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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her daughter. The patient has been feeling sick for the past day. The patient's daughter suspects she may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets in the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What antidote should be readily accessible in the emergency department for the treatment of digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer: Digoxin specific antibody fragments
Explanation:Digoxin-specific antibody fragments, known as Digibind or Digifab, are utilized for the treatment of digoxin toxicity. These antibody fragments should be readily available in all hospital pharmacies across the UK and accessible within a maximum of one hour.
Further Reading:
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.
ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42 year old woman comes to the emergency department with a dislocated finger. You intend to perform a reduction under local anesthesia. The patient mentions that she used Entonox® during childbirth a decade ago and found it to be extremely effective. She inquires if she can use Entonox® for this procedure. What exactly is Entonox®?
Your Answer: 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen
Explanation:Entonox®, also known as ‘gas and air’ or ‘laughing gas’, is a combination of nitrous oxide and oxygen in equal proportions. It offers a mild sedative effect and helps reduce anxiety.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents very unwell with an acute exacerbation of his asthma.
Which of the following drug doses used in the treatment of acute adult asthma is incorrect?Your Answer: Terbutaline 5mg via oxygen-driven nebuliser
Explanation:The recommended drug doses for adult acute asthma are as follows:
– Salbutamol: Administer 5 mg using an oxygen-driven nebulizer.
– Ipratropium bromide: Deliver 500 mcg via an oxygen-driven nebulizer.
– Prednisolone: Take orally at a dose of 40-50 mg.
– Hydrocortisone: Administer 100 mg intravenously.
– Magnesium sulphate: Infuse 1.2-2 g intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.Terbutaline can be used as an alternative to salbutamol, with a dose of 10 mg via an oxygen-driven nebulizer. Intravenous salbutamol may be considered (250 mcg IV slowly) only when inhaled therapy is not possible, such as when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation.
According to the current ALS guidelines, IV aminophylline may be considered in severe or life-threatening asthma, following senior advice. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. It is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml to prevent toxicity.
For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a nosebleed that started after sneezing 20 minutes ago. She is currently using tissues to catch the drips and you have been asked to see her urgently by the triage nurse. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no signs of significant bleeding.
What initial measures should be taken in this case?Your Answer: Nasal cautery
Correct Answer: Gain Intravenous access
Explanation:When assessing a patient with epistaxis (nosebleed), it is important to start with a standard ABC assessment, focusing on the airway and hemodynamic status. Even if the bleeding appears to have stopped, it is crucial to evaluate the patient’s condition. If active bleeding is still present and there are signs of hemodynamic compromise, immediate resuscitative and first aid measures should be initiated.
Epistaxis should be treated as a circulatory emergency, especially in elderly patients, those with clotting disorders or bleeding tendencies, and individuals taking anticoagulants. In these cases, it is necessary to establish intravenous access using at least an 18-gauge (green) cannula. Blood samples, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, clotting profile, and group and save (depending on the amount of blood loss), should be sent for analysis. Patients should be assigned to a majors or closely observed area, as dislodgement of a blood clot can lead to severe bleeding.
First aid measures to control bleeding include the following steps:
1. The patient should be seated upright with their body tilted forward and their mouth open. Lying down should be avoided, unless the patient feels faint or there is evidence of hemodynamic compromise. Leaning forward helps reduce the flow of blood into the nasopharynx.
2. The patient should be encouraged to spit out any blood that enters the throat and advised not to swallow it.
3. Firmly pinch the soft, cartilaginous part of the nose, compressing the nostrils for 10-15 minutes. Pressure should not be released, and the patient should breathe through their mouth.
4. If the patient is unable to comply, an alternative technique is to ask a relative, staff member, or use an external pressure device like a swimmer’s nose clip.
