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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense pain five days after a recent...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense pain five days after a recent tooth extraction. The pain is primarily concentrated in the socket where the tooth was removed. Upon examination, she has no fever and there are no signs of facial or gum swelling.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry socket

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a condition called acute alveolar osteitis, commonly known as ‘dry socket’. It occurs when the blood clot covering the socket gets dislodged, leaving the bone and nerve exposed. This can result in infection and intense pain.

      There are several risk factors associated with the development of a dry socket. These include smoking, inadequate dental hygiene, extraction of wisdom teeth, use of oral contraceptive pills, and a previous history of dry socket.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old third year medical student is brought into the emergency department for a check up after fainting while observing a prolonged delivery that required an emergency C-section. The patient complains of feeling warm and sweaty for a couple of minutes before becoming lightheaded and losing consciousness. There were no reports of loss of bladder or bowel control, and no tongue biting was observed. Physical examination reveals no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination. Blood pressure is 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing.

      What is the probable cause of the fainting episode?

      Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the fainting episode in this 25-year-old third year medical student is vasovagal syncope. Vasovagal syncope is a common type of fainting that occurs in response to certain triggers, such as emotional stress, pain, or seeing blood. In this case, the prolonged delivery and emergency C-section likely triggered the patient’s vasovagal response.

      The patient’s symptoms of feeling warm and sweaty before fainting are consistent with vasovagal syncope. During a vasovagal episode, there is a sudden drop in blood pressure and heart rate, leading to a temporary loss of consciousness. The absence of loss of bladder or bowel control and tongue biting further support this diagnosis.

      The physical examination findings of no focal neurological deficits and a normal cardiovascular examination also align with vasovagal syncope. Additionally, the blood pressure measurements of 122/74 mmHg when lying down and 120/72 mmHg when standing suggest orthostatic hypotension, which is commonly seen in vasovagal syncope.

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.

      When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.

      During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.

      There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic...

    Incorrect

    • A child who has been involved in a car accident undergoes a traumatic cardiac arrest. You perform an anterolateral thoracotomy.
      What is the accurate anatomical location for the incision that needs to be made?

      Your Answer: 7th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line

      Correct Answer: 4th intercostal space from the sternum to the posterior axillary line

      Explanation:

      An anterolateral thoracotomy is a surgical procedure performed on the front part of the chest wall. It is commonly used in Emergency Department thoracotomy, with a preference for a left-sided approach in patients with traumatic arrest or left-sided chest injuries. However, in patients with right-sided chest injuries and profound hypotension but have not arrested, a right-sided approach is recommended.

      The procedure is carried out in the following steps:
      – An incision is made along the 4th or 5th intercostal space, starting from the sternum at the front and extending to the posterior axillary line.
      – The incision should be deep enough to partially cut through the latissimus dorsi muscle.
      – The skin, subcutaneous fat, and superficial portions of the pectoralis and serratus muscles are divided.
      – The parietal pleura is divided, allowing entry into the pleural cavity.
      – The intercostal muscles are completely cut, and a rib spreader is placed and opened to provide visualization of the thoracic cavity.
      – The anterolateral approach allows access to important anatomical structures during resuscitation, including the pulmonary hilum, heart, and aorta.

      In cases where there is suspicion of a right-sided heart injury, an additional incision can be made on the right side, extending across the entire chest. This is known as a bilateral anterolateral thoracotomy or a clamshell thoracotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman presents with left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the body and right-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face. While examining her cranial nerves, you note the presence of Horner’s syndrome. She is also complaining of dizziness, vomiting, and ringing in the ears. CT and MRI head scans are performed, and she is found to have experienced a right-sided stroke. She is subsequently admitted under the care of the stroke team.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medial pontine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Lateral medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery leads to the development of lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by several distinct symptoms. Firstly, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side of the body, which occurs due to damage to the spinothalamic tracts. Additionally, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side of the face, resulting from damage to the fifth cranial nerve (CN V).

      Furthermore, individuals with lateral medullary syndrome may experience vertigo, nystagmus, tinnitus, deafness, and vomiting. These symptoms arise from damage to the eighth cranial nerve (CN VIII). Lastly, the syndrome may also present with Horner’s syndrome, which is caused by damage to the descending hypothalamospinal tract.

