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  • Question 1 - A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
      Select from the options below the one condition that is currently a reportable illness.

      Your Answer: Erysipelas

      Correct Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations currently require the reporting of certain diseases. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man has experienced a stroke affecting the blood vessels in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced a stroke affecting the blood vessels in his brain. Testing of his visual field reveals that he has a quadrantanopia in the lower left side of his vision.
      Where in the visual pathway has this injury occurred?

      Your Answer: Upper optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia occur when there are lesions in the optic radiation. The optic tract passes through the posterolateral angle of the optic chiasm, running alongside the cerebral peduncle and inside the uncus of the temporal lobe. Eventually, it reaches the lateral geniculate body (LGN) in the thalamus. Acting as a relay center, the LGN sends axons through the optic radiation to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe. The upper optic radiation carries fibers from the superior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the lower half of the visual field) and travels through the parietal lobe. On the other hand, the lower optic radiation carries fibers from the inferior retinal quadrants (which corresponds to the upper half of the visual field) and travels through the temporal lobe. Consequently, lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopia, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause inferior homonymous quadrantanopia. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects resulting from lesions at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of heavy smoking and a confirmed diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of heavy smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of tests, the medical team suspects an embolus as the likely cause.
      Which of the following investigations would be the LEAST useful in determining the origin of the embolus?

      Your Answer: Aortic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Thrombophilia screen

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden reduction in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb’s viability at risk. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a previously partially blocked artery due to a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from a distant site. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without prompt surgical intervention, complete acute ischaemia can lead to extensive tissue death within six hours.

      The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is the sudden blockage of a narrowed arterial segment due to a blood clot, accounting for 60% of cases. The second most common cause is an embolism, which makes up 30% of cases. Emboli can originate from various sources, such as a blood clot in the left atrium of patients with atrial fibrillation (which accounts for 80% of peripheral emboli), a clot formed on the heart’s wall following a heart attack, or from prosthetic heart valves. It is crucial to differentiate between these two conditions, as their treatment and prognosis differ.

      To properly investigate acute limb ischaemia, several important tests should be arranged. These include a hand-held Doppler ultrasound scan, which can help determine if there is any remaining arterial flow. Blood tests, such as a full blood count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, blood glucose level, and thrombophilia screen, are also necessary. If there is uncertainty regarding the diagnosis, urgent arteriography should be performed.

      In cases where an embolus is suspected as the cause, additional investigations are needed to identify its source. These may include an electrocardiogram to detect atrial fibrillation, an echocardiogram to assess the heart’s function, an ultrasound of the aorta, and ultrasounds of the popliteal and femoral arteries.

      By rewriting the explanation and using paragraph spacing, the information is presented in a clearer and more organized manner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      46.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old woman on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman on treatment for a urinary tract infection returns after 48 hours because her symptoms have not improved. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. Unfortunately, the sensitivities from the urine sample that was sent to the lab are still unavailable. Her blood tests today show that her eGFR is >60 ml/minute. She has been taking nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release PO BD for the past two days.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most suitable to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
      – Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
      – Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.

      For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of...

    Incorrect

    • You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
      The hands and feet appear bluish in color
      The heart rate is 110 beats per minute
      There is no response to stimulation
      There is slight bending of the limbs
      The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
      What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old woman presents with frequent urination, excessive thirst, and stomach pain. The...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with frequent urination, excessive thirst, and stomach pain. The results of her arterial blood gas (ABG) on air are as follows:

      pH: 7.21
      pO2: 11.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.1 kPa
      HCO3-: 17 mmol/l
      Na+: 149 mmol/l
      Cl–: 100 mmol/l
      Lactate: 6 IU/l

      Which SINGLE statement about this patient is correct?

      Your Answer: She is likely to have a type B lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is essential for evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. While the normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analyzers, they generally fall within the following ranges:

      pH: 7.35 – 7.45
      pO2: 10 – 14 kPa
      PCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 – 26 mmol/l
      Base excess: -2 – 2 mmol/l

      In this particular case, the patient’s medical history raises concerns about a possible diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The relevant ABG findings are as follows:

      Normal PO2
      Low pH (acidaemia)
      Low PCO2
      Low bicarbonate
      Raised lactate

      The anion gap refers to the concentration of unmeasured anions in the plasma. It is calculated by subtracting the primary measured cations from the primary measured anions in the serum. The reference range for anion gap varies depending on the measurement methodology but typically falls between 8 to 16 mmol/L.