5. It is important to dispel the misconception that compressing the bones will help stop the bleeding. Applying ice to the neck or forehead does not influence nasal blood flow. However, sucking on an ice cube or applying an ice pack directly to the nose may reduce nasal blood flow.If bleeding stops with first aid measures, it is recommended to apply a topical antiseptic preparation to reduce crusting and vestibulitis. Naseptin cream (containing chlorhexidine and neomycin) is commonly used and should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 5
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking warfarin as part of his treatment.
Which ONE of the following beverages should he avoid?Your Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Warfarin has been found to heighten the likelihood of bleeding events when consumed alongside specific juices, such as cranberry juice and grapefruit juice. As a result, individuals who are taking warfarin should be cautioned against consuming these beverages. For more information on this topic, please refer to the BNF section on warfarin interactions and the interaction between warfarin and cranberry juice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient currently undergoing treatment for a malignant condition comes in with a recent weight increase, puffiness in the face, high blood pressure, and acne. Blood tests show high sodium levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis.
Which of the following is the most probable location of this tumor?Your Answer: Lung
Explanation:Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) that originates from neuroendocrine tissue can lead to the development of paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, such as Cushing syndrome. This occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In this case, it is highly likely that the patient has a neuroendocrine tumor within the lung that is secreting ACTH.
The signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome may be minimal in cases of ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and the onset of symptoms may be sudden, especially in rapidly growing SCLCs. The typical biochemical profile observed in these cases includes elevated sodium levels, low potassium levels, and a metabolic alkalosis.
The tumors associated with the production of ectopic ACTH are as follows:
– Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) – 50%
– Bronchial carcinoid tumors – 10%
– Thymic carcinoma – 10%
– Pancreatic islet cell tumors – 5%
– Phaeochromocytoma – 5%
– Medullary thyroid carcinoma – 5% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 7
Correct
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You are getting ready to administer Propofol to a patient for cardioversion and anticipate a potential side effect. What is a common adverse reaction associated with Propofol?
Your Answer: Hypotension
Explanation:Propofol often leads to hypotension as a common side effect. Other common side effects of Propofol include apnoea, arrhythmias, headache, and nausea with vomiting.
Further Reading:
Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.
There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.
Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.
The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.
Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.
After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Explanation:Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:
Feature: Aortic stenosis
– Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
– Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
– Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
– Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: Radiates to carotids.Feature: Aortic sclerosis
– Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
– Pulse: Normal pulse character.
– Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
– Thrill: No thrill.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: No radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 2-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by a worried parent due to the child developing a barking cough and rapid breathing. After examining the child, you diagnose croup and decide to administer corticosteroids and monitor the child. One hour after giving the oral dexamethasone dose, the nurse requests your review as the child's respiratory rate has increased and the child appears lethargic. What is the next best course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Nebulised adrenaline
Explanation:Children with severe croup require high flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline as part of their treatment. If a child is agitated or lethargic, it is a sign that the disease is severe. In addition to standard steroid treatment, high flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline are necessary for treating severe croup. It is important to note that beta 2 agonists are not effective for children under 2 years old.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused and is experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is difficult to obtain a history from him as he is mumbling. You also note that he appears flushed and his skin is warm to the touch.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:This patient exhibits clinical features that are consistent with the ingestion of a drug that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system. There are several anticholinergic drugs commonly used in clinical practice. Some examples include antihistamines like promethazine and diphenhydramine, typical and atypical antipsychotics such as haloperidol and quetiapine, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine, antidepressants like tricyclic antidepressants, and antispasmodics like hyoscine butylbromide. Other sources of anticholinergic effects can come from plants like datura species and certain mushrooms.
When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in both the central and peripheral nervous system. The central inhibition leads to an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma and seizures. The peripheral inhibition can cause dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.
In summary, the ingestion of an anticholinergic drug can result in a toxidrome characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of these drugs and to recognize the clinical features associated with their ingestion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal drug that he has been prescribed.
Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be causing this?Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.
Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes in with complaints of tiredness and frequent nosebleeds. During the examination, she displays a widespread petechial rash and enlarged gums.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:Leukaemic infiltrates in the gingiva are frequently observed in cases of acute myeloid leukaemia. This type of leukaemia primarily affects adults and is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 65 and 70. The typical presentation of acute myeloid leukaemia involves clinical symptoms that arise as a result of leukaemic infiltration in the bone marrow and other areas outside of the marrow. These symptoms may include anaemia (resulting in lethargy, pallor, and breathlessness), thrombocytopaenia (manifesting as petechiae, bruising, epistaxis, and bleeding), neutropenia (leading to increased susceptibility to infections), hepatosplenomegaly, and infiltration of the gingiva.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Correct
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You are the designated team leader in the resuscitation of a cardiac arrest patient. Your colleague disagrees with the decision to continue with the resuscitation.
What is the most appropriate course of action for you to take?Your Answer: Listen to the reason that they disagree and if their concerns are justified, change your decision accordingly
Explanation:In a resuscitation scenario, problem-solving and teamwork are crucial. The pressure is high, and tough decisions need to be made. As the team leader, it is important to value the opinions of other team members, especially those with more experience. By listening to the registrar’s perspective, you may gain new insights that could impact your decision-making process. Collaboration is key in such situations, and if you find yourself unsure of the best course of action, don’t hesitate to seek assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has experienced a significant amount of vaginal bleeding accompanied by the passage of blood clots. She reports feeling lightheaded. Her prenatal blood tests indicate that she is Rh-negative. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 46, blood pressure of 82/43, respiratory rate of 22, and oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. The resuscitation nurse has successfully inserted an intravenous line, and a comprehensive set of blood samples, including a cross-match, has been sent to the laboratory.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Rhesus haemolytic disease
Correct Answer: Cervical shock syndrome
Explanation:This patient is experiencing vaginal bleeding along with bradycardia and hypotension. These symptoms can be attributed to a condition known as cervical shock syndrome. It is likely that the products of conception (POC) are located within the os. In cervical shock syndrome, the cervix becomes dilated due to the presence of POC, leading to an increase in bleeding and triggering a vasovagal reaction.
To address this situation, it is crucial to conduct an urgent speculum examination. During this examination, the POC should be carefully removed using sterile sponge forceps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You review a 30-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV. She asks you some questions about her diagnosis.
What is the median incubation period from HIV infection until the development of advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS)?Your Answer: 2 years
Correct Answer: 10 years
Explanation:The estimated median incubation period from HIV infection to the onset of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS, is around ten years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 15 kg toddler presents with clinical signs of shock and 10% dehydration as a result of gastroenteritis. A 20 ml/kg fluid bolus is given initially.
How much fluid should be given over the next 24 hours following this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4100 ml
Explanation:The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space, whereas clinical dehydration is only noticeable after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.
The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children based on their body weight:
Bodyweight:
– First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
– Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
– Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg, hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kgIn general, a child showing clinical signs of dehydration without shock is assumed to be 5% dehydrated. If shock is also present, it is assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. 5% dehydration means the body has lost 5 g per 100 g body weight, which is equivalent to 50 ml/kg of fluid. Therefore, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 ml/kg of fluid.
In this case, the child is in shock and should receive a 20 ml/kg fluid bolus. The initial volume of fluid to administer should be 20 x 25% ml = 500 ml.
Following this, the child requires:
– 100 ml/kg replacement for the 10% dehydration = 100 x 25 = 2500 ml
– 1st 10 kg = 100 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 100 x 10 = 1000 ml
– 2nd 10kg = 50 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 50 x 10 = 500 ml
– Subsequent kg = 20 ml/kg for daily maintenance fluid = 20 x 5 = 100 mlThe total fluid needed for rehydration and maintenance is 2500 + 1600 = 4100 ml over a 24-hour period.
The clinical features of dehydration are summarized below:
Dehydration (5%):
– Appears ‘unwell’
– Normal heart rate or tachycardia
– Normal respiratory rate or tachypnea
– Normal peripheral pulses
– Normal or mildly prolonged -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old individual experiences a stroke. The primary symptoms include weakness in the limbs on the right side, particularly affecting the right leg and right shoulder, as well as dysarthria.