      In summary, occlusion of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery causes lateral medullary syndrome, leading to a combination of symptoms including sensory loss, vertigo, tinnitus, and Horner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with no permanent residence experiences a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which treatment is most likely responsible for causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acamprosate

      Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      107.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms in the lower limbs. He has experienced back issues intermittently for a few years and has previously been diagnosed with spondylolysis.
      Which specific part of the vertebra is typically affected by spondylolysis?

      Your Answer: Transverse process

      Correct Answer: Pars interarticularis

      Explanation:

      Spondylolysis refers to a flaw or fracture caused by stress in the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch. While it can occur in the cervical vertebrae, it is most commonly found in the lower lumbar vertebrae, specifically L5. This injury is frequently seen in children and adolescents who engage in sports activities that place repetitive strain on the lower back, such as gymnastics, football, and weightlifting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents with intermittent vomiting. They inform you that for the past few days the baby has been projectile vomiting approximately 30 minutes after each feed. The parents are worried because the baby is not wetting her diaper as frequently as usual. Bowel movements are normal in consistency but less frequent. The baby has no fever, rashes, and her vital signs are normal. The parents inquire about the treatment plan for the most likely underlying diagnosis.

      What is the management approach for the most probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Advise the parents the child will likely require a pyloromyotomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure. Before undergoing surgery, the patient should be rehydrated and any electrolyte imbalances should be corrected.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD...

    Correct

    • You assess a 62-year-old woman who is currently receiving treatment with a DMARD for severe psoriatic arthropathy. She has been experiencing increasing difficulty breathing during physical activity for the past few months. During the examination, you detect fine bibasal crepitations. You order a chest X-ray, which reveals signs of pulmonary fibrosis.
      What is the SINGLE medication she is most likely taking?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      There is a significant link between methotrexate and the development of pulmonary fibrosis. While there have been instances of pulmonary fibrosis occurring as a result of infliximab, this particular side effect is more commonly associated with methotrexate use.

      Methotrexate can also cause other side effects such as nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, dizziness, stomatitis, hepatotoxicity, neutropenia, and pneumonitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      1706.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode was similar to previous ones in that it occurred around her right temple and was so intense that she felt like hitting her head to try and distract from the pain. Further questioning and examination lead you to conclude that she is suffering from cluster headaches.

      Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for cluster headaches?

      Your Answer: Oral codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Standard pain relievers are generally not effective in treating cluster headaches. They take too long to work, and by the time they start to relieve the pain, the headache has usually already gone away. It is not recommended to use opioids for cluster headaches as they may actually make the headaches worse, and using them for a long time can lead to dependency.

      However, there are other options that can be effective in treating cluster headaches. One option is to use subcutaneous sumatriptan, which is a medication that works by stimulating a specific receptor in the brain. This can help reduce the inflammation in the blood vessels that is associated with migraines and cluster headaches. Most people find that subcutaneous sumatriptan starts to work within 10-15 minutes of being administered.

      Another option is to use zolmitriptan nasal spray, which is also a medication that works in a similar way to sumatriptan. However, it may take a bit longer for the nasal spray to start working compared to the subcutaneous injection.

      In addition to medication, high-flow oxygen can also be used as an alternative therapy for cluster headaches. This involves breathing in oxygen at a high flow rate, which can help relieve the pain and other symptoms of a cluster headache.

      Lastly, octreotide can be administered subcutaneously and has been shown to be more effective than a placebo in treating acute cluster headache attacks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring. Some of the lesions have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing general malaise, joint pain, and a feverish feeling. You take his temperature and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      87.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance after intentionally swallowing 17 tablets...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance after intentionally swallowing 17 tablets of 300 mg aspirin. The overdose occurred three hours ago.
      What is true regarding her treatment in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: No specific antidote is available in this case

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. The symptoms of salicylate poisoning include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, dehydration, rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid in the lungs, and unstable heart function can occur.

      The treatment for salicylate poisoning involves stabilizing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation as needed, preventing further absorption of the poison, enhancing its elimination from the body, correcting any metabolic abnormalities, and providing supportive care. Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote available for salicylates. If a large amount of salicylate has been ingested within the past hour (more than 4.5 grams in adults or more than 2 grams in children), gastric lavage (stomach pumping) and administration of activated charcoal (50 grams) are recommended to reduce absorption and increase elimination.

      Medical investigations for salicylate poisoning should include measuring the level of salicylate in the blood, analyzing arterial blood gases, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), checking blood glucose levels, assessing kidney function and electrolyte levels, and evaluating blood clotting. ECG abnormalities that may be present include widening of the QRS complex, AV block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

      The severity of salicylate poisoning is determined by the level of salicylate in the blood. Mild poisoning is defined as a salicylate level below 450 mg/L, moderate poisoning is between 450-700 mg/L, and severe poisoning is above 700 mg/L. In severe cases, aggressive intravenous fluid therapy is necessary to correct dehydration, and administration of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate the salicylate from the body. It is important to maintain a urine pH of greater than 7.5, ideally between 8.0-8.5. However, forced alkaline diuresis is no longer recommended. Life-threatening cases may require admission to the intensive care unit, intubation and ventilation, and possibly hemodialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      112.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns....

    Incorrect

    • You are part of the team working on a child with severe burns. The child has a suspected inhalation injury and needs to be intubated before being transferred to the local burns unit. During direct laryngoscopy, which classification system is used to evaluate the glottic opening?

      Your Answer: Mallampati score

      Correct Answer: Cormack and Lehane classification

      Explanation:

      The tracheal opening can be classified using the Cormack-Lehane grading system. This system categorizes the views obtained through direct laryngoscopy based on the structures that are visible. More information about this classification system can be found in the notes provided below.

      Further Reading:

      A difficult airway refers to a situation where factors have been identified that make airway management more challenging. These factors can include body habitus, head and neck anatomy, mouth characteristics, jaw abnormalities, and neck mobility. The LEMON criteria can be used to predict difficult intubation by assessing these factors. The criteria include looking externally at these factors, evaluating the 3-3-2 rule which assesses the space in the mouth and neck, assessing the Mallampati score which measures the distance between the tongue base and roof of the mouth, and considering any upper airway obstructions or reduced neck mobility.

      Direct laryngoscopy is a method used to visualize the larynx and assess the size of the tracheal opening. The Cormack-Lehane grading system can be used to classify the tracheal opening, with higher grades indicating more difficult access. In cases of a failed airway, where intubation attempts are unsuccessful and oxygenation cannot be maintained, the immediate priority is to oxygenate the patient and prevent hypoxic brain injury. This can be done through various measures such as using a bag-valve-mask ventilation, high flow oxygen, suctioning, and optimizing head positioning.

      If oxygenation cannot be maintained, it is important to call for help from senior medical professionals and obtain a difficult airway trolley if not already available. If basic airway management techniques do not improve oxygenation, further intubation attempts may be considered using different equipment or techniques. If oxygen saturations remain below 90%, a surgical airway such as a cricothyroidotomy may be necessary.

      Post-intubation hypoxia can occur for various reasons, and the mnemonic DOPES can be used to identify and address potential problems. DOPES stands for displacement of the endotracheal tube, obstruction, pneumothorax, equipment failure, and stacked breaths. If intubation attempts fail, a maximum of three attempts should be made before moving to an alternative plan, such as using a laryngeal mask airway or considering a cricothyroidotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe vomiting for the past 10 hours....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe vomiting for the past 10 hours. She informs you that she consumed Chinese takeout the night before. She is unable to tolerate any liquids by mouth, so you initiate an intravenous saline infusion.
      What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate in a patient with severe vomiting?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During CPR of a hypothermic patient, it is important to follow specific guidelines. If the patient’s core temperature is below 30ºC, resuscitation drugs, such as adrenaline, should be withheld. Once the core temperature rises above 30ºC, cardiac arrest drugs can be administered. However, if the patient’s temperature is between 30-35ºC, the interval for administering cardiac arrest drugs should be doubled. For example, adrenaline should be given every 6-10 minutes instead of the usual 3-5 minutes for a normothermic patient.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermic cardiac arrest is a rare situation that requires a tailored approach. Resuscitation is typically prolonged, but the prognosis for young, previously healthy individuals can be good. Hypothermic cardiac arrest may be associated with drowning. Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, basal metabolic rate falls and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. Signs and symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, initially presenting as compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, but eventually ceasing as the temperature drops into moderate hypothermia territory.

      ECG changes associated with hypothermia include bradyarrhythmias, Osborn waves, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, shivering artifact, ventricular ectopics, and cardiac arrest. When managing hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated as per the standard ALS algorithm, but with modifications. It is important to check for signs of life, re-warm the patient, consider mechanical ventilation due to chest wall stiffness, adjust dosing or withhold drugs due to slowed drug metabolism, and correct electrolyte disturbances. The resuscitation of hypothermic patients is often prolonged and may continue for a number of hours.

