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Question 1
Incorrect
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A person in their 60s is prescribed clopidogrel following a transient ischaemic attack. What is the mechanism of action of clopidogrel as an antiplatelet medication?
Clopidogrel is prescribed to prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. It works by irreversibly binding to the P2Y12 receptor on the platelet surface, which prevents the activation of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex. This complex is responsible for the final common pathway of platelet aggregation, so by inhibiting its activation, clopidogrel reduces the risk of thrombotic events such as stroke or myocardial infarction.Your Answer: Antagonises glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
Correct Answer: ADP receptor antagonist
Explanation:Clopidogrel works by blocking ADP receptors, which prevents platelet activation and the formation of blood clots.
Aspirin and other NSAIDs inhibit the COX-1 enzyme, leading to a decrease in prostaglandins and thromboxane, which helps to prevent blood clots.
Antiplatelet medications like abciximab and eptifibatide work by blocking glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets, which prevents platelet adhesion and activation.
Increasing thrombomodulin expression and prostacyclin levels would have the opposite effect and increase blood coagulability and platelet production.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with an embolus in his lower leg. The medical team decides to perform an embolectomy using a trans popliteal approach. Upon incising the deep fascia, what will be the first structure encountered by the surgeons as they explore the central region of the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa houses the tibial nerve, which is positioned above the vessels. Initially, the nerve is located laterally to the vessels in the upper part of the fossa, but it eventually moves to a medial position by passing over them. The popliteal artery is the most deeply situated structure in the popliteal fossa.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the correct description of the cardiac cycle in the middle of diastole?
Your Answer: Second heart sound is heard
Correct Answer: Aortic pressure is falling
Explanation:the Cardiac Cycle
The cardiac cycle is a complex process that involves the contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles to pump blood throughout the body. One important aspect of this cycle is the changes in aortic pressure during diastole and systole. During diastole, the aortic pressure falls as the heart relaxes and fills with blood. This is represented by the second heart sound, which signals the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
At the end of diastole and the beginning of systole, the mitral valve closes, marking the start of the contraction phase. This allows the heart to pump blood out of the left ventricle and into the aorta, increasing aortic pressure. the different phases of the cardiac cycle and the changes in pressure that occur during each phase is crucial for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases. By studying the cardiovascular physiology concepts related to the cardiac cycle, healthcare professionals can better understand how the heart functions and how to maintain its health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and leg swelling over the past 3 months. Upon examination, there is pitting edema to his thighs bilaterally with palpable sacral edema. Bibasal crackles are heard upon auscultation. What medication can be prescribed to improve the prognosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Ramipril is the correct medication for this patient with likely chronic heart failure. It is one of the few drugs that has been shown to improve the overall prognosis of heart failure, along with beta-blockers and aldosterone antagonists. Aspirin, digoxin, and furosemide are commonly used in the management of heart failure but do not offer prognostic benefit.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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Sarah is a 60-year-old female who has been recently diagnosed with hypertension. After a 3-month trial of improving diet and increasing exercise, her blood pressure is still elevated at 160/100 mmHg. Her doctor decides to start her on enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, to treat her hypertension.
At what location in the body is enalapril activated to its pharmacologically active compound?Your Answer: Under phase 1 metabolism in the liver
Explanation:ACE inhibitors are prodrugs that require activation through phase 1 metabolism in the liver, except for captopril and lisinopril which are administered as active drugs. The hepatic esterolysis process converts ACE inhibitors into their active metabolite, allowing them to function as subtype 1B prodrugs. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors are not activated at the site of therapeutic action, and belong to subtype 1A and 2C prodrugs that are activated intracellularly or extracellularly at the therapeutic site, respectively. Answer 3 is a distractor, as ACE inhibitors do not activate ACE in the lung, but rather inhibit its activity. Answer 5 is also incorrect, as most ACE inhibitors require activation through metabolism.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He describes this as crushing central chest pain which is associated with nausea and sweating.
Blood results are as follows:
Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Troponin 4058 ng/L (< 14 ng/L)
An ECG is performed which demonstrates:
Current ECG Sinus rhythm, QRS 168ms, dominant S wave in V1
Previous ECG 12 months ago No abnormality
Which part of the heart's conduction system is likely to be affected?Your Answer: Internodal pathway
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The Purkinje fibres have the highest conduction velocities in the heart, and a prolonged QRS (>120ms) with a dominant S wave in V1 may indicate left bundle branch block (LBBB). If a patient presents with chest pain, a raised troponin, and a previously normal ECG, LBBB should be considered as a possible cause and managed as an acute STEMI. LBBB is caused by damage to the left bundle branch and its associated Purkinje fibres.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Correct
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An 80-year-old patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment and reports a decline in exercise tolerance. They mention having difficulty with stairs and experiencing occasional central chest pain that radiates to their back, which is relieved by rest. The pain is not present at rest.
During the examination, you observe a regular, slow-rising pulse and record a blood pressure of 110/95mmHg. Upon auscultation of the precordium, you detect an ejection systolic murmur.
To further assess cardiac function and valves, an echocardiogram is scheduled. Based on the likely diagnosis, what additional exam findings are you most likely to discover?Your Answer: Fourth heart sound (S4)
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and physical exam suggest the presence of aortic stenosis. This is indicated by the ejection systolic murmur, slow-rising pulse, and progressive heart failure symptoms. The fourth heart sound (S4) is also present, which occurs when the left atrium contracts forcefully to compensate for a stiff ventricle. In aortic stenosis, the left ventricle is hypertrophied due to the narrowed valve, leading to the S4 sound.
While hepatomegaly is more commonly associated with right heart valvular disease, it is not entirely ruled out in this case. However, the patient’s history is more consistent with aortic stenosis.
Malar flush, a pink flushed appearance across the cheeks, is typically seen in mitral stenosis due to hypercarbia causing arteriole vasodilation.
Pistol shot femoral pulses, a sound heard during systole when auscultating the femoral artery, is a finding associated with aortic regurgitation and not present in this case.
Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit after being hospitalized three weeks ago for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He reports chest pain again and is concerned it may be another infarction. The pain is described as sharp and worsens with breathing. The cardiology resident notes a fever and hears a rubbing sound and pansystolic murmur on auscultation, which were previously present. A 12-lead ECG shows no new ischemic changes. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and heavy smoking since his teenage years. What is the most likely cause of his current condition?
Your Answer: Myocardial necrosis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune-mediated
Explanation:Dressler’s syndrome is an autoimmune-mediated pericarditis that occurs 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI). This patient, who has been admitted to the coronary care unit following an MI, is experiencing chest pain that is pleuritic in nature, along with fever and a friction rub sound upon examination. Given the timing of the symptoms at three weeks post-MI, Dressler’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. This condition results from an autoimmune-mediated inflammatory reaction to antigens following an MI, leading to inflammation of the pericardial sac and pericardial effusion. If left untreated, it can increase the risk of ventricular rupture. Treatment typically involves high-dose aspirin and corticosteroids if necessary.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain that spreads to his back. His medical history shows that he has an abdominal aortic aneurysm. During a FAST scan, it is discovered that the abdominal aorta is widely dilated, with the most significant expansion occurring at the point where it divides into the iliac arteries. What vertebral level corresponds to the location of the most prominent dilation observed in the FAST scan?
Your Answer: L4
Explanation:The abdominal aorta divides into two branches at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebrae. At the level of T12, the coeliac trunk arises, while at L1, the superior mesenteric artery branches off. The testicular artery and renal artery originate at L2, and at L3, the inferior mesenteric artery is formed.
The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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A 76-year-old male comes for his yearly checkup with the heart failure nurses. What is the leading cause of heart failure?
Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:The leading cause of heart failure in the western world is ischaemic heart disease, followed by high blood pressure, cardiomyopathies, arrhythmias, and heart valve issues. While COPD can be linked to cor pulmonale, which is a type of right heart failure, it is still not as prevalent as ischaemic heart disease as a cause. This information is based on a population-based study titled Incidence and Aetiology of Heart Failure published in the European Heart Journal in 1999.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of shortness of breath and swelling in his lower limbs. To aid in diagnosis, the doctor orders a B-type natriuretic peptide test. What triggers the production of B-type natriuretic peptide in heart failure?
Your Answer: Increased ventricular filling pressure
Explanation:When the ventricles are under strain, they release B-type natriuretic peptide. Normally, increased ventricular filling pressures would result in a larger diastolic volume and cardiac output through the Frank-Starling mechanism. However, in heart failure, this mechanism is overwhelmed and the ventricles are stretched too much for a strong contraction.
To treat heart failure, ACE inhibitors are used to decrease the amount of BNP produced. A decrease in stroke volume is a sign of heart failure. The body compensates for heart failure by increasing activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman has been prescribed amiodarone. She has been advised to take higher doses initially and then switch to a lower maintenance dose for long-term use.
What is the rationale behind this initial dosing regimen?Your Answer: Slow metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive lipid binding
Explanation:A loading dose is necessary for amiodarone to achieve therapeutic levels quickly before transitioning to a maintenance dose. This is because a 50mg once daily maintenance dose would take a long time to reach the required 1000mg for therapeutic effect. The fast metabolism of amiodarone due to extensive protein binding, extensive hepatic P450 breakdown, and slow absorption via the enteral route are not the reasons for a loading regime.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl with Down Syndrome presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of getting tired easily while playing with her friends and experiencing shortness of breath. The mother informs the GP that the patient was born with an uncorrected cardiac defect. On examination, the GP observes clubbing and plethora.
What is the probable reason for the patient's current symptoms?Your Answer: Transposition of the great vessels
Correct Answer: Eisenmenger syndrome
Explanation:The presence of clubbing, cyanosis, and easy fatigue in this patient suggests Eisenmenger syndrome, which can occur as a result of an uncorrected VSD commonly seen in individuals with Down syndrome. The increased pulmonary blood flow caused by the VSD can lead to pulmonary hypertension and vascular remodeling, resulting in RV hypertrophy and a reversal of the shunt. In contrast, coarctation of the aorta typically presents with hypertension and pulse discrepancies, but not clubbing or plethora. Ebstein abnormality, caused by prenatal exposure to lithium, can cause fatigue and early tiring, but does not typically result in clubbing. Transposition of the great vessels would likely have been fatal without correction, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Understanding Eisenmenger’s Syndrome
Eisenmenger’s syndrome is a medical condition that occurs when a congenital heart defect leads to pulmonary hypertension, causing a reversal of a left-to-right shunt. This happens when the left-to-right shunt is not corrected, leading to the remodeling of the pulmonary microvasculature, which eventually obstructs pulmonary blood and causes pulmonary hypertension. The condition is commonly associated with ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, and patent ductus arteriosus.
The original murmur may disappear, and patients may experience cyanosis, clubbing, right ventricular failure, haemoptysis, and embolism. Management of Eisenmenger’s syndrome requires heart-lung transplantation. It is essential to diagnose and treat the condition early to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of Eisenmenger’s syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful left foot that he woke up with. Initially, he didn't want to bother the doctor, but now he's concerned because he can't feel his foot or move his toes. Upon examination, the left foot is cold to the touch and very pale. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute limb ischaemia
Explanation:Acute Limb Ischaemia and Compartment Syndrome
Acute limb ischaemia is a condition that is characterized by six Ps: pain, pallor, pulselessness, perishingly cold, paresthesia, and paralysis. It is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention from a vascular surgeon. Delaying treatment for even a few hours can lead to amputation or death. On the other hand, acute compartment syndrome occurs when the pressure within a closed muscle compartment exceeds the perfusion pressure, resulting in muscle and nerve ischaemia. This condition usually follows a traumatic event, such as a fracture. However, in some cases, there may be no history of trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Correct
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A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is diagnosed with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. What electrolyte is responsible for maintaining the resting potential of ventricular myocytes?
Your Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The resting potential of cardiac myocytes is maintained by potassium, while depolarization is initiated by a sudden influx of sodium ions and repolarization is caused by the outflow of potassium. The extended duration of a cardiac action potential, in contrast to skeletal muscle, is due to a gradual influx of calcium.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She has been in good health lately, except for a stomach bug she had two weeks ago. Her medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, and type II diabetes mellitus. Although she used to smoke, she has quit and does not drink alcohol. She lives with her husband in a bungalow.
During the consultation, she reveals that her cardiologist recently prescribed niacin to her. Her recent lab results show an increase in total cholesterol.
Which of the following is responsible for the adverse effects observed in this patient?
Substance P
15%
Bradykinin
20%
Prostaglandins
48%
Serotonin
9%
Kallikreins
8%
The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itching, are caused by prostaglandins.Your Answer: Prostaglandins
Explanation:The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itchiness, are caused by the release of prostaglandins. Niacin activates dermal Langerhans cells, which leads to an increase in prostaglandin release and subsequent vasodilation. To prevent these side effects, aspirin is often given 30 minutes before niacin administration. Aspirin works by altering the activity of COX-2, which reduces prostaglandin release.
Substance P acts as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, and its neurokinin (NK) receptor 1 is found in specific areas of the brain that affect behavior and the neurochemical response to both psychological and somatic stress.
Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation, but it is not responsible for the adverse effects seen with niacin use.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various processes in the brain. Low levels of serotonin are often associated with anxiety, panic attacks, obesity, and insomnia. However, serotonin does not mediate the side effects observed with niacin use.
Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a medication used to treat hyperlipidaemia. It is effective in reducing cholesterol and triglyceride levels while increasing HDL levels. However, its use is limited due to the occurrence of side-effects. One of the most common side-effects is flushing, which is caused by prostaglandins. Additionally, nicotinic acid may impair glucose tolerance and lead to myositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old patient who recently had a TIA is admitted to the vascular ward in preparation for a carotid endarterectomy tomorrow. During her pre-operative consultation, the surgeon explained that the artery will be tied during the procedure. The patient asks about the different arteries and their functions. You inform her that the internal carotid artery supplies the brain, while the external carotid artery divides into two arteries after ascending the neck. One of these arteries is the superficial temporal artery, but what is the other?
Your Answer: Maxillary artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It supplies deep structures of the face and usually bifurcates within the parotid gland to form the superficial temporal artery and maxillary artery. The facial artery supplies superficial structures in the face, while the lingual artery supplies the tongue. The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery and supplies the dura mater and calvaria. There are also two deep temporal arteries that arise from the maxillary artery and supply the temporalis muscle. The patient is scheduled to undergo carotid endarterectomy, a surgical procedure that involves removing atherosclerotic plaque from the common carotid artery to reduce the risk of subsequent ischaemic strokes or transient ischaemic attacks.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain, dizziness, and palpitations. He has a medical history of mitral stenosis and denies any alcohol or smoking habits. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that lead I shows positively directed sawtooth deflections, while leads II, III, and aVF show negatively directed sawtooth deflections. What pathology does this finding suggest?
Your Answer: Atrial flutter
Explanation:Atrial flutter is identified by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and is a type of supraventricular tachycardia. It occurs when electrical activity from the sinoatrial node reenters the atria instead of being conducted to the ventricles. Valvular heart disease is a risk factor, and atrial flutter is managed similarly to atrial fibrillation.
Left bundle branch block causes a delayed contraction of the left ventricle and is identified by a W pattern in V1 and an M pattern in V6 on an ECG. It does not produce a sawtooth pattern on the ECG.
Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical conduction in the ventricles, resulting in a lack of normal ventricular contraction. It can cause cardiac arrest and requires advanced life support management.
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway between the atria and the ventricles and is identified by a slurred upstroke at the beginning of the QRS complex, known as a delta wave. It can present with symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and syncope.
Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.
Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is being evaluated for progressive dyspnea and is found to have primary pulmonary hypertension. She is prescribed bosentan. What is the mode of action of bosentan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endothelin receptor antagonist
Explanation:Bosentan is an antagonist of the endothelin-1 receptor.
Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH) is a condition where the resting mean pulmonary artery pressure is equal to or greater than 25 mmHg. The pathogenesis of PAH is thought to involve endothelin. It is more common in females and typically presents between the ages of 30-50 years. PAH is diagnosed in the absence of chronic lung diseases such as COPD, although certain factors increase the risk. Around 10% of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
The classical presentation of PAH is progressive exertional dyspnoea, but other possible features include exertional syncope, exertional chest pain, peripheral oedema, and cyanosis. Physical examination may reveal a right ventricular heave, loud P2, raised JVP with prominent ‘a’ waves, and tricuspid regurgitation.
Management of PAH should first involve treating any underlying conditions. Acute vasodilator testing is central to deciding on the appropriate management strategy. If there is a positive response to acute vasodilator testing, oral calcium channel blockers may be used. If there is a negative response, prostacyclin analogues, endothelin receptor antagonists, or phosphodiesterase inhibitors may be used. Patients with progressive symptoms should be considered for a heart-lung transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control and secondary prevention. The doctor advises him to make dietary changes to address excess fat in the blood that can lead to angina. During the explanation, the doctor asks which apolipoprotein macrophages recognize to uptake lipids under normal circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ApoB100
Explanation:Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man was effectively cardioverted for an unstable broad complex tachycardia. The physician opts to initiate oral amiodarone at 200 mg thrice daily, and gradually decrease at weekly intervals until a maintenance dose of 200 mg once daily.
What is the rationale behind this dosing plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone has a very long half-life
Explanation:Amiodarone’s long half-life is due to its high lipophilicity and extensive tissue absorption, resulting in reduced bioavailability in serum. To achieve stable therapeutic levels, a prolonged loading regimen is necessary.
To quickly achieve therapeutic levels, high doses of oral amiodarone are required due to poor absorption. Once achieved, a once-daily regimen can be continued. Amiodarone’s plasma half-life ranges from 20 to 100 days, meaning its effects persist long after discontinuation. Patients should be counseled on this and advised to recognize adverse effects and avoid drugs that interact with amiodarone even after stopping it.
The statement that amiodarone has a short half-life is incorrect; it has a long half-life.
Patients do not need to stay admitted for monitoring during the loading regimen. However, thyroid and liver function tests should be performed every 6 months for up to 12 months after discontinuation due to the long half-life.
Amiodarone is excreted via the liver and biliary system, not rapidly metabolized and eliminated by the kidneys. Therefore, patients with amiodarone overdose or toxicity are not suitable for dialysis.
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She has left-sided heart failure and her recent echo revealed a reduced ejection fraction. She complains of nocturnal breathlessness and needing multiple pillows to sleep.
She is prescribed bisoprolol and another medication with the explanation that it will help decrease mortality.
What is the probable medication she has been prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:In the treatment of heart failure, medications are used to improve the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. Beta blockers, such as bisoprolol, are commonly prescribed to slow the heart rate and improve filling. The first-line drugs for heart failure are beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the patient in question will be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, as the second drug. Ramipril works by reducing venous resistance, making it easier for the heart to pump blood out, and lowering arterial pressures, which increases the heart’s pre-load.
Carvedilol is not the correct choice for this patient. Although it can be used in heart failure, the patient is already taking a beta blocker, and adding another drug from the same class could cause symptomatic bradycardia or hypotension.
Digoxin is not the appropriate choice either. While it can be used in heart failure, it should only be initiated by a specialist.
Sacubitril-valsartan is also not the right choice for this patient. Although it is becoming more commonly used in heart failure patients, it should only be prescribed by a specialist after first and second-line treatment options have been exhausted.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the emergency department with loss of vision on the right side.
Which artery disease could be responsible for his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:The ophthalmic artery is the first branch of the internal carotid artery and supplies the orbit. If the internal carotid artery is affected by disease, it can lead to vision loss. However, disease of the external carotid artery, which supplies structures of the face and neck, or its branches such as the facial artery (which supplies skin and muscles of the face), lingual artery (which supplies the tongue and oral mucosa), or middle meningeal artery (which supplies the cranial dura), would not result in vision loss. Disease of the middle meningeal artery is commonly associated with extradural hematoma.
The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.
The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.
The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the GP clinic for wound dressing on his left leg. During the visit, the nurse informs the GP that she suspects the patient's legs are swollen. Upon examination, the GP observes bilateral pitting edema that extends up to the knee and decides to prescribe a diuretic. Which diuretic inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)
Explanation:Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with a transient ischaemic attack and started on modified-release dipyridamole as part of combination antiplatelet treatment. He already takes a statin. After a week of treatment, he visits his GP with concerns of the drug's mechanism of action.