Which blood vessel is most likely to be impacted in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:
Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.
Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.
Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.
It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches and occasional fevers. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of malaria. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment, but his condition worsens, leading to the development of jaundice, renal failure, and haemoglobinuria.
What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:Malaria is a contagious illness that is spread by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. It is a parasitic infection caused by the Plasmodium genus. There are five species of Plasmodium that are known to cause disease in humans: Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.
The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a recurring pattern of symptoms. It begins with a cold phase, during which the patient experiences intense chills. This is followed by a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot. Finally, there is a sweating stage, during which the fever subsides and the patient sweats profusely. Upon examination, the patient may exhibit signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen, but there is no evidence of swollen lymph nodes.
If a patient develops haemoglobinuria (the presence of hemoglobin in the urine) and renal failure after treatment, it may indicate a condition called blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. In this condition, an autoimmune reaction occurs between the parasite and quinine, leading to the destruction of red blood cells, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. Blackwater fever can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman becomes pregnant despite being on the oral contraceptive pill. Upon reviewing her medication, you discover that she has epilepsy and her anticonvulsant therapy was recently altered.
Which of the following anticonvulsants is most likely to impact the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants have been found to enhance the metabolism of ethinyl estradiol and progestogens. This increased breakdown diminishes the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) in preventing pregnancy. Some examples of enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants include carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitol, and topiramate.
On the other hand, non-enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants are unlikely to have an impact on contraception. Some examples of these anticonvulsants are sodium valproate, clonazepam, gabapentin, levetiracetam, and piracetam.
It is important to note that lamotrigine, although classified as a non-enzyme-inducing anticonvulsant, requires special consideration. While there is no evidence suggesting that the OCP directly affects epilepsy, there is evidence indicating that it reduces the levels of lamotrigine in the bloodstream. This reduction in lamotrigine levels could potentially compromise seizure control and increase the likelihood of experiencing seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methemoglobinemia. What test would you employ to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MetHb
Explanation:COHb is a measure used to evaluate the presence of carbon monoxide poisoning in individuals who are in good health. hHb refers to deoxygenated haemoglobin.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. After careful calculation, you have determined that the patient's fluid requirement for the next 24 hours is 6 liters. How would you prescribe this amount?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50% (3 litres in this case) over first 8 hours then remaining 50% (3 litres in this case) over following 16 hours
Explanation:Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.
When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.
Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.
The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.
Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.
Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.
Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then treating it with a zinc chloride solution to increase its concentration. This process creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This allows it to effectively inhibit the absorption of toxins by up to 50%.
The usual dose of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.
However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. These include cases where the patient is unconscious or in a coma, as there is a risk of aspiration. It should also be avoided if seizures are imminent, as there is a risk of aspiration. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, activated charcoal should not be used to prevent the risk of obstruction.
Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with certain drugs and toxins, such as aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in cases of overdose with iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.
There are potential adverse effects associated with the use of activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhalation of charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency department acutely ill and is transferred to resus. Your consultant suspects thyrotoxic crisis and instructs you to prepare the necessary medication. What drugs are typically administered during the initial treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antithyroid drug, beta blocker, corticosteroids and iodine solution
Explanation:Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and dangerous complication of hyperthyroidism. The initial management of this condition involves the use of specific medications. These medications include a beta blocker, a corticosteroid, an antithyroid drug, and an iodine solution.
The beta blocker used is typically propranolol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg over 1 minute. If a beta blocker is contraindicated, a calcium channel blocker such as diltiazem may be used instead, at a dose of 0.25 mg/kg over 2 minutes.
For corticosteroids, hydrocortisone is commonly used and given intravenously at a dose of 200 mg. Alternatively, dexamethasone can be used at a dose of 2 mg intravenously.
The antithyroid drug used is usually propylthiouracil, which is given orally, through a nasogastric tube, or rectally, at a dose of 200 mg.
An iodine solution, specifically Lugol’s iodine, is also part of the initial management. However, it should not be administered until at least 1 hour after the antithyroid drug has been given. This is because iodine can exacerbate thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, preventing the formation of T4 and T3. Therefore, it is given first and allowed time to take effect before iodine is administered.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old individual is preparing to board a flight for a business conference and has concerns regarding the potential risk of developing DVT. They would like to inquire about the minimum duration of travel that is considered to pose an elevated risk of DVT during air travel.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 hours
Explanation:The World Health Organisation Research into Global Hazards of Travel (Wright) Project found that the main factor contributing to deep venous thrombosis is being immobile, and the risk of developing a blood clot is higher when traveling for more than 4 hours. According to the Wright Study, the absolute risk of experiencing deep venous thrombosis during flights lasting over 4 hours was found to be one in 4656. For more information on this topic, you can refer to the guidance provided by the Civil Aviation Authority for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A father brings his 6-year-old daughter to the emergency department with a 6 cm laceration to the right thigh. The wound requires suturing. Your consultant suggests you suture the child under ketamine sedation as the child is upset by the wound. You are confident there are no contraindications and proceed to obtain parental consent. Which of the following risks should be specifically listed on the consent form and discussed with the parent giving consent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rash
Explanation:Ketamine sedation in children should only be performed by a trained and competent clinician who is capable of managing complications, especially those related to the airway. The clinician should have completed the necessary training and have the appropriate skills for procedural sedation. It is important for the clinician to consider the length of the procedure before deciding to use ketamine sedation, as lengthy procedures may be more suitable for general anesthesia.
Examples of procedures where ketamine may be used in children include suturing, fracture reduction/manipulation, joint reduction, burn management, incision and drainage of abscess, tube thoracostomy placement, foreign body removal, and wound exploration/irrigation.
During the ketamine sedation procedure, a minimum of three staff members should be present: a doctor to manage the sedation and airway, a clinician to perform the procedure, and an experienced nurse to monitor and support the patient, family, and clinical staff. The child should be sedated and managed in a high dependency or resuscitation area with immediate access to resuscitation facilities. Monitoring should include sedation level, pain, ECG, blood pressure, respiration, pulse oximetry, and capnography, with observations taken and recorded every 5 minutes.
Prior to the procedure, consent should be obtained from the parent or guardian after discussing the proposed procedure and use of ketamine sedation. The risks and potential complications should be explained, including mild or moderate/severe agitation, rash, vomiting, transient clonic movements, and airway problems. The parent should also be informed that certain common side effects, such as nystagmus, random purposeless movements, muscle twitching, rash, and vocalizations, are of no clinical significance.
Topical anesthesia may be considered to reduce the pain of intravenous cannulation, but this step may not be advisable if the procedure is urgent. The clinician should also ensure that key resuscitation drugs are readily available and doses are calculated for the patient in case they are needed.
Before administering ketamine, the child should be prepared by encouraging the parents or guardians to talk to them about happy thoughts and topics to minimize unpleasant emergence phenomena. The dose of ketamine is typically 1.0 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection over at least one minute, with additional doses of 0.5 mg/kg administered as required after 5-10 minutes to achieve the desired dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old construction worker presents with hematemesis. He consumed excessive alcohol with his colleagues the previous night and began vomiting towards the end of the evening. After forcefully retching and vomiting multiple times, he observed traces of blood in his vomit. He vomited once again this morning and is extremely worried as there was still blood present.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Explanation:Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a condition characterized by a tear in the lining of the esophagus, specifically near the junction where the esophagus meets the stomach. This tear is typically caused by forceful retching and vomiting and is often associated with behaviors such as binge drinking, eating disorders, and hyperemesis gravidarum. Fortunately, the bleeding usually stops within 24-48 hours and invasive procedures like endoscopy are rarely necessary.
