      By the age of 2, children should have the ability to combine two words, indicating normal development. Therefore, there is no need to seek consultation with a paediatric specialist or schedule a follow-up appointment in the near future.

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

    Correct

    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her capillary blood glucose (CBG) at home since being diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) 3 weeks ago. She has received appropriate dietary and exercise advice, as well as review by a dietitian. Additionally, she has been taking metformin and has been on the maximum dose for the past week. Fetal growth scans have been normal, with no signs of macrosomia or polyhydramnios. Today, she presents her CBG diary, which indicates a mean pre-meal CBG of 6.0 mmol/L and a mean 1-hour postprandial CBG of 8.4 mmol/L. What is the most suitable management plan?

      Your Answer: Commence insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added. Pregnant women with GDM should aim to keep their CBGs below specific levels, including fasting at 5.3mmol/L and 1 hour postprandial at 7.8 mmol/L or 2 hours postprandial at 6.4 mmol/L. If these targets are not met, insulin should be offered as an additional therapy. Gliclazide is not recommended, and the use of any sulphonylurea in GDM is an off-license indication. Gliptins are not recommended due to insufficient evidence of their safety in pregnancy. It is not appropriate to continue the same management or de-escalate treatment by stopping metformin if CBG readings are above target levels. Failure to achieve glycaemic control can result in serious risks to both mother and fetus, including pre-eclampsia, pre-term labour, stillbirth, and neonatal hypoglycaemia, even if fetal growth appears normal.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      22.3
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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
      What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No investigation

      Explanation:

      When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians

      Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.

      For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.

      Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments

      Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.

      Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.8
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  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of worsening right knee pain and limited mobility. He reports falling off his bike a few days ago but did not experience any knee pain until yesterday. Upon examination, the right knee appears red and hot with only 20º of flexion and a small effusion. The patient has a history of a conservatively treated ACL rupture in the other knee.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 100 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, saturations 98% on room air, blood pressure 102/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 145 g/L, platelets of 500 * 109/L, a white cell count of 13.6 * 109/L, a sodium level of 142 mmol/L, a potassium level of 5.0 mmol/L, a urea level of 4.0 mmol/L, a creatinine level of 110 µmol/L, and a CRP level of 130 mg/L. X-ray results show no obvious bony injury.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic review

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is most commonly observed in adults’ knees, which presents as sudden joint pain and immobility, accompanied by fever and elevated inflammatory markers. Urgent orthopaedic evaluation is necessary for aspiration and potential washout, as untreated septic arthritis can lead to joint destruction within hours to days. Discharging the patient with oral antibiotics or physiotherapy is not recommended. Administering colchicine is not appropriate as there is no history of gout or pseudogout, and X-ray results do not indicate chondrocalcinosis. Ordering an MRI knee scan may delay appropriate treatment and will not impact management.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      66.4
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  • Question 48 - A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history of fevers and lethargy. During the examination, you observe a few splinter haemorrhages in the fingernails and a loud systolic murmur at the apex. Your consultant advises you to obtain 3 sets of blood cultures and to schedule an echocardiogram. Microbiology contacts you later that day with the preliminary blood culture findings.
      What organism is the most probable cause of the growth?

      Your Answer: Gram negative bacilli

      Correct Answer: Gram positive cocci

      Explanation:

      Gram positive cocci are responsible for the majority of bacterial endocarditis cases. The most common culprits include Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus (in individuals who use intravenous drugs or have prosthetic valves), and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in those with prosthetic valves). Other less common causes include Enterococcus, Streptococcus bovis, Candida, HACEK group, and Coxiella burnetii. Acute endocarditis is typically caused by Staphylococcus, while subacute cases are usually caused by Streptococcus species. Knowing the common underlying organisms is crucial for determining appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy. For native valve endocarditis, amoxicillin and gentamicin are recommended. Vancomycin and gentamicin are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy, or suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin and meropenem are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis and risk factors for gram-negative infection. For prosthetic valve endocarditis, vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampicin are recommended. Once blood culture results are available, antibiotic therapy can be adjusted to provide specific coverage. Treatment typically involves long courses (4-6 weeks) of intravenous antibiotic therapy.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 49 - You have requested a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test for a patient with...

    Correct

    • You have requested a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) test for a patient with suspected heart failure who is in their 60s. The results have shown a slightly elevated BNP level. What could be a possible factor that may cause a falsely elevated BNP result?

      Your Answer: COPD

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines on the diagnosis and management of this condition. Previously, the first-line investigation was determined by whether the patient had previously had a myocardial infarction or not. However, this is no longer the case. All patients should now have an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP blood test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis.

      There are different levels of BNP, and each level indicates a different severity of the condition. High levels of BNP are greater than 400 pg/ml (116 pmol/litre) for BNP and greater than 2000 pg/ml (236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Raised levels of BNP are between 100-400 pg/ml (29-116 pmol/litre) for BNP and between 400-2000 pg/ml (47-236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Normal levels of BNP are less than 100 pg/ml (29 pmol/litre) for BNP and less than 400 pg/ml (47 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP.

      It is important to note that several factors can alter the BNP level. Factors that increase BNP levels include left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxaemia (including pulmonary embolism), GFR < 60 ml/min, sepsis, COPD, diabetes, and age > 70. On the other hand, factors that decrease BNP levels include diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and incontinence presents to you with a complaint of increased urinary incontinence when coughing or sneezing after starting a new medication. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Relaxation of the bladder outlet and urethra caused by doxazosin can exacerbate stress incontinence symptoms. This medication, classified as an alpha blocker, is commonly prescribed for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia-related urinary retention. Therefore, doxazosin is the appropriate response.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male visits the clinic with watery diarrhoea. He was recently treated with triple therapy for a duodenal ulcer and has a medical history of GORD, bipolar syndrome, and a previous heart attack. What factor in his medical history increases his susceptibility to a Clostridium difficile infection (CDI)?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole use

      Explanation:

      C. difficile infection (CDI) is caused by disruptions in the normal gut flora, which leads to increased colonization of C. difficile and the release of toxins that cause inflammation. Established risk factors for CDI include the use of antibiotics, protein pump inhibitors, antidepressants, and conditions that affect the immune system or decrease gastric acid secretion. Bowel and early emergency surgery have also been associated with higher rates of CDI, while there is no established link between CDI and extraintestinal surgery. GORD, T2DM, and lithium are not specifically linked to higher rates of CDI, but obesity, which can be linked to many conditions and medications, is a known risk factor. Interestingly, studies have shown that statins may have a protective effect against CDI, possibly through alterations in the microbiota or reduction of inflammation in endothelial cells.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 42-year-old woman presents to you with a complaint of unintentional urine leakage...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to you with a complaint of unintentional urine leakage when she coughs for the past year. She denies any urgency to urinate. Despite trying various measures such as reducing caffeine intake, performing pelvic floor exercises, and achieving a BMI of 23 kg/m² from 29kg/m², she has only experienced minimal relief. She is hesitant to undergo surgery and is interested in exploring medication or other options. What medication is approved for treating stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: Tolterodine

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary release of urine during physical activity, coughing, or sneezing. Diagnosis is based on symptoms, and keeping a bladder diary can aid in evaluating the severity of the condition. Lifestyle changes, such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and limiting fluid consumption, are recommended. Pelvic floor exercises should also be suggested. If symptoms persist despite these measures, surgery may be an option. If surgery is not feasible or desired, duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), may be prescribed. A ring pessary is not an effective treatment for stress incontinence, as it is used to address vaginal prolapse.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma

      Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 30 minutes. The pain is constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing.
      On examination, the patient is in shock, with a palpable 7 cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. Her past medical history includes a 5 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed three years ago at the time of appendectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks one glass of wine a week.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain: A Differential Diagnosis

      Sudden-onset severe back pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aortic aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This suspicion is supported by the presence of shock, a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium, and severe back pain that may radiate to the abdomen. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, and blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space before spilling into the peritoneal cavity.

      Other possible causes of sudden-onset severe back pain include acute cholecystitis, which is unlikely in a patient who had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may also cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back, but this condition is usually accompanied by vomiting and diarrhea, and the patient does not have significant risk factors for it. Renal colic, which is characterized by acute severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, may cause tachycardia but is less likely in a patient who is haemodynamically unstable and has a known large AAA. Herniated lumbar disc, which may cause back pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, is also less likely in this case.

      Therefore, a rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm is the most probable cause of the patient’s sudden-onset severe back pain, and urgent management is necessary to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 42-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing after experiencing flu-like symptoms for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male complains of difficulty breathing after experiencing flu-like symptoms for a week. He has a dry cough and no chest discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral consolidation, and he has red rashes on his limbs and torso. Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary antigen for Legionella

      Correct Answer: Serology for Mycoplasma

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Mycoplasma can be made based on symptoms such as flu-like symptoms, bilateral consolidation, and erythema multiforme. The most suitable diagnostic test for this condition is Mycoplasma serology.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old farmer with a history of depression arrives at the emergency department complaining of blurred vision, runny nose, watery eyes, diarrhoea, and vomiting. The patient admits to ingesting a pesticide in an attempt to commit suicide. What other clinical manifestations should be anticipated in this individual?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      This individual is displaying symptoms consistent with organophosphate poisoning, which is a type of pesticide. Organophosphate pesticides work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, which affects the nervous system. This causes an accumulation of acetylcholine at nerve synapses and neuromuscular junctions, resulting in excessive stimulation of muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. As a result, bradycardia is a common symptom. The recommended treatment for organophosphate poisoning is atropine, which should be administered every 10-20 minutes until secretions dry up and the heart rate increases to 80-90 beats per minute.

      The options of dilated pupils, dry mouth, and hallucinations are incorrect. Organophosphate poisoning typically causes miosis (constricted pupils) due to overstimulation of the parasympathetic system, excessive secretions including salivation, bronchial secretions, diarrhea, and vomiting. While confusion, agitation, and coma may occur in severe cases, hallucinations are not a common symptom.

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of acetylcholine in the body, leading to the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase. This, in turn, causes an upregulation of nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects. The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD, which stands for salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation/diarrhea. Other symptoms include hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine, which helps to counteract the effects of acetylcholine. However, the role of pralidoxime in the treatment of this condition is still unclear. Meta-analyses conducted to date have failed to show any clear benefit of pralidoxime in the management of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left side. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer: Absent corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old African American male presents with widespread bone pain and muscle weakness. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
      ALP 340 U/l
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as well as low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.

      Understanding Osteomalacia

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

      Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.

      Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.

      Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.

      Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.

      Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.

      Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which infection is most strongly linked to the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office....

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 3-month old male baby to the pediatrician's office. She reports that for the past two weeks, the baby has been experiencing poor feeding, with intermittent rapid breathing, wheezing, and sweating. Additionally, the baby's weight has dropped off the initial centile. During the examination, the pediatrician discovers hepatomegaly.
      What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Congestive heart failure

      Explanation:

      The neonate is displaying signs of heart failure, which may be caused by structural heart disease. Symptoms of heart failure in neonates include difficulty feeding, breathing problems, and an enlarged liver. Asthma is not typically diagnosed in this age group, and acute liver failure is rare and usually presents with growth issues and blood clotting problems. Viral wheezing is uncommon in neonates, and the poor feeding and weight loss suggest heart failure as the likely cause.

      How Congenital Heart Disease Presents

      Congenital heart disease can manifest in various ways. One of the earliest signs may be detected during the antenatal period when imaging of the heart is performed as part of the 18-20 week fetal anomaly scan. A murmur may also be detected during the routine newborn examination. Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes, may also be present. In some cases, heart failure may occur, which can be characterized by poor feeding, shortness of breath, sweating, and hepatomegaly. It is important to be aware of these presentations in order to promptly diagnose and manage congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.

      What advice should be given to her?

      Your Answer: The local Health Protection Team should be contacted

      Correct Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally

      Explanation:

      In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.1
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  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner for advice regarding optimisation of secondary prevention. He has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) two years ago. He is on a combination of clopidogrel, atenolol 50 mg once daily and atorvastatin 80 mg once daily. He also has diabetes for which he takes metformin 1 g twice daily. His pulse rate is 70 bpm, and blood pressure 144/86 mmHg. His past medical history includes an ischaemic stroke two years ago, from which he made a complete recovery.
      What additional therapy would you consider?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Perindopril

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Post-MI Patients with Vascular Disease and Diabetes

      Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for all patients, regardless of left ventricular function. This is based on evidence from trials such as PROGRESS and HOPE, which demonstrate the benefits of ACE inhibitors in patients with vascular disease. Additionally, for patients with diabetes, the use of ACE inhibitors is preferable. The benefits of ACE inhibition are not solely related to blood pressure reduction, but also include favorable local vascular and myocardial effects. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine and diltiazem, are not recommended for post-MI patients with systolic dysfunction. Nicorandil should also be avoided. Clopidogrel is the preferred antiplatelet for patients with clinical vascular disease who have had an MI and a stroke. Blood pressure should be optimized in post-MI patients, and further antihypertensive therapy may be necessary, including the addition of an ACE inhibitor to achieve the desired level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her new bracelet. The possibility of a nickel allergy is being considered. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nickel Dermatitis

      Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.

      To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. Symptoms of nickel dermatitis can include redness, itching, and swelling of the affected area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
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  • Question 66 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
      Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)

      The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase levels?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific...

    Incorrect

    • Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific antibodies?

      Your Answer: Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies

      Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.

      Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder

      Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.

      This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.

      The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      14.3
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  • Question 68 - A 56-year-old woman with a history of left hip osteoarthritis comes in for...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with a history of left hip osteoarthritis comes in for evaluation. She is presently on a regular dose of co-codamol 30/500 for pain relief, but it is not effectively managing her symptoms. There is no significant medical history, particularly no gastrointestinal or asthma issues. What would be the most appropriate course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Add oral ibuprofen + proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, it is recommended to prescribe a PPI alongside NSAIDs for all patients with osteoarthritis. However, topical NSAIDs should only be used for osteoarthritis affecting the knee or hand.

      The Role of Glucosamine in Osteoarthritis Management

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2014 on the management of OA, which includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments. Glucosamine, a normal constituent of glycosaminoglycans in cartilage and synovial fluid, has been studied for its potential benefits in OA management.

      Several double-blind randomized controlled trials (RCTs) have reported significant short-term symptomatic benefits of glucosamine in knee OA, including reduced joint space narrowing and improved pain scores. However, more recent studies have produced mixed results. The 2008 NICE guidelines do not recommend the use of glucosamine, and a 2008 Drug and Therapeutics Bulletin review advised against prescribing it on the NHS due to limited evidence of cost-effectiveness.

      Despite the conflicting evidence, some patients may still choose to use glucosamine as a complementary therapy for OA management. It is important for healthcare professionals to discuss the potential benefits and risks of glucosamine with their patients and to consider individual patient preferences and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.8
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  • Question 69 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with dizzy spells and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy presents with dizzy spells and a swollen left calf. She has a postural drop in systolic blood pressure of >20 mmHg, low platelet count, and abnormal sodium and potassium levels. She has also had three spontaneous miscarriages and exhibits jerky explosive movements of her limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anti-phospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Thrombocytopenia, Deep Vein Thrombosis, Recurrent Miscarriages, and Chorea

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome:
      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a disorder characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies that cause thrombosis and recurrent miscarriages. The patient’s symptoms of deep vein thrombosis, three spontaneous miscarriages, and chorea are consistent with this diagnosis. The blood test shows thrombocytopenia, which is also a common finding in antiphospholipid syndrome. The diagnosis requires a positive test on at least two occasions, 6 weeks apart, in one or more of the antiphospholipid antibody assays. Treatment involves lifelong anticoagulation with warfarin in patients with a history of thrombosis.

      Uncontrolled Epilepsy:
      The patient’s explosive jerky movements of the limbs may indicate poorly controlled epilepsy. However, this diagnosis does not explain all of her other symptoms.

      Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP):
      ITP is a disorder that causes a low platelet count and a characteristic purpuric rash. However, the absence of a rash and the multitude of other clinical signs make a diagnosis of ITP insufficient to explain the patient’s presentation.

      Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH):
      SIADH is a disorder that causes water retention and hyponatremia. However, the patient’s symptoms do not fit with this diagnosis.

      Dehydration:
      Severe dehydration may present with postural hypotension and an increased risk of deep vein thrombosis. However, dehydration alone cannot explain the patient’s other symptoms.

      Conclusion:
      Based on the patient’s clinical features, antiphospholipid syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. Further testing is needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      29.9
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  • Question 70 - A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?

      Your Answer: Diabetic maculopathy

      Explanation:

      Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.3
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  • Question 71 - Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is not present in pre-proliferative retinopathy in elderly diabetic patients?

      Your Answer: Neovascularisation

      Explanation:

      Proliferative retinopathy is characterized by the presence of retinal neovascularization.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      19.6
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  • Question 72 - A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic complaining of purulent vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for two weeks. Upon examination of an endocervical swab sample, Gram-negative diplococci are observed, while other pathogen tests are negative. The patient has no allergies or comorbidities. Which antibiotic option is the most suitable?

      Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.2
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  • Question 74 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that has been bothering her for a day. She reports continuous tearing from the affected eye and experiences photophobia. Upon examination, fluorescein staining reveals a small, feathery area of abnormal uptake. However, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Topical chloramphenicol and review in 2 days

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a corneal abrasion or dendritic corneal ulcer, with photophobia being a key indicator. However, the feathery pattern observed is more indicative of herpes simplex keratitis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and caution should be exercised in prescribing topical steroids as they may exacerbate the infection.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.4
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  • Question 75 - A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female complains of persistent pain in her left knee. The pain usually occurs after running and is accompanied by occasional swelling and joint locking. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.3
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  • Question 76 - A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Conservative management

      Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      30.4
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  • Question 77 - Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years....

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years. She is not diabetic and there is no other significant medical history. She is currently taking amlodipine at the maximum recommended dose of 10mg.
      During her medication review at her GP surgery, her blood pressure remains elevated - it is averaging at 160/98 mmHg over several readings.
      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step according to NICE guidelines is to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this scenario, as the options do not include an ACE inhibitor, losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is the correct choice. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are included in step 4 of NICE guidelines only if diuretic therapy is contraindicated or ineffective, and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also part of step 4, so they are not the appropriate options for this patient.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      16.2
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  • Question 78 - A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently taking ramipril for his high blood pressure. What is the most appropriate medication to help manage his heart failure?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Comparing Beta Blockers for Heart Failure: Efficacy and Evidence

      Beta blockers are a class of medications commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Among them, bisoprolol and carvedilol have the strongest evidence of efficacy in reducing mortality rates in heart failure patients, according to data from the CIBIS and CASA-2 trials. Atenolol, although cardioselective, has less evidence to support its use in heart failure. Labetalol is primarily used for hypertension in pregnancy, while propranolol has the most evidence of benefit after a myocardial infarction but is not always preferred due to its twice-daily dosing. Sotalol, a first-generation beta blocker, is not cardioselective and is not recommended for heart failure. Overall, the choice of beta blocker for heart failure should be based on the available evidence and individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 62-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with elevated intraocular pressure and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the Ophthalmology Clinic with elevated intraocular pressure and peripheral vision loss. He also has a history of asthma. What is the most suitable course of treatment to begin in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Medications for Glaucoma: Uses and Contraindications

      Glaucoma is a condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. The primary goal of treatment is to lower intraocular pressure. Here are some common medications used for glaucoma and their uses and contraindications:

      1. Latanoprost: This prostaglandin analogue increases scleral permeability to aqueous fluid, reducing intraocular pressure. It is safe to use in asthmatics and is recommended as a first-line medication.