What is the mechanism of action of modified-release dipyridamole?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Explanation:Dipyridamole is a medication that inhibits phosphodiesterase in a non-specific manner and reduces the uptake of adenosine by cells.
As an antiplatelet agent, dipyridamole works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase. It can be used in combination with aspirin to prevent secondary transient ischemic attacks if clopidogrel is not well-tolerated.
Tirofiban is a drug that inhibits the platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which binds to collagen.
The platelet receptor glycoprotein VI interacts with subendothelial collagen.
Glycoprotein 1b is the platelet receptor for von Willebrand Factor. Although there is no specific drug that targets this interaction, autoantibodies to glycoprotein Ib are the basis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP).
Clopidogrel targets the platelet receptor P2Y12, which interacts with adenosine diphosphate.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole
Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.
Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.
Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.
In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the past few weeks. He reports experiencing heavy night sweats, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of intravenous drug use for many years and has been using methadone exclusively for the last 2 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes splinter haemorrhages. What is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of infective endocarditis and has a past of using intravenous drugs. Infective endocarditis can be caused by various factors, but in developed countries, S. aureus is the most prevalent cause. This is especially true for individuals who use intravenous drugs, as in this case.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.
Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain, sweating, and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation. Which phase of the cardiac action potential does this correspond to? The ST segment of the ECG represents a period of sluggish calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:The ST segment in the ECG is caused by the slow influx of calcium during phase 2 of the cardiac action potential. Understanding the cardiac action potential is important for interpreting the electrical activity of the heart as reflected in the ECG waveform. The QRS complex represents rapid depolarisation, the ST segment represents the plateau phase, and the T wave represents repolarisation.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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As a medical student in general practice, you come across a patient with poorly controlled hypertension. The decision is made to initiate Bendroflumethiazide therapy. What could be a possible contraindication for starting this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gout
Explanation:Gout may be a potential side effect of thiazides.
It is important to note that spironolactone and bendroflumethiazide belong to different drug classes, so being allergic to one does not necessarily mean the other cannot be prescribed.
Bendroflumethiazide is a type of diuretic that causes the body to lose potassium, so it may actually be prescribed in cases of refractory hyperkalemia rather than being avoided.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of increasing shortness of breath in the past few months, especially when lying down at night. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure, which is managed with ramipril. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day. Her heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. An ECG reveals sinus rhythm and left ventricular hypertrophy. On physical examination, there are no heart murmurs, but there is wheezing throughout the chest and coarse crackles at both bases. She has pitting edema in both ankles. Her troponin T level is 0.01 (normal range <0.02). What is the diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biventricular failure
Explanation:Diagnosis and Assessment of Biventricular Failure
This patient is exhibiting symptoms of both peripheral and pulmonary edema, indicating biventricular failure. The ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy, which is likely due to her long-standing hypertension. While she is at an increased risk for a myocardial infarction as a diabetic and smoker, her low troponin T levels suggest that this is not the immediate cause of her symptoms. However, it is important to rule out acute coronary syndromes in diabetics, as they may not experience pain.
Mitral stenosis, if present, would be accompanied by a diastolic murmur and left atrial hypertrophy. In severe cases, back-pressure can lead to pulmonary edema. Overall, a thorough assessment and diagnosis of biventricular failure is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is admitted after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. He is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, nitrates, and morphine. Due to his high 6-month risk score, percutaneous coronary intervention is planned and he is given intravenous tirofiban. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Explanation:Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Antagonists
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are a class of drugs that inhibit the function of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which is found on the surface of platelets. These drugs are used to prevent blood clots from forming in patients with acute coronary syndrome, unstable angina, or during percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists include abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban. These drugs work by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which prevents platelet aggregation and the formation of blood clots.
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are typically administered intravenously and are used in combination with other antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel. While these drugs are effective at preventing blood clots, they can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, careful monitoring of patients is necessary to ensure that the benefits of these drugs outweigh the risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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