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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection
The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.Renal Stones
Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.Renal Cell Carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.Urinary Tract Infection
Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents to your clinic with complaints of increased urgency to urinate and frequent leakage of urine. A urinary dipstick test shows no abnormalities, and a vaginal examination is unremarkable. Malignancy is not suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's urgency urinary incontinence?
Your Answer: Bladder retraining
Explanation:The initial treatment for urge incontinence is bladder retraining, while pelvic floor muscle training is the first-line approach for stress incontinence. Toileting aids alone are not effective in resolving urge incontinence and should not be recommended as the primary treatment. Oxybutynin and botulin injections may be considered as secondary treatment options if necessary.
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.
In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?
Your Answer: May preceed CVD symptoms by more than three years
Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured
Explanation:Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.5 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?
Your Answer: TRUS-guided biopsy
Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI
Explanation:The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.
Investigation for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.
Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the surgery having noticed fresh blood in his semen yesterday evening. This has not occurred previously and he is otherwise fit and well. He is married and has never changed sexual partner.
On examination, blood pressure is 110/70; abdominal, testicular, and digital rectal examination are normal. His urine culture result returns with no significant growth.
What is the next most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer urgently to Urology
Correct Answer: Scrotal ultrasound
Explanation:Haematospermia: Causes and Referral Guidelines
Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually a benign and self-limiting condition. In men under 40, infection is the most common cause. If no underlying cause is found for a single episode of haematospermia, it is likely to resolve on its own. Referral to haematology is not necessary unless there are other signs of a bleeding disorder, leukaemia, or lymphoma. However, urgent referral to Urology may be necessary for patients over 40 or those with signs of prostate cancer, such as an elevated PSA or abnormal digital rectal examination. Scrotal ultrasound may be useful if there is testicular swelling. Ciprofloxacin may be used to treat prostatitis, but it is not typically indicated for haematospermia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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You see a 75-year-old man for his annual medication review. He takes ramipril for chronic renal impairment but his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) has fallen by 20% since he was last seen 3 months ago. You repeat the test and the results are confirmed. He reports feeling well in himself and apart from getting up several times during the night to pass urine and a reduced urinary stream he reports no other symptoms. Abdominal examination is normal but an abdominal ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Bladder outflow obstruction
Explanation:Urinary Obstruction: Causes and Symptoms
Urinary obstruction can occur due to various congenital and acquired conditions. Congenital ureteric strictures and urethral valve obstruction are common in infants, while bladder stones can cause bilateral obstructive symptoms in adults. Urethrocele is a condition seen in women, while prostatic enlargement is a common cause of bladder outflow obstruction in men. Acquired urethral strictures can also lead to similar symptoms. Backpressure in the urinary tract can cause renal damage, leading to palpable distended bladder and other complications. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urinary obstruction to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man comes to you with a scrotal swelling on the right side that has been worsening over the past two weeks. He is concerned about its appearance and has developed a dragging sensation. Upon examination while lying flat, a tense varicocele is observed on the right side. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Consider delayed referral to Urology if the discomfort worsens
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to Urology
Explanation:If a patient has rapidly developing varicoceles, solitary right-sided varicoceles, or varicoceles that remain tense when lying down, especially if they are over 40 years old, it could be a sign of testicular tumors. In such cases, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary to rule out cancer. Given the presence of several red flags in this patient, an urgent referral is required. Other options should be avoided as they may cause delays in diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Scrotal Problems: Epididymal Cysts, Hydrocele, and Varicocele
Epididymal cysts are the most frequent cause of scrotal swellings seen in primary care. They are usually found posterior to the testicle and separate from the body of the testicle. Epididymal cysts may be associated with polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, or von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by ultrasound, and management is typically supportive. However, surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They can be communicating or non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are common in newborn males and usually resolve within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, and further investigation, such as ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.
Varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins. They are usually asymptomatic but may be important as they are associated with infertility. Varicoceles are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound with Doppler studies. Management is usually conservative, but occasionally surgery is required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.
The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2
One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
- Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2
The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?Your Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive
Explanation:If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man is found to have an average blood pressure of 163/101 mmHg on home monitoring. Baseline bloods show a creatinine (Cr) of 95 µmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l) and estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 80 ml/min (normal range: > 90 ml/min). His urine albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 2.8 (normal range: < 3 mg/mmol).
He is commenced on ramipril 2.5 mg once daily. He tolerates this well and returns to his General Practice Surgery for blood tests two weeks later, which show a Cr level of 125 µmol/l and an eGFR level of 62 mg/mmol.
What is the most likely cause for the change in this man’s renal function?Your Answer: Concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis (RAS)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of acute kidney injury after starting ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure, but they can also cause a decline in renal function, especially in patients with renal artery stenosis (RAS). Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function before and after initiating or adjusting ACE inhibitors, especially in patients with risk factors for RAS. In this case, a patient who started ramipril developed a reduction in estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which was consistent with underlying RAS.
Other potential causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) in this patient include dehydration, progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD), hypertensive nephropathy, and concomitant use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). However, the absence of relevant history or laboratory findings makes these diagnoses less likely. Dehydration can cause AKI, but there is no evidence of volume depletion or electrolyte imbalance. CKD is unlikely given the normal urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR) and lack of prior renal dysfunction. Hypertensive nephropathy is a chronic condition that typically manifests as proteinuria and gradual decline in renal function, rather than an acute response to antihypertensive treatment. NSAIDs can exacerbate renal impairment in patients with preexisting renal insufficiency, but there is no indication that the patient was taking any NSAIDs.
Therefore, the most likely explanation for the AKI in this patient is the use of ACE inhibitors, which can reduce intraglomerular pressure and renal perfusion in patients with RAS. This highlights the importance of considering the differential diagnosis of AKI in patients who start or change antihypertensive medications, especially ACE inhibitors, and monitoring renal function accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Correct
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with liver failure underwent successful transplantation 3 months ago. He has now developed progressive renal failure.
Select the single most likely cause.Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Explanation:Immunosuppressive Therapy for Liver Transplant Rejection: Drugs and Potential Side Effects
Liver transplant rejection can be prevented through a combination of drugs, including a calcineurin inhibitor, steroids, and azathioprine. Subsequent immunosuppression may involve tacrolimus or ciclosporin alone, or dual therapy with either azathioprine or mycophenolate. However, these drugs can also cause various side effects.
Ciclosporin toxicity, for instance, can lead to chronic renal failure in patients who have received different types of allografts. It may also cