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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 43-year-old man with a stoma in the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. It is sprouted and produces a liquid, light brown fluid.
What form of stoma is this likely to be?Your Answer: Colostomy
Correct Answer: Ileostomy
Explanation:Types of Stomas: Ileostomy, Colostomy, Enterocutaneous Fistula, Mucous Fistula, and Urostomy
Stomas are surgical openings created in the abdomen to allow for the elimination of waste products from the body. There are different types of stomas, each with its unique characteristics and functions.
An ileostomy is a stoma created from the small intestine. The stool from an ileostomy is looser and more acidic, making it more likely to cause skin damage. To prevent this, ileostomies are fashioned with a spout for better delivery of the stoma content into the stoma bag.
A colostomy, on the other hand, is a stoma created from the large intestine. Colostomies are generally flat and placed in the left iliac fossa, although this can vary.
An enterocutaneous fistula is an abnormal passage between the gastrointestinal tract and the skin. It is not a stoma.
A mucous fistula is a stoma that allows the collection of mucous associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Finally, a urostomy is formed as a result of bladder excision. Urostomies are created by anastomosis of the ureters and drainage into a segment of the small bowel, which has been resected and used to form an ileal conduit. This conduit delivers urine to the skin in the form of a spouted stoma. Urostomies can be differentiated from ileostomies by their output (urine vs. feces).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has been recommended for colonoscopy due to ongoing rectal bleeding and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. During a direct rectal examination, his GP detected a mass in the anal sphincter area. Unfortunately, further testing confirmed the presence of a mass in the distal part of his rectum. What would be the most suitable surgical procedure for this patient?
Your Answer: Abdominoperineal resection
Explanation:Surgical Options for Rectal Tumours
When a patient presents with a rectal tumour, there are several surgical options available depending on the location of the tumour. In the case of a tumour in the lower third of the rectum, near the anal margin, an abdominoperineal (AP) resection is the appropriate treatment. This involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and part of the descending colon, resulting in a permanent end-colostomy.
An anterior resection, on the other hand, is the removal of the rectum and can be either high or low depending on the tumour’s position. However, this procedure does not involve the removal of the anus and would not be suitable for a tumour near the anal margin.
In some cases, a Hartmann’s procedure may be performed as an emergency surgery, involving the removal of the sigmoid colon and upper rectum, and the formation of an end-colostomy. This procedure may be reversed at a later date with an anastomosis formed between the remaining bowel and lower rectum.
Finally, a right or left hemicolectomy may be performed, involving the removal of the right or left hemicolon, respectively. However, these procedures are not appropriate for rectal tumours near the anal margin.
In conclusion, the appropriate surgical option for a rectal tumour depends on the tumour’s location and the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been occurring for the past 5 days. The patient reports experiencing bright red bleeding during bowel movements, which appears as streaks on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl. The blood is not mixed in with the stool. This has been happening every time he has a bowel movement since the symptoms began. He does not feel any pain during these episodes, but he does experience some itching and irritation around the anal area afterwards. He is otherwise healthy, without changes in bowel habits or weight loss.
During a rectal examination, the doctor observes a fleshy protrusion at the 7 o'clock position that appears when the patient strains but recedes into the anus when he stops straining.
Which of the following management options would be appropriate in this case?Your Answer: Injection sclerotherapy
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids and Treatment Options
Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal that can cause discomfort and pain. They are more common with advancing age and can be associated with pregnancy, constipation, increased intra-abdominal pressure, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Haemorrhoids can be classified by the degree of prolapse through the anus, with grade 1 being the mildest and grade 4 being the most severe.
Patients with haemorrhoids may present with painless rectal bleeding, anal itching and irritation, rectal fullness or discomfort, and soiling. Pain is not a significant feature unless the haemorrhoid becomes strangulated or thrombosed. It is important to exclude ‘red flag’ symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40.
Conservative treatment options for haemorrhoids include lifestyle changes such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If conservative treatment fails, secondary care treatment options include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, and haemorrhoid artery ligation. Referral to specialists or admission may be necessary for acutely thrombosed haemorrhoids or perianal haematoma, associated perianal sepsis, large grade 3 or 4 haemorrhoids, and persistent or worsening symptoms despite conservative management.
Other treatment options such as mebendazole, topical lidocaine ointment, incision and drainage, and sphincterotomy are not indicated for haemorrhoids. Mebendazole is used to treat threadworms, while topical lidocaine ointment is useful for anal fissures. Incision and drainage are indicated for perianal abscesses, and sphincterotomy is used to manage chronic or recurrent anal fissures.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for haemorrhoids is essential for effective management and improved quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is undergoing open surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia. In theatre, the hernial sac is noted to lie medial to the inferior epigastric artery.
To weakness of which of the following structures can the hernia best be attributed?Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Conjoint tendon
Explanation:Types of Abdominal Hernias and Their Characteristics
Abdominal hernias occur when an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak point in the abdominal wall. There are different types of abdominal hernias, each with its own characteristics and symptoms.
Direct Inguinal Hernia
A direct inguinal hernia occurs medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac is pushed directly through a weak point in the conjoint tendon, which is formed by the aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles. This type of hernia is more common in men and worsens with exercise, coughing, or straining.
Aponeurosis of External Oblique
In a direct inguinal hernia, the bowel sac does not push through the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle.
Muscular Fibres of Internal Oblique
A ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the anterior abdominal muscles, such as the internal oblique. It can be incisional or occur at any site of muscle weakening. Epigastric hernias occur above the umbilicus, and hypogastric hernias occur below the umbilicus.
Muscular Fibres of Transversus Abdominis
Another type of ventral hernia occurs through the muscular fibres of the transversus abdominis. It becomes more prominent when the patient is sitting, leaning forward, or straining. Ventral hernias can be congenital, post-operative, or spontaneous.
Superficial Inguinal Ring
An indirect inguinal hernia is the most common type of abdominal hernia. It occurs in men and children and arises lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. The bowel sac protrudes through the deep inguinal ring into the inguinal canal and then through the superficial inguinal ring, extending into the scrotum. It may be asymptomatic but can also undergo incarceration or strangulation or lead to bowel obstruction.
Understanding the Different Types of Abdominal Hernias
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 6-month history of rectal bleeding, altered bowel habit and weight loss. Given his strong family history of colorectal cancer, the physician wants to investigate and rule out this diagnosis.
What would be the most suitable investigation to perform in a patient with suspected colorectal cancer?Your Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tools for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent malignancy in the western world, with symptoms varying depending on the location of the cancer within the intestinal tract. Colonoscopy is currently the preferred diagnostic tool for young, otherwise healthy patients. Management decisions are made after multidisciplinary team discussions, with surgical removal of the tumor being a common approach. Preoperative radiotherapy may be used to shrink tumors, and post-operative adjuvant chemotherapy can improve survival rates. Other diagnostic tools include endorectal ultrasound for staging rectal cancers, pelvic MRI for detailed staging and operative planning, and CT colonography as a sensitive diagnostic test when colonoscopy is high risk or incomplete. However, CT colonography cannot take biopsies or remove polyps. While raised CEA levels may indicate colorectal cancer, they can also be elevated for other reasons, and normal levels do not rule out the possibility of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe pain during bowel movements and passing fresh red blood while opening her bowels for the past 2 weeks. She is experiencing slight constipation but is otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history.
What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?Your Answer: Prescribe GTN cream and laxatives
Explanation:Management of Anal Fissure: Laxatives and GTN Cream
An anal fissure is often the cause of pain during defecation and fresh red blood per rectum. To diagnose the fissure, a full blood count and digital examination per rectum may be necessary. However, initial management should involve a combination of laxatives to soften the stool and glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) cream. Drinking plenty of fluids is also advised. These measures are effective in 80% of cases. Surgery may be considered if medical management fails. Colonoscopy is not necessary in this scenario. Co-codamol is not recommended as it may worsen constipation and aggravate the fissure. While dietary advice is helpful, prescribing laxatives and GTN cream is the best course of action for healing the fissure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is incidentally found to have an adenomatous polyp measuring 12 mm, following a colonoscopy for a 3-month history of change in bowel habit. No other bowel pathology is found. The polyp is removed completely during the procedure.
When will this patient be offered a further colonoscopy for surveillance of the bowel?Your Answer: At three years
Explanation:Colorectal Adenomas: Risk Classification and Surveillance Recommendations
Patients diagnosed with colorectal adenomas are assessed for their risk of developing colorectal cancer and are managed accordingly. The risk classification is based on the number and size of adenomas found at colonoscopy.
Low-risk patients, with one or two adenomas smaller than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at five years. Intermediate-risk patients, with three or four adenomas smaller than 10mm or one or two adenomas with one larger than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at three years. High-risk patients, with five or more adenomas smaller than 10mm or three or more adenomas with one larger than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at one year.
If a patient is found to have one adenomatous polyp of the bowel measuring >10mm, they are defined as having an intermediate risk for developing colorectal cancer and will require a repeat test at three years. A repeat test at one year is reserved for patients at high risk for developing cancer.
Patients with an intermediate risk for developing colorectal cancer, like the patient in this scenario, will require a retest at three years, not two. Patients with a low risk for developing colorectal cancer, with one or two adenomas smaller than 10mm, should have a colonoscopy at five years.
It is important to note that any patient who is found to have an adenoma at colonoscopy will be offered repeat surveillance, regardless of whether the initial polyp was completely removed. The time for the next colonoscopy will depend on the number and size of adenomas found at the initial colonoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Correct
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At an outpatient clinic, you see a 30-year-old patient referred by a gastroenterologist for a colectomy. The referral letter mentions that the patient has been screened for a genetic abnormality and that a mutation was found in a gene on chromosome 5q21.
What is the most likely underlying condition?Your Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Explanation:Inherited Conditions Predisposing to Colorectal Carcinoma
There are several inherited conditions that increase an individual’s risk of developing colorectal carcinoma. These conditions can be divided into two groups: polyposis syndromes and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer.
The polyposis syndromes can be further divided into adenomatous polyposis and hamartomatous polyposis. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common and important of the polyposis syndromes. It is an autosomal dominant condition caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is associated with the development of over 100 polyps in the large bowel by the mid-teens. Patients with FAP typically undergo prophylactic colectomy before the age of 30.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is one of the hamartomatous polyposis conditions and is characterized by the presence of pigmented lesions on the lips. Patients with this syndrome are predisposed to cancers of the small and large bowel, testis, stomach, pancreas, and breast.
Familial juvenile polyposis is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that occurs in children and teenagers.
Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer is the most common inherited condition leading to colorectal cancer. It is caused by defects in mismatch repair genes and carries a 70% lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer.
Cowden’s disease is another hamartomatous polyposis condition that causes macrocephaly, hamartomatous polypoid disease, and benign skin tumors.
In summary, understanding these inherited conditions and their associated risks can aid in early detection and prevention of colorectal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is experiencing constipation and undergoes diagnostic imaging, which reveals a sigmoid volvulus. What are the most likely direct branches of the arteries that supply blood to this part of the colon?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Arteries Involved in Sigmoid Colon Volvulus
Sigmoid colon volvulus is a condition where a part of the colon twists and rotates, causing obstruction and ischemia. The following arteries are involved in this condition:
1. Inferior mesenteric artery: The sigmoid colon is directly supplied by the sigmoid arteries, which branch directly from the inferior mesenteric artery.
2. Ileocolic artery: The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery and supplies the ileum, caecum, and ascending colon.
3. Left common iliac artery: The left common iliac artery branches into the left external and internal iliac arteries, which supply the lower limbs and pelvis, including the rectum.
4. Superior mesenteric artery: The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta and supplies the caecum, ascending colon, and transverse colon. However, the sigmoid colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.
While the inferior mesenteric artery is the most specific artery involved in sigmoid colon volvulus, understanding the other arteries can also aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his doctor, reporting rectal bleeding and a significant family history of colon cancer. The doctor refers him to a colorectal surgeon who orders a colonoscopy. The results show a cancerous tumor in the sigmoid colon after a biopsy and pathological analysis. What is the colon's venous drainage, and where is colonic cancer likely to spread?
Your Answer: Left colic vein to the superior mesenteric vein
Correct Answer: Sigmoid veins to the inferior mesenteric veins
Explanation:Venous Drainage of the Intestines
The intestines are drained by a complex network of veins that ultimately lead to the hepatic portal vein. The sigmoid veins drain into the inferior mesenteric veins, while the superior rectal veins drain into the same. The left colic vein drains into the inferior mesenteric vein, while the middle colic vein drains into the superior mesenteric vein. Finally, the jejunal and ileal veins drain into the middle colic vein. This intricate system of venous drainage is essential for the proper functioning of the digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old bus driver is referred by his general practitioner with a change in bowel habit and bleeding per rectum. He reports no further symptoms, and an abdominal and digital rectal examination are unremarkable. However, colonoscopy shows a high rectal tumour, encompassing approximately two-thirds of the diameter of the colon. He is booked to have an operation.
Which of the following is he most likely to be listed for?Your Answer: Sigmoid colectomy
Correct Answer: Anterior resection
Explanation:Types of Colorectal Resection Surgeries
Colorectal resection surgeries are performed to remove cancerous or non-cancerous tumors in the colon or rectum. Here are the different types of colorectal resection surgeries:
1. Anterior Resection: This surgery is recommended for non-obstructed tumors in the distal sigmoid colon, middle or upper rectum.
2. abdominoperineal Resection: This surgery is used for operable low rectal and anorectal tumors. It involves the removal of the anus, rectum, and sigmoid colon, and the formation of an end-colostomy.
3. Sigmoid Colectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the sigmoid colon.
4. Left Hemicolectomy: This surgery is used for operable tumors in the descending colon.
5. Pan-colectomy: This surgery involves the removal of the entire colon and is typically performed in cases of ulcerative colitis. It requires the formation of a permanent ileostomy or the construction of an ileal-anal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who recently gave birth presents to the general practitioner with symptoms of rectal bleeding for the past two weeks. She has noticed fresh red blood on the toilet paper after passing a bowel motion, associated with some discomfort and itching around the anus. She has noticed bulging around the anus also. She is otherwise well, without changes in bowel habit or recent weight loss. She is very worried that she may have bowel cancer, as her grandfather was diagnosed with colorectal cancer after episodes of rectal bleeding when he was 81.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Haemorrhoids: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Haemorrhoids, also known as piles, are a common condition characterized by abnormally swollen vascular mucosal cushions within the anal canal. This condition is more prevalent in pregnant women, those who have recently given birth, and individuals with risk factors such as constipation, low-fibre diet, and obesity. Symptoms may include pain, rectal/anal itching, and fresh rectal bleeding after a bowel movement.
In patients presenting with haemorrhoids, it is crucial to exclude red flag symptoms such as change in bowel habit, weight loss, iron deficiency anaemia, or unexplained abdominal pain, especially in patients over 40. If any of these symptoms are suspected, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered.
Management of haemorrhoids may involve lifestyle advice such as increasing fluid and fibre intake, managing constipation, anal hygiene advice, and simple analgesia. If the patient does not respond to conservative treatment, they may be referred for secondary care treatment, which may include rubber band ligation, injection sclerotherapy, photocoagulation, diathermy, haemorrhoidectomy, or haemorrhoid artery ligation.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include anal fissure, colorectal carcinoma, fistula-in-ano, and sentinel pile. However, a thorough history and examination can help differentiate these conditions from haemorrhoids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with weight loss and blood in his stool. During rectal examination, a suspicious lesion is found below the pectinate line, raising concern for malignancy. You proceed to palpate for lymphadenopathy.
Where might you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric
Correct Answer: Inguinal
Explanation:Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region
The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. Understanding the different lymph nodes and their drainage patterns can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.
Inguinal lymph nodes are responsible for draining the anal canal below the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes. The external iliac nodes are responsible for draining the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder. On the other hand, the internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the anal canal above the pectinate line.
The superior mesenteric nodes are responsible for draining parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum. Lastly, the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.
In conclusion, understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is crucial in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 59-year-old librarian has been experiencing more frequent episodes of intermittent abdominal discomfort and bloating. She also reports having episodes of diarrhea with mucous in her stool, but no blood. The pain tends to worsen after meals and improve after having a bowel movement. Despite her symptoms, she has not experienced any weight loss and maintains a healthy appetite. She has undergone surgery for osteoarthritis in her hip, but has no other significant medical history.
Upon investigation, the patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease. What is the most likely complication this patient may develop?Your Answer: Colovesical fistulae
Explanation:Complications and Associations of Diverticular Disease
Diverticular disease is a condition that can lead to various complications. One of the most common complications is the formation of fistulae, which are abnormal connections between different organs. The most frequent type of fistula associated with diverticular disease is the colovesical fistula, which connects the colon and the bladder. Other types of fistulae include colovaginal, colouterine, and coloenteric. Colocutaneous fistulae, which connect the colon and the skin, are less common.
Diverticular disease does not increase the risk of developing colorectal carcinoma, a type of cancer that affects the bowel. However, it can cause other symptoms such as haemorrhoids, which are not directly related to the condition. Anal fissure, another medical condition that affects the anus, is not associated with diverticular disease either. Instead, it is linked to other conditions such as HIV, tuberculosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and syphilis.
In summary, diverticular disease can lead to various complications and associations, but it is not a pre-malignant condition and does not directly cause haemorrhoids or anal fissure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 21-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with intermittent watery diarrhoea and lower colicky abdominal pain. He has experienced these symptoms for two years and during this time has lost over a stone in weight. Recently he has noticed a strange red rash on his shins. Past medical history includes a diagnosis of a fissure-in-ano three years ago.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:Diagnosis of Crohn’s Disease: Clinical Picture and Differential Diagnosis
The clinical presentation of a patient with weight loss and a red rash on the shins suggests a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. This condition typically affects individuals between the ages of 15-30 and is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.
A history of fissure-in-ano further supports the possibility of Crohn’s disease, as this condition is commonly associated with perianal disease. To confirm the diagnosis, a full blood count and colonoscopy with biopsy are necessary. Crohn’s disease is transmural and can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, leading to the formation of skip lesions between inflamed and unaffected bowel.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include infective colitis, ulcerative colitis, irritable bowel syndrome, and appendicitis. However, infective colitis typically has a shorter duration of symptoms, while ulcerative colitis presents with bloody diarrhea and mucous discharge. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and a 2-year history effectively rules out appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old diabetic arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain started suddenly and he has been experiencing bloody diarrhoea for the past six hours. Despite his discomfort, his physical examination does not reveal any significant findings. The patient has a notable medical history, having previously suffered a myocardial infarction that necessitated the placement of a pacemaker.
What test is most likely to confirm a diagnosis of mesenteric ischemia?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
Correct Answer: Abdominal computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Mesenteric Ischaemia
Mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is a lack of blood flow to the intestines, which can lead to serious complications. There are several diagnostic imaging techniques that can be used to identify mesenteric ischaemia, including abdominal computed tomography (CT), abdominal ultrasound, abdominal X-ray, colonoscopy, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA).
Abdominal CT is often the first-line investigation used to rule out other causes and can identify signs of mesenteric ischaemia, such as gas in the intestinal wall and portal vein. Abdominal ultrasound is not useful in assessing bowel lesions but may indicate perforation and free fluid in the abdomen. Abdominal X-ray findings are non-specific and may not be helpful in narrowing down the differential. Colonoscopy can be helpful in looking at mucosal lesions of the bowel but carries a risk of perforation. MRA can be useful in assessing vascular pathology but is not recommended for patients with pacemakers.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic imaging techniques may be necessary to accurately diagnose mesenteric ischaemia and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A junior resident performing his first appendectomy was unable to locate the base of the appendix due to extensive adhesions in the peritoneal cavity. The senior physician recommended identifying the caecum first and then locating the base of the appendix.
What anatomical feature(s) on the caecum would have been utilized to locate the base of the appendix?Your Answer: Ileal orifice
Correct Answer: Teniae coli
Explanation:Anatomy of the Large Intestine: Differentiating Taeniae Coli, Ileal Orifice, Omental Appendages, Haustra Coli, and Semilunar Folds
The large intestine is a vital part of the digestive system, responsible for absorbing water and electrolytes from undigested food. It is composed of several distinct structures, each with its own unique function. Here, we will differentiate five of these structures: taeniae coli, ileal orifice, omental appendages, haustra coli, and semilunar folds.
Taeniae Coli
The taeniae coli are three bands of longitudinal muscle on the surface of the large intestine. They are responsible for the characteristic haustral folds of the large intestine and meet at the appendix.Ileal Orifice
The ileal orifice is the opening where the ileum connects to the caecum. It is surrounded by the ileocaecal valve and is not useful in locating the appendix.Omental Appendages
The omental appendages, also known as appendices epiploicae, are fatty appendages unique to the large intestine. They are found all over the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Haustra Coli
The haustra are multiple pouches in the wall of the large intestine, formed where the longitudinal muscle layer of the wall is deficient. They are not useful in locating the appendix.Semilunar Folds
The semilunar folds are the folds found along the lining of the large intestine and are not specifically associated with the appendix.Understanding the anatomy of the large intestine and its various structures is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By differentiating these structures, healthcare professionals can better identify and address issues related to the large intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old, asymptomatic man presents to you with a family history of colorectal cancer. His father passed away from the disease at the age of 35, and the patient is worried about his own risk. He has no knowledge of any other cancer in his family.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Arrange colonoscopy
Explanation:Importance of Colonoscopy in Patients with Familial Adenomatous Polyposis
Explanation:
It is crucial to consider familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) in patients with a family history of colorectal cancer at a young age. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene, leading to the development of numerous polyps in the colon. If left untreated, patients with FAP develop colorectal cancer by the age of 35-40.In this scenario, the patient’s father likely had FAP, and the patient has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutation and developing the disease. Therefore, regardless of the patient’s symptoms or blood results, a colonoscopy is necessary to review the colon and identify any polyps. Treatment for FAP involves a total colectomy at around the age of 20.
Reassurance would be inappropriate in this scenario, and a digital rectal examination alone is not sufficient. It is essential to arrange a colonoscopy for patients with a family history of FAP to detect and treat the condition early. Additionally, it is recommended to review the patient with a view to colonoscopy at the age of 30 to monitor for any polyp development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 78-year-old man comes to the General Practice after noticing blood in the toilet bowl following a bowel movement. He reports no other symptoms. During a digital rectal examination, you observe fresh blood in the rectum and feel a regular, circular mass in the midline through the anterior rectal wall.
What is the probable object being detected in the anterior rectum?Your Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Anatomy of the Pelvic Region: Palpable Structures on Digital Rectal Examination
During a digital rectal examination, several structures in the pelvic region can be palpated. The following are some of the structures that can be identified and their characteristics:
Prostate: The prostate is a regular, round mass located in the midline that can be felt through the anterior rectal tissue. It is unlikely to be the cause of blood per rectum, as prostate cancer invading rectal tissue is rare.
Rectal Tumour: An irregular and firm mass felt on digital rectal examination is more likely to be a rectal tumour, which is an important cause of bleeding per rectum. However, the description and location of the mass make it much more likely to be the prostate.
Urinary Bladder: The urinary bladder is located superior to the prostate and is usually beyond the reach of a digital rectal examination.
Sigmoid Colon: The sigmoid colon, which is the length of bowel found proximal to the rectum, cannot be palpated on digital rectal examination.
Pubic Symphysis: The pubic symphysis, located anterior to the bladder and prostate, is not palpable via the rectum.
Understanding the palpable structures on digital rectal examination is important for diagnosing and treating conditions in the pelvic region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and diarrhoea. On examination, he appears uncomfortable, with a heart rate of 105 bpm, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, oxygen saturations on room air of 95%, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a temperature of 37.4 °C. His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are unremarkable, except for a previous median sternotomy scar. Abdominal examination reveals tenderness throughout the abdomen, which is significantly worse on the left with guarding. Urgent blood tests are taken, and chest and abdominal X-rays are performed. The chest X-ray is normal, except for an increased cardiothoracic ratio, but the abdominal X-ray shows thumbprinting in the left colon but an otherwise normal gas pattern.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain: A Guide
When a patient presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, it is important to consider the underlying cause in order to provide prompt and appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to consider when differentiating between potential causes:
Ischaemic colitis: This can occur as a result of atherosclerosis in the mesenteric arteries, leading to tissue death and subsequent inflammation. It is a surgical emergency that requires urgent investigation and treatment.
Angiodysplasia: This is a small vascular malformation that typically presents with melaena, unexplained PR bleeding, or anaemia. It is unlikely to cause an acute abdomen.
Infectious colitis: While infectious colitis can cause abdominal pain and diarrhoea, it typically does not come on as rapidly as other causes. Clostridium difficile colitis is a subtype that can be particularly severe and difficult to manage.
Ulcerative colitis: This is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that usually presents with abdominal pain, bloody diarrhoea, and other symptoms. It is unlikely to be a first presentation in a 69-year-old patient.
Diverticulitis: This is a common cause of left-sided abdominal pain, especially in older patients. It occurs when diverticula become infected or inflamed, but can be treated with antibiotics. Complications such as perforation or PR bleeding may require urgent intervention.
By considering these potential causes and their associated symptoms, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 21
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A 30-year-old receptionist presents to her General Practice (GP) with a 3-week history of painless rectal bleeding. She reports seeing blood on the toilet paper and in the toilet bowl after defecation. The blood is not mixed with the stool, and there is no associated weight loss or change in bowel habit. She gave birth to twin boys after an uncomplicated pregnancy and normal vaginal delivery. She has no past medical or family history of note.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Understanding Haemorrhoids: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can affect individuals of all ages, but pregnancy is a known risk factor. Contrary to previous beliefs, haemorrhoids are not simply varicose veins, but rather enlarged vascular cushions with a complex anatomy. The main function of these cushions is to help maintain continence, but when they become enlarged or prolapsed, they can cause a range of symptoms.
The most common symptom of haemorrhoids is rectal bleeding, which may be visible on toilet paper or in the toilet bowl. Other symptoms may include mucous discharge, pruritus, and soiling episodes due to incomplete closure of the anal sphincter. However, pain is not a typical feature of first-degree haemorrhoids, unless they become thrombosed.
To confirm the diagnosis of haemorrhoids, a thorough examination is necessary, including an abdominal assessment and proctoscopy. It is important to rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as fissure-in-ano, perianal haematoma, anorectal abscess, or colorectal carcinoma (especially in older patients).
Overall, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of haemorrhoids can help healthcare providers provide appropriate management and improve patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 22
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A woman has previously had a total colectomy. Three years ago, she had an end ileostomy for ulcerative colitis (UC). She presents to the Emergency Department with a tender stoma which has not had any output for 2 days. On examination, there is a positive cough impulse and a detectable tender lump lateral to the ileostomy.
What is the most likely stoma complication that has occurred?Your Answer: Parastomal herniation
Explanation:Differentiating Parastomal Herniation from Other Stoma Complications
When a patient presents with a cough impulse and lump at the site of their stoma, along with a lack of stoma output, it is likely that they are experiencing a parastomal hernia. This type of hernia requires emergency repair if it is irreducible. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease is more likely to affect stomas than ulcerative colitis, as UC primarily affects the colon.
If a patient is experiencing an IBD recurrence at the site of their stoma, they would have increased stoma output, which is not the case in this scenario. Ischaemia of the stoma is more likely to occur in the immediate post-operative phase and would present as a dusky, ischaemic stoma. A stoma prolapse would not cause a positive cough impulse, and stoma retraction would present with persistent leakage and peristomal irritant dermatitis.
Therefore, it is important to differentiate between these various stoma complications to provide appropriate and timely treatment for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?
Your Answer: It has anterior layers that descend from the lesser curvature of the stomach
Correct Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac
Explanation:The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance
The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.
Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.
Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.
In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. His medical history shows that he has had previous abdominal surgery. During the examination, you notice that his abdomen is distended, and upon auscultation, you hear 'tinkling' bowel sounds. An abdominal radiograph reveals multiple loops of dilated bowel centrally, with valvulae conniventes present. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Hernia
Correct Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:Causes of Bowel Obstruction: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Bowel obstruction is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In young patients, adhesions secondary to previous surgery are the most common cause of bowel obstruction, particularly in the small intestine. The four classical features of bowel obstruction are abdominal pain, vomiting, abdominal distension, and absolute constipation. It is important to differentiate between small bowel and large bowel obstruction, with age being a helpful factor in determining the latter.
While colorectal carcinoma is a significant cause of large bowel obstruction, it only accounts for about 5% of cases in the UK. Hernias are the second most common cause of small bowel obstruction, but adhesions are more likely in patients with a history of abdominal surgery. Crohn’s disease typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, while diverticulitis is more common in older patients and is unlikely to cause the symptoms described.
In conclusion, understanding the various causes of bowel obstruction and their associated symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old student presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of passing bright red blood during bowel movements. The patient experiences severe pain each time they open their bowels, which has been ongoing for the past two weeks. The patient is now very anxious and avoids opening their bowels whenever possible, but this seems to worsen the pain symptoms. Rectal examination is not possible due to the patient's inability to tolerate the procedure because of pain.
What is the recommended treatment for the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitroglycerin ointment
Explanation:Anal Fissure: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
An anal fissure is a common condition that can occur at any age, but is most common in individuals aged 15-40. It can be primary, without underlying cause, or secondary, associated with conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease or constipation. Symptoms include severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, bleeding, and itching.
Treatment options include managing pain with simple analgesia and topical anesthetics, regular sitz baths, increasing dietary fiber and fluid intake, and stool softeners. Topical glyceryl trinitrate ointment may also be used to promote relaxation of the anal sphincter and aid healing. If the fissure remains unhealed after 6-8 weeks, surgical management options such as local Botox injection or sphincterotomy may be considered.
Antibiotic therapy does not have a role in the management of anal fissures, and band ligation is a secondary care option for the treatment of hemorrhoids, not anal fissures. Incision and drainage would only be indicated if the patient presented with a perianal abscess. Simple analgesia can be offered to manage pain symptoms, but opioid-containing preparations should be avoided to prevent further constipation and worsening of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to the Surgical Unit with a painful, distended abdomen. The pain started 4 days ago and was initially colicky in nature but is now continuous. She has vomited several times and only emptied her bowels once in the last 3 days, which is unusual for her. She had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy 3 weeks ago, from which she made a rapid recovery. There is no past medical history of note. On examination, she appears unwell. The abdomen is tender and mildly distended. Bowel sounds are reduced. Observations: pulse rate 119 bpm, blood pressure 130/90 mmHg, temperature 38.7 °C.
What is the single most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preoperative preparation and consideration for surgery
Explanation:Preoperative Preparation and Consideration for Bowel Obstruction Surgery
When a patient presents with colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, recent abdominal surgery, a distended abdomen, and reduced bowel sounds, the most likely diagnosis is bowel obstruction. If the patient appears unwell, as in the case of tachycardia and fever, urgent investigation and/or intervention is necessary.
While an urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis would be ideal, the patient in this scenario requires immediate surgery. Keeping the patient nil by mouth and providing intravenous fluids are important, but they do not treat or investigate the underlying cause. Placing a nasogastric tube can help relieve symptoms and reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not enough on its own.
In summary, preoperative preparation and consideration for bowel obstruction surgery involve urgent investigation and/or intervention, keeping the patient nil by mouth, providing intravenous fluids, and potentially placing a nasogastric tube. Conservative management is not suitable for an unwell patient with bowel obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with gradually worsening anaemia was discovered to have positive faecal occult blood. Upon further questioning, he disclosed that his bowel movements have altered in the past few months. During physical examination, he appeared pale and breathless, but otherwise his examination was normal. Laboratory tests indicated that he had anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
What would be the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis in this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for Iron Deficiency Anaemia in a Man
Iron deficiency anaemia in a man is often caused by chronic blood loss from the gastrointestinal tract. In this case, the patient’s altered bowel habits and lack of other symptoms suggest a colonic pathology, most likely a cancer. Therefore, a colonoscopy is the best investigation to identify the source of the bleeding.
A barium swallow is not appropriate in this case as it only examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. Abdominal angiography is an invasive and expensive test that is typically reserved for patients with massive blood loss or mesenteric ischaemia. While abdominal radiographs are useful, a colonoscopy is a more appropriate investigation in this case.
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unlikely to reveal the cause of the patient’s symptoms as it primarily examines the upper gastrointestinal tract. However, it may be useful in cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeds causing melaena.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gradual onset of constant abdominal pain in the left iliac fossa. Upon examination, local peritonitis is observed. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count. He has no prior history of abdominal disease, but he does have a history of atrial fibrillation. Pain worsens after eating and is alleviated by defecation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Localised Peritonitis and Left Iliac Fossa Pain
Diverticular Disease:
Diverticular disease is a common cause of localised peritonitis and left iliac fossa pain, especially in the elderly. It occurs due to the herniation of the intestinal mucosa through the muscle, forming an outpouching. Patients with diverticulitis present with slow-onset, constant pain, usually in the left iliac fossa, exacerbated by eating and relieved by defecation. Acute diverticulitis can cause severe sepsis by rupture of a diverticulum and abscess formation or obstruction of the bowel. Diverticular disease can also cause bleeding per rectum. Conservative management includes increasing fluid intake, fibre in the diet, bulk-forming laxatives, and paracetamol to ease the pain.Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm:
A ruptured aortic aneurysm presents with central abdominal pain, a pulsatile abdominal mass, and shock due to the volume of blood loss. It is associated with 100% mortality if not treated promptly.Splenic Infarct:
A splenic infarct presents with acute pain in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, referred to the shoulder, and is more commonly seen in patients with haematological conditions such as sickle-cell disease.Ureteric Colic:
Ureteric colic presents with characteristic loin-to-groin pain that has an intermittent colicky nature, with acute exacerbations. It can present in either iliac fossa, but it would not cause localised peritonitis.Acute Small Bowel Ischaemia:
Acute small bowel ischaemia presents with an acute central or right-sided abdominal pain that is increasingly worsening, has no localising signs, and presents as generalised abdominal tenderness or distension. The patient is very unwell, with varying symptoms, including vomiting, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, sepsis, and confusion. A highly raised serum/blood gas lactate level that does not drop following initial resuscitation attempts is a clue. It requires prompt treatment due to its high mortality risk. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with diffuse abdominal pain and one episode of dark rectal bleeding. He is noticed to be in fast atrial fibrillation. He is an ex-smoker and drinks three pints of beer per week. On examination, he is not peritonitic, but his pain is generalised and only temporarily alleviated by opioid analgesia. His bloods show: white blood count 14 (4.5 to 11.0 × 109/l), c-reactive protein 23 (normal: Less than 10 mg/L) and arterial lactate 4.8 (normal 1 ± 0.5 mmol/l4). Abdominal and chest X-rays are unremarkable.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bowel ischaemia
Explanation:When a patient presents with consistent abdominal pain, bowel ischaemia should be considered as a possible cause. This is especially true for elderly patients who experience crampy abdominal pain followed by dark rectal bleeding. Bowel ischaemia occurs when the bowel mucosa becomes necrotic due to a lack of blood flow. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of mesenteric artery embolisation, which can lead to bowel ischaemia. A raised lactate level is also indicative of bowel ischaemia. Haemorrhoids, on the other hand, would not cause an acute abdomen and typically present as bright red blood on wiping stool. Ulcerative colitis is more common in younger patients and is characterised by episodes of bloody diarrhoea. It is not associated with smoking and acute exacerbations are characterised by many episodes of diarrhoea, some of which may be bloody, and fever. Bowel volvulus, which is twisting of the bowel leading to obstruction, would cause abdominal distension, pain, constipation, and bloody stool. However, this patient’s normal appearance on plain film X-rays makes bowel obstruction or volvulus unlikely. Diverticulitis, which is inflammation of outpouchings of the large bowel, usually presents with gradual onset of left iliac fossa pain, loose stools, and fever. It is associated with more episodes of loose stools and fever and can progress to shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are asked to see an elderly patient who has not opened their bowels for several days. Their abdomen is distended, and they describe cramping abdominal pain that comes and goes. A supine abdominal X-ray is performed to identify features of bowel obstruction and suggest the location of the obstruction.
Which of the following is more characteristic of the large bowel, rather than the small bowel, on an abdominal X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haustral folds
Explanation:Characteristics of Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
The human digestive system is composed of various organs that work together to break down food and absorb nutrients. Two important parts of this system are the small and large bowel. Here are some characteristics that differentiate these two structures:
Haustral Folds and Valvulae Conniventes
Haustral folds are thick, widely separated folds that are characteristic of the large bowel. In contrast, valvulae conniventes are thin mucosal folds that pass across the full width of the small bowel.Location
The small bowel is located towards the center of the abdomen, while the large bowel is more peripheral and frames the small bowel.Diameter
The normal maximum diameter of the small bowel is 3 cm, while the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm. The caecum, a part of the large bowel, can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Air-Fluid Levels in Obstruction
The appearance of air-fluid levels is characteristic of small bowel obstruction.Remembering the 3/6/9 Rule
To help remember the normal diameters of the small and large bowel, use the 3/6/9 rule: the small bowel has a diameter of 3 cm, the large bowel can have a diameter of up to 6 cm, and the caecum can have a diameter of up to 9 cm.Understanding the Differences Between Small and Large Bowel Anatomy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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