      Pulse checks during CPR may be difficult due to low blood pressure, and the pulse check is prolonged to 1 minute for this reason. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, leading to a build-up of potentially toxic plasma concentrations of administered drugs. Current guidance advises withholding drugs if the core temperature is below 30ºC and doubling the drug interval at core temperatures between 30 and 35ºC. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients, and it is important to interpret results keeping the setting in mind. Hypoglycemia should be treated, hypokalemia will often correct as the patient re-warms, ABG analyzers may not reflect the reality of the hypothermic patient, and severe hyperkalemia is a poor prognostic indicator.

      Different warming measures can be used to increase the core body temperature, including external passive measures such as removal of wet clothes and insulation with blankets, external active measures such as forced heated air or hot-water immersion, and internal active measures such as inhalation of warm air, warmed intravenous fluids, gastric, bladder, peritoneal and/or pleural lavage and high volume renal haemofilter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer presents with lower abdominal pain, urinary difficulties, and frequent urination. The treatment has not been effective, and he has been informed that he only has a few months left to live.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous amphotericin B

      Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of oesophageal candidiasis, which is commonly seen in patients undergoing treatment for haematopoietic or lymphatic malignancies.

      The classic combination of symptoms associated with oesophageal candidiasis includes dysphagia, odynophagia, and retrosternal pain. This infection can be life-threatening and often requires hospital admission.

      The recommended treatment for oesophageal candidiasis is as follows:

      – First-line treatment involves taking oral fluconazole at a daily dose of 200-400 mg.
      – If the patient is unable to tolerate oral treatment, intravenous fluconazole can be used instead.
      – Second-line treatment options include oral itraconazole, oral posaconazole, or intravenous or oral voriconazole.

      It is important to seek medical attention promptly for oesophageal candidiasis, as timely treatment is crucial in managing this potentially serious infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      76.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department after developing a seal-like...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department after developing a seal-like barking cough and experiencing poor appetite over the past 24 hours. The parents report that the child had a stuffy nose and a slight fever for a few days prior to the onset of the feeding difficulties and barking cough.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Croup is identified by a distinct cough that sounds like a seal barking. This type of cough is commonly seen in patients within the typical age range for croup. Along with the barking cough, the patient may also experience hoarseness, stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing), and respiratory distress. While there may be a history of a foreign body in the upper airway, it is not always present. The symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection prior to the onset of croup do not align with a foreign body diagnosis. Additionally, there is no mention of a rash, which would be indicative of measles.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual presents with a sudden worsening of asthma symptoms. You conduct an arterial blood gas test, and their PaCO2 level is 6.3 kPa.
      How would you categorize this asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Life-threatening asthma

      Correct Answer: Near-fatal asthma

      Explanation:

      This individual has presented with an episode of acute asthma. Their PaCO2 levels are elevated at 6.3 kPa, indicating a near-fatal exacerbation. According to the BTS guidelines, acute asthma can be classified as moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, or near-fatal.

      Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no features of acute severe asthma present in this classification.

      Acute severe asthma can be identified by any one of the following criteria: a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, a respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate surpassing 110 beats per minute, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is determined by any one of the following indicators: a PEFR below 33% of the best or predicted value, an SpO2 (oxygen saturation) level below 92%, a PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) below 8 kPa, normal PaCO2 levels (ranging from 4.6-6.0 kPa), a silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension.

      Near-fatal asthma is characterized by a raised PaCO2 level and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with elevated inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.

      Further Reading:

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.

      ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are evaluating a 25-year-old male with a puncture wound to the stomach....

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 25-year-old male with a puncture wound to the stomach. Which of the following is NOT a reason for immediate laparotomy in cases of penetrating abdominal injury?

      Your Answer: Negative diagnostic peritoneal lavage

      Explanation:

      Urgent laparotomy is necessary in cases of penetrating abdominal trauma when certain indications are present. These indications include peritonism, the presence of free air under the diaphragm on an upright chest X-ray, evisceration, hypotension or signs of unstable blood flow, a gunshot wound that has penetrated the peritoneum or retroperitoneum, gastrointestinal bleeding following penetrating trauma, genitourinary bleeding following penetrating trauma, the presence of a penetrating object that is still in place (as removal may result in significant bleeding), and the identification of free fluid on a focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) or a positive diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL).