It is important to note that Mallory-Weiss syndrome should not be confused with Boerhaave’s syndrome, which is the spontaneous rupture of a healthy esophagus, usually following intense vomiting. Patients with Boerhaave’s syndrome experience respiratory collapse, subcutaneous emphysema, and acute abdominal pain. While Boerhaave’s syndrome is rare, it is more commonly observed in individuals who abuse alcohol.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man experiences anaphylaxis after being stung by a bee. He is rushed to the resuscitation room for immediate treatment.
Which category of hypersensitivity reaction does anaphylaxis exemplify?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type I
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a type I hypersensitivity reaction, where the body’s response is triggered by the attachment of an antigen to a specific antibody. This attachment then leads to the release of histamine and other mediators, such as leukotrienes, tumor necrosis factor, and various cytokines, from mast cells and basophils. These substances are released when these cells are exposed to the antigen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of pain around her belly button that has now shifted to the lower right side of her abdomen. You suspect she may have appendicitis.
Which ONE statement about this diagnosis is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The risk of developing it is highest in childhood
Explanation:Appendicitis is characterized by inflammation of the appendix. It is believed to occur when the appendix lumen becomes blocked, and in confirmed cases, about 75-80% of resected specimens contain faecoliths. This condition is most commonly seen in childhood and becomes less common after the age of 40. Mortality rates increase with age, with the highest rates observed in the elderly.
The classic presentation of appendicitis involves early, poorly localized pain around the belly button, which then moves to the lower right side of the abdomen (known as the right iliac fossa). Other common symptoms include loss of appetite, vomiting, and fever. The initial belly button pain is an example of visceral pain, which is pain that originates from the embryonic origin of the affected organ. The later pain in the right iliac fossa is known as parietal pain, which occurs when the inflamed appendix irritates the peritoneum (the lining of the abdominal cavity).
Approximately 20% of appendicitis cases occur in an extraperitoneal location, specifically in the retrocaecal position. In these cases, a digital rectal examination is crucial for making the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 mg/dL. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences discomfort and a burning sensation at the site of his IV, along with complaints of nausea, intense lower back pain, and a sense of impending catastrophe. His temperature is measured and found to be 39.2°C.
What is the most suitable course of action for treatment in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion and administer IV fluids
Explanation:Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion usage, errors and adverse reactions still occur.
One serious complication is acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, which happen when incompatible red cells are transfused and react with the patient’s own antibodies. This usually occurs due to human error, such as mislabelling sample tubes or request forms. Symptoms of this reaction include a feeling of impending doom, fever, chills, pain and warmth at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and back, joint, and chest pain. Immediate action should be taken to stop the transfusion, replace the donor blood with normal saline or another suitable crystalloid, and check the blood to confirm the intended recipient. IV diuretics may be administered to increase renal blood flow, and urine output should be maintained.
Another common complication is febrile transfusion reaction, which presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise. This reaction is usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in the transfused blood components. Supportive treatment is typically sufficient, and paracetamol can be helpful.
Allergic reactions can also occur, usually due to foreign plasma proteins or anti-IgA. These reactions often present with urticaria, pruritus, and hives, and in severe cases, laryngeal edema or bronchospasm may occur. Symptomatic treatment with antihistamines is usually enough, and there is usually no need to stop the transfusion. However, if anaphylaxis occurs, the transfusion should be stopped, and the patient should be administered adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a severe complication characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion. It is associated with antibodies in the donor blood reacting with recipient leukocyte antigens. This is the most common cause of death related to transfusion reactions. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion, administering oxygen, and providing aggressive respiratory support in approximately 75% of patients. Diuretic usage should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the pills she takes for insomnia. She informs you that the pill she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She consumed the pills approximately 2 hours ago. She is currently experiencing tachycardia, with her most recent heart rate reading being 120 beats per minute. She weighs 65 kg. You administer a dose of propranolol, but there is no improvement in her condition.
Which of the following treatments could now be given to support her cardiovascular system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High dose insulin – euglycaemic therapy
Explanation:Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.
When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.
The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:
1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.
2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.
3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.
4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.
5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.
6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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