      To calculate her anion gap, we can use the formula:

      Anion gap = [Na+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]

      Using the provided values, her anion gap can be calculated as:

      Anion gap = [149] – [100] – [17]
      Anion gap = 32

      Therefore, it is evident that she has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      It is likely that she is experiencing a type B lactic acidosis secondary to diabetic ketoacidosis. Some potential causes of type A and type B lactic acidosis are listed below:

      Type A lactic acidosis:
      – Shock (including septic shock)
      – Left ventricular failure
      – Severe anemia
      – Asphyxia
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Carbon monoxide poisoning
      – Respiratory failure
      – Severe asthma and COPD
      – Regional hypoperfusion

      Type B lactic acidosis:
      – Renal failure
      – Liver failure
      – Sepsis (non-hypoxic sepsis)
      – Thiamine deficiency
      – Alcoholic ketoacidosis
      – Diabetic ketoacidosis
      – Cyanide poisoning
      – Methanol poisoning
      – Biguanide poisoning

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      401.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a working diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip. When his thigh is passively extended, his abdominal pain intensifies significantly.

      What is the probable location of the appendix in this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.

      The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old girl is brought in with a history of high temperatures and...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought in with a history of high temperatures and severe right-sided ear pain. She had a very restless night, but her pain suddenly improved this morning. Since she has improved, there has been noticeable purulent discharge coming from her right ear. On examination, you are unable to visualise the tympanic membrane due to the presence of profuse discharge.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate next management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Review patient again in 14 days

      Explanation:

      This child has a past medical history consistent with acute purulent otitis media on the left side. The sudden improvement and discharge of pus from the ear strongly suggest a perforated tympanic membrane. It is not uncommon to be unable to see the tympanic membrane in these situations.

      Initially, it is best to adopt a watchful waiting approach to tympanic membrane perforation. Spontaneous healing occurs in over 90% of patients, so only persistent cases should be referred for myringoplasty. There is no need for an urgent same-day referral in this case.

      The use of topical corticosteroids and gentamicin is not recommended when there is a tympanic membrane perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is considered a Category 1 organization according to the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is considered a Category 1 organization according to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004 in the UK?

      Your Answer: NHS bodies

      Explanation:

      The Civil Contingencies Act 2004 establishes a framework for civil protection in the United Kingdom. This legislation categorizes local responders to major incidents into two groups, each with their own set of responsibilities.

      Category 1 responders consist of organizations that play a central role in responding to most emergencies, such as the emergency services, local authorities, and NHS bodies. These Category 1 responders are obligated to fulfill a comprehensive range of civil protection duties. These duties include assessing the likelihood of emergencies occurring and using this information to inform contingency planning. They must also develop emergency plans, establish business continuity management arrangements, and ensure that information regarding civil protection matters is readily available to the public. Additionally, Category 1 responders are responsible for maintaining systems to warn, inform, and advise the public in the event of an emergency. They are expected to share information with other local responders to enhance coordination and efficiency. Furthermore, local authorities within this category are required to provide guidance and support to businesses and voluntary organizations regarding business continuity management.

      On the other hand, Category 2 organizations, such as the Health and Safety Executive, transport companies, and utility companies, are considered co-operating bodies. While they may not be directly involved in the core planning work, they play a crucial role in incidents that impact their respective sectors. Category 2 responders have a more limited set of duties, primarily focused on cooperating and sharing relevant information with both Category 1 and Category 2 responders.

      For more information on this topic, please refer to the Civil Contingencies Act 2004.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a...

    Correct

    • The emergency department is contacted to inform them that four workers at a nearby chemical plant will be brought in for evaluation after a fire occurred on site. Your consultant expresses some concerns regarding the handling of secondary contamination. What is the most accurate description of secondary contamination?

      Your Answer: Contaminated people leaving the scene of the incident and depositing contamination in other locations.

      Explanation:

      Secondary contamination occurs when contaminated individuals leave the initial incident scene and spread harmful substances to other locations, such as the emergency department. To minimize secondary contamination, steps like removing contaminated clothing, implementing decontamination procedures, and restricting movement can be taken. On the other hand, tertiary contamination refers to the entry of contaminants into the local environment, where they can become airborne or waterborne.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      20.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Major Incident Management & PHEM (1/1) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Passmed