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve...

    Correct

    • You evaluate the pupillary light reflex in a patient with a cranial nerve impairment. Upon shining the light into the left eye, there is no alteration in pupil size in either the left or right eye. However, when the light is directed into the right eye, both the left and right pupils constrict.

      What is the location of the lesion in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Left optic nerve

      Explanation:

      The pupillary light reflex is a reflex that regulates the size of the pupil in response to the intensity of light that reaches the retina. It consists of two separate pathways, the afferent pathway and the efferent pathway.

      The afferent pathway begins with light entering the pupil and stimulating the retinal ganglion cells in the retina. These cells then transmit the light signal to the optic nerve. At the optic chiasm, the nasal retinal fibers cross to the opposite optic tract, while the temporal retinal fibers remain in the same optic tract. The fibers from the optic tracts then project and synapse in the pretectal nuclei in the dorsal midbrain. From there, the pretectal nuclei send fibers to the ipsilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus via the posterior commissure.

      On the other hand, the efferent pathway starts with the Edinger-Westphal nucleus projecting preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. These fibers exit the midbrain and travel along the oculomotor nerve. They then synapse on post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers in the ciliary ganglion. The post-ganglionic fibers, known as the short ciliary nerves, innervate the sphincter muscle of the pupils, causing them to constrict.

      The result of these pathways is that when light is shone in one eye, both the direct pupillary light reflex (ipsilateral eye) and the consensual pupillary light reflex (contralateral eye) occur.

      Lesions affecting the pupillary light reflex can be identified by comparing the direct and consensual reactions to light in both eyes. If the optic nerve of the first eye is damaged, both the direct and consensual reflexes in the second eye will be lost. However, when light is shone into the second eye, the pupil of the first eye will still constrict. If the optic nerve of the second eye is damaged, the second eye will constrict consensually when light is shone into the unaffected first eye. If the oculomotor nerve of the first eye is damaged, the first eye will have no direct light reflex, but the second eye will still constrict consensually. Finally, if the oculomotor nerve of the second eye is damaged, there will be no consensual constriction of the second eye when light is shone into the unaffected first eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. She is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis. Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: Profound jaundice is common

      Correct Answer: The gallbladder fills with pus, which is usually sterile initially

      Explanation:

      Acute cholecystitis occurs when a stone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation of the wall and resulting in chemical cholecystitis. This leads to the accumulation of pus within the gallbladder, which is typically sterile at first. However, there is a possibility of secondary infection with enteric organisms like Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.

      The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are often present, along with common symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign is a useful diagnostic tool, as it has a high sensitivity and positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.

      In cases of acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. AST, ALT, and ALP may also show elevation, but they can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant increase in AST, ALT, ALP, and/or bilirubin, it may indicate the presence of other biliary tract conditions such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.

      It is important to note that there is some overlap in the presentation of biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. To differentiate between these diagnoses, the following list can be helpful:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are examining the facial X-rays of a young patient who was involved...

    Correct

    • You are examining the facial X-rays of a young patient who was involved in a physical altercation and sustained multiple facial injuries. What tools or techniques are utilized to aid in the interpretation of facial radiographs and facilitate the identification of facial fractures?

      Your Answer: Dolan lines

      Explanation:

      The interpretation of facial X-rays is often assisted by the use of McGrigor-Campbell lines and Dolan lines. These lines, along with accompanying notes and images, provide additional information for a more accurate analysis.

      Further Reading:

      Facial X-rays are commonly used to assess and diagnose facial fractures. Two standard views are typically performed: the Occipitomental view and the Occipitomental 30º view. The Occipitomental view provides a comprehensive look at the upper and middle thirds of the face, including the orbital margins, frontal sinuses, zygomatic arches, and maxillary antra. On the other hand, the Occipitomental 30º view uses a 30-degree caudal angulation to better visualize the zygomatic arches and walls of the maxillary antra, although it may compromise the clear view of the orbital margins.

      To assist in the interpretation of facial X-rays, imaginary lines are often drawn across the images to highlight any asymmetry or disruption. Two commonly used sets of lines are the McGrigor-Campbell lines and Dolan’s lines. McGrigor-Campbell lines are used to aid in the interpretation of both the Occipitomental and Occipitomental 30º views. These lines include an upper line that passes through the zygomatico-frontal sutures and the upper edge of the orbits, a middle line that follows the zygomatic arch and crosses the zygomatic bone, and a lower line that passes through the condyle and coronoid process of the mandible and the walls of the maxillary antra.

      Dolan’s lines, described by Dolan and Jacoby, are often used in conjunction with McGrigor-Campbell lines. These lines include the orbital line, which traces the inner margins of the orbital walls and the nasal arch, the zygomatic line, which traces the superior margin of the zygomatic arch and body, and the maxillary line, which traces the inferior margin of the zygomatic arch, body, and buttress, as well as the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus. Together, the zygomatic and maxillary lines resemble the profile of an elephant’s head and are referred to as Dolan’s elephant. These lines help provide additional information and aid in the interpretation of facial X-rays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought...

    Correct

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a patient who has been brought into the emergency department by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the patient may have an obstructed airway.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burn patients is NOT true?

      Your Answer: High tidal volumes should be used in intubated patients

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72 year old female arrives at the emergency department after speaking with...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female arrives at the emergency department after speaking with her primary care physician over the phone. She explains that while she was shopping, her right arm and right leg suddenly felt weak and became a bit difficult to move. The patient is otherwise alert, oriented, feels well, and has normal speech. A brain CT scan reveals a focal area of ischemia consistent with an acute stroke. You arrange for her transfer to the stroke unit. The patient inquires if she can drive her car before going to the ward. What advice would you give her regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Advise them, they must not drive a car for at least 1 month following a confirmed stroke

      Explanation:

      Patients who have experienced a stroke should be aware that they are not allowed to drive for at least one month if they have a type 1 license. If there are no neurological issues after this time period, they may not need to inform the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency). However, they must inform the DVLA if any of the following conditions apply: they have had more than one stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), they have a Group 2 license, a medical practitioner has expressed concerns about their ability to drive, they still have residual deficits one month after the stroke (such as weakness in the limbs, visual problems, coordination difficulties, memory or understanding issues), the stroke required neurosurgical treatment, or if they experienced a seizure (unless it was an isolated seizure within 24 hours of the stroke and there is no history of prior seizures).

      Further Reading:

      Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.

      The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.

      For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.

      Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.

      For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student provides a tentative diagnosis of roseola. What is the infectious agent responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Human herpesvirus 6B

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of roseola is the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B), with the human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7) being a less common cause.

      Further Reading:

      Roseola infantum, also known as roseola, exanthem subitum, or sixth disease, is a common disease that affects infants. It is primarily caused by the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B) and less commonly by human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7). Many cases of roseola are asymptomatic, and the disease is typically spread through saliva from an asymptomatic infected individual. The incubation period for roseola is around 10 days.

      Roseola is most commonly seen in children between 6 months and 3 years of age, and studies have shown that as many as 85% of children will have had roseola by the age of 1 year. The clinical features of roseola include a high fever lasting for 2-5 days, accompanied by upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) signs such as rhinorrhea, sinus congestion, sore throat, and cough. After the fever subsides, a maculopapular rash appears, characterized by rose-pink papules on the trunk that may spread to the extremities. The rash is non-itchy and painless and can last from a few hours to a few days. Around 2/3 of patients may also have erythematous papules, known as Nagayama spots, on the soft palate and uvula. Febrile convulsions occur in approximately 10-15% of cases, and diarrhea is commonly seen.

      Management of roseola is usually conservative, with rest, maintaining adequate fluid intake, and taking paracetamol for fever being the main recommendations. The disease is typically mild and self-limiting. However, complications can arise from HHV6 infection, including febrile convulsions, aseptic meningitis, and hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of a sore throat and fever that has been bothering him for the past 2 days. The patient is specifically asking for a prescription for antibiotics. Which scoring system would be the most suitable for evaluating the patient's requirement for antibiotics?

      Your Answer: FeverPAIN

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a clinical scoring system that helps determine the probability of streptococcal infection and the necessity of antibiotic treatment. NICE recommends using either the CENTOR or FeverPAIN clinical scoring systems to assess the likelihood of streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotics. The RSI score is utilized to evaluate laryngopharyngeal reflux, while the CSMCPI is employed to predict clinical outcomes in patients with upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Lastly, the Mallampati score is used to assess the oropharyngeal space and predict the difficulty of endotracheal intubation.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening...