      2. Brinzolamide: This carbonic anhydrase inhibitor also lowers intraocular pressure but is not a first-line medication for glaucoma. It is safe to use in those with concurrent asthma.

      3. Pilocarpine: This muscarinic receptor agonist improves the flow rate of aqueous humour but is not a first-line medication. It is cautioned against use in asthmatics as it can increase bronchial secretions and airway resistance.

      4. Sodium cromoglicate: This mast-cell stabiliser is not usually used in glaucoma but is commonly used in conditions such as allergic rhinitis.

      5. Timolol: This beta-receptor antagonist is contraindicated in asthmatics as it can lead to increased airway resistance through bronchospasm.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best medication for individual cases of glaucoma, taking into consideration any contraindications or potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.3
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  • Question 80 - A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.

      Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes

      Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.

      When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      15.6
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  • Question 81 - A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
      What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) (eg amitriptyline)

      Correct Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.

      Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.

      In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      30.2
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  • Question 82 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough of green sputum. He has a history of COPD and is an active smoker. Upon examination, he is wheezy bilaterally and saturating at 94% on room air. A chest X-ray shows no signs of consolidation. The following blood tests were obtained:
      CRP 26 mg/L (< 5)
      Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 100 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most likely causative organism for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus infuenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae is the most frequent organism responsible for causing infective exacerbations of COPD, as evidenced by this man’s productive cough, increased shortness of breath, and wheezing.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 83 - A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the gastroenterology ward with persistent bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever. She has a history of Crohn's disease and is suspected to be experiencing an acute flare. Methotrexate is prescribed as part of her treatment. What potential side-effect should be monitored for?

      Your Answer: Pneumonitis

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate has the potential to cause pneumonitis, which is characterized by symptoms such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing. Failure to promptly identify and treat pneumonitis can result in permanent lung damage. Therefore, the British National Formulary advises patients to seek medical attention if they experience any of these symptoms, and physicians should monitor for signs of pneumonitis during each visit and discontinue the medication if it is suspected. It should be noted that acute respiratory distress syndrome is not a known side effect of methotrexate.

      Methotrexate: An Antimetabolite with Potentially Life-Threatening Side Effects

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite drug that inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, which is essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, psoriasis, and some types of leukemia. However, it is considered an important drug due to its potential for life-threatening side effects. Careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential to ensure patient safety.

      The adverse effects of methotrexate include mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis. The most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonitis, which typically develops within a year of starting treatment and presents with non-productive cough, dyspnea, malaise, and fever. Women should avoid pregnancy for at least 6 months after treatment has stopped, and men using methotrexate need to use effective contraception for at least 6 months after treatment.

      When prescribing methotrexate, it is important to follow guidelines and monitor patients regularly. Methotrexate is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. The starting dose is 7.5 mg weekly, and folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after the methotrexate dose. Only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed, usually 2.5 mg. It is also important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently, as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia, and high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity.

      In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Methotrexate is a drug with a high potential for patient harm, and it is crucial to be familiar with guidelines relating to its use to ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.1
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  • Question 84 - A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genital herpes

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21
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  • Question 85 - A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in his hearing ability over the past few months. His wife urged him to seek medical attention as she noticed he was having difficulty hearing conversations and needed to turn up the volume on the TV and radio. Upon examination, otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. The Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, and the Weber test is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age-related changes, tumors, infections, and genetic conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between some of the most common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbycusis: This is age-related hearing loss that affects high-frequency sounds and is irreversible. Management includes reassurance and discussion of hearing aid options.

      Acoustic Neuroma: This is a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve that can cause unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, as well as facial numbness and balance problems. Bilateral hearing loss without other symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Cholesteatoma: This condition is characterized by recurrent or persistent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Otoscopy may reveal a deep retraction pocket or pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic membrane. This patient has sensorineural rather than conductive hearing loss.

      Ménière’s Disease: This condition typically presents with fluctuating hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. This patient does not have all the symptoms to meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that typically occurs in early adulthood and may be accompanied by tinnitus and transient vertigo. Sensorineural hearing loss in an older patient makes this diagnosis unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      49.6
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  • Question 86 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
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  • Question 87 - A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Topical miconazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions

      Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.

      Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.

      Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.7
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  • Question 88 - A 70-year-old man presented to the clinic with proximal muscle weakness and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presented to the clinic with proximal muscle weakness and a cough lasting eight weeks. He also reported pain in the small joints of his hands and small haemorrhages in the nailfolds. On examination, there was no lymphadenopathy or clubbing, but bibasal crackles were heard. A chest radiograph revealed diffuse reticular infiltrates, and lung function tests showed a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely underlying cause of his interstitial lung disease?

      Your Answer: Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Polymyositis: A Comparison with Other Connective Tissue Diseases

      Polymyositis is a systemic connective tissue disease that causes inflammation of the striated muscle and skin in the case of dermatomyositis. Patients typically present with muscle weakness, pain in the small joints of the fingers, and dermatitis. The disease is associated with HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3, and underlying malignancy is present in at least 5-8% of cases. Here, we compare polymyositis with other connective tissue diseases to aid in differential diagnosis.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is another systemic inflammatory disease that affects mainly the joints, in particular, the proximal interphalangeal joints, in a symmetrical fashion. Pulmonary fibrosis is a known complication of RA, and muscular weakness is also a possible feature. However, in RA, joint-related symptoms are typically more prominent than muscle weakness, making polymyositis a more likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.

      Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, presents with diffuse reticular infiltrates on chest radiographs and a restrictive pattern on lung function tests. However, the history of proximal muscle weakness and pain in the small joints of the hands does not fit with this diagnosis and suggests polymyositis instead.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. While SLE would be in the differential diagnosis for polymyositis, the prominent proximal muscle weakness and the fact that the patient is a man (SLE affects women in 90% of cases) make polymyositis a more likely diagnosis.

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an inflammatory rheumatic disease that primarily affects the axial joints and entheses. AS can be associated with pulmonary fibrosis and produces a restrictive pattern on spirometry. However, the more prominent complaint of proximal muscle weakness and the involvement of the small joints of the hands make AS a less likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      29
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  • Question 89 - A 28-year-old female complains of an itchy vulva and painful intercourse. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female complains of an itchy vulva and painful intercourse. She reports experiencing a green, malodorous vaginal discharge for the last 14 days. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candida

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.9
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  • Question 90 - You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to an adult psychiatric ward.

      Upon asking him how he is feeling, his speech seems to be rapid and difficult to interrupt. It is challenging to follow his train of thought, although the content of each sentence appears to be loosely connected. He talks about having money, but says, I've got cash, dash for cash, dash of alcohol, thank you very much.

      It is suspected that he has a formal thought disorder.

      What is the best way to describe his presentation?

      Your Answer: Flight of ideas

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.

      Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.

      Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      27.7
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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old right-handed male gardener presents with elbow pain. He reports a gradual onset of pain in his left elbow over a period of four weeks with only mild relief from over-the-counter pain medication. The patient enjoys playing tennis and does yard work regularly. He does recall a fall at home four weeks ago where he landed on his right elbow. The patient denies any fever and feels generally well. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the left elbow with resisted wrist extension/supination and the elbow held in extension. There is no significant swelling over the olecranon. What is the most probable cause of this man's elbow pain?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is lateral epicondylitis, which is characterized by pain around the lateral epicondyle of the humerus that radiates to the forearm. The pain is exacerbated by repetitive movements with the dominant hand, which is common in the patient’s job as a cleaner. The pain is worsened by resisted wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. Medial epicondylitis, olecranon bursitis, radial head fractures, and septic arthritis are less likely differentials as they do not match the examination findings in this scenario.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      18.2
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  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.4
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  • Question 93 - A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of bilateral tinnitus. She denies any changes in her hearing or other ear-related symptoms. The PCP conducts ear and cranial nerve examinations, which reveal no abnormalities. The patient's medication list is reviewed.
      Which ONE medication from the following list is most likely responsible for the patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Quinine

      Explanation:

      Medication and Tinnitus: Understanding the Association

      Tinnitus, the perception of sounds in the ears or head without an external source, can be distressing and may indicate an underlying condition. While it is often considered a minor symptom, certain medications have been associated with tinnitus. Quinine, commonly used to treat malaria, is one such medication. Other medications that may cause tinnitus include aspirin, aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. However, medications like spironolactone, salbutamol, metformin, and nifedipine are not associated with tinnitus. It is important to understand the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if experiencing tinnitus or any other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.7
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  • Question 94 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of wrist pain and reduced grip strength for the past 3 weeks. She denies any history of trauma. During the examination, the patient experiences tenderness over the radial styloid and painful resisted abduction of the thumb.
      Which of the following examination findings would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of de Quervain's tenosynovitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Positive Finkelstein’s test

      Explanation:

      Common Orthopedic Tests and Their Relevance to De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that affects the first extensor compartment of the wrist, causing inflammation of the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons. Several orthopedic tests can help diagnose this condition, including Finkelstein’s test, Tinel’s sign, Froment’s sign, and Phalen’s test. However, the squeeze test is not relevant to the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis.

      Finkelstein’s test involves flexing the thumb across the palm of the hand and moving the wrist into flexion and ulnar deviation. This action stresses the affected tendons and reproduces pain in a positive test. Tinel’s sign is used to diagnose compressive neuropathy, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, by tapping the site of the nerve and causing paraesthesia in the distribution of the nerve in a positive test. Froment’s sign tests for ulnar nerve palsy by assessing the action of the adductor pollicis, while Phalen’s test diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome by flexing both wrists fully and pushing the dorsal surfaces of both hands together for 60 seconds.

      Understanding the relevance of these orthopedic tests can aid in the diagnosis of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.6
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  • Question 95 - A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?

      Your Answer: Patch test

      Explanation:

      Medical Testing Techniques

      Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.

      Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.

      Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.

      HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.

      Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.

      Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.

      Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      6.6
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  • Question 96 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.

      What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.

      Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

      Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.1
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  • Question 97 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness....

    Correct

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

    His...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).

      His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is well controlled with metformin 500mg BD and gliclazide 80 mg OD.

      The surgery is scheduled for the morning, but he is not placed on a variable rate insulin infusion (VRII).

      What adjustments should be made to his antidiabetic medication regimen on the day of surgery?

      Your Answer: Only the morning dose of metformin should be omitted

      Correct Answer: Only the morning dose of gliclazide should be omitted

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, it is recommended to omit the morning dose of gliclazide for patients taking sulfonylureas. However, if the patient takes BD, they can have the afternoon dose. Metformin should be taken as usual on the day before and on the day of elective surgery, except for lunchtime dose if taken three times a day.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and swelling in both hands. She has had several episodes of vasospasm in her fingers, with pallor, cyanosis and subsequent redness caused by reactive hyperaemia. Blood tests reveal anti-double-stranded (ds)DNA antibodies and antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sjögren syndrome

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Connective Tissue Diseases: Characteristics and Differences

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren syndrome, Behçet’s disease, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic sclerosis are all autoimmune connective tissue diseases with distinct characteristics. SLE is most prevalent in African-American women and presents with arthralgia, rashes, and fever. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by dry eyes and mouth, while Behçet’s disease is primarily characterised by recurrent mouth ulcers, genital ulceration, eye lesions, and cutaneous manifestations. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis predominantly affects the small vessels and presents with lesions involving the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys. Systemic sclerosis is a multisystem disease characterised by Raynaud’s phenomenon and either limited or diffuse cutaneous scleroderma. Understanding the differences between these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (7/8) 88%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (6/9) 67%
Neurology (7/7) 100%
ENT (4/6) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (3/5) 60%
Ophthalmology (6/8) 75%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (5/5) 100%
Psychiatry (5/5) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (4/6) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (3/5) 60%
Dermatology (2/5) 40%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/4) 75%
Musculoskeletal (8/9) 89%
Respiratory Medicine (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (4/6) 67%
Infectious Diseases (4/7) 57%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
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