    Correct

    • A 47 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening abdominal pain and distension over the past 2 weeks. The patient has a history of alcohol dependence with multiple alcohol related visits to the hospital over the past 8 years. On examination, you observe a significantly swollen abdomen consistent with tense ascites which you suspect is due to liver cirrhosis. Which scoring system is utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality?

      Your Answer: Child Pugh score

      Explanation:

      The scoring system utilized to evaluate the severity of liver cirrhosis and predict mortality is the Child Pugh score. This scoring system takes into account several factors including the patient’s bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, presence of ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each factor is assigned a score and the total score is used to classify the severity of liver cirrhosis into three categories: A, B, or C. The higher the score, the more severe the liver cirrhosis and the higher the risk of mortality.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department following a fall with a suspected fracture of the hip. You gather a 20 gauge cannula for administration of IV fluids and pain relief. What would be considered the best approach for preparing the skin before cannulation?

      Your Answer: Skin cleaned for 30 seconds with 2% chlorhexidine gluconate in 70% alcohol

      Explanation:

      To minimize the risk of infection and promote proper healing, the best approach for preparing the skin would be to clean it for 30 seconds with 2% chlorhexidine gluconate in 70% alcohol. This solution has been shown to effectively kill bacteria and reduce the risk of infection. Other options such as povidone-iodine, 90% isopropyl alcohol, and 30% isopropyl alcohol may also have some antimicrobial properties, but they are not as effective as chlorhexidine gluconate.

      Further Reading:

      Peripheral venous cannulation is a procedure that should be performed following established guidelines to minimize the risk of infection, injury, extravasation, and early failure of the cannula. It is important to maintain good hand hygiene, use personal protective equipment, ensure sharps safety, and employ an aseptic non-touch technique during the procedure.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the skin should be disinfected with a solution of 2% chlorhexidine gluconate and 70% alcohol before inserting the catheter. It is crucial to allow the disinfectant to completely dry before inserting the cannula.

      The flow rates of IV cannulas can vary depending on factors such as the gauge, color, type of fluid used, presence of a bio-connector, length of the cannula, and whether the fluid is drained under gravity or pumped under pressure. However, the following are typical flow rates for different gauge sizes: 14 gauge (orange) has a flow rate of 270 ml/minute, 16 gauge (grey) has a flow rate of 180 ml/minute, 18 gauge (green) has a flow rate of 90 ml/minute, 20 gauge (pink) has a flow rate of 60 ml/minute, and 22 gauge (blue) has a flow rate of 36 ml/minute. These flow rates are based on infusing 1000 ml of normal saline under ideal circumstances, but they may vary in practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is found to have 'target cells' on her peripheral blood film.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Correct Answer: Sickle-cell disease

      Explanation:

      Target cells, also referred to as codocytes or Mexican hat cells, are a distinct type of red blood cells that display a unique appearance resembling a shooting target with a bullseye. These cells are commonly observed in individuals with sickle-cell disease, distinguishing it from the other conditions mentioned in the provided options. Hence, sickle-cell disease is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Additionally, target cells can also be associated with other conditions such as thalassaemia, liver disease, iron-deficiency anaemia, post splenectomy, and haemoglobin C disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42 year old male is brought into the resuscitation bay with multiple...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male is brought into the resuscitation bay with multiple injuries after a roof collapse. The patient has extensive bruising on the neck and a fractured femur caused by a beam that fell and crushed his right thigh. Your consultant intends to perform rapid sequence induction (RSI) and intubation. Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a medication that can cause an increase in serum potassium levels by causing potassium to leave muscle cells. This can be a problem in patients who already have high levels of potassium, such as those with crush injuries. Therefore, suxamethonium should not be used in these cases.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent urination, and blurred vision. His blood glucose levels are significantly elevated. He currently takes insulin injections and metformin for his diabetes. You organize for a urine sample to be taken and find that his ketone levels are markedly elevated, and he also has electrolyte abnormalities evident.
      Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute poisoning rather than chronic overexposure. The primary clinical features of theophylline toxicity include headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, tachycardia and dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, hypo- or hypercalcaemia, and hyperglycaemia. Seizures are more prevalent in cases of acute overdose compared to chronic overexposure. In contrast, chronic theophylline overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more frequently observed in individuals who have experienced chronic overdose rather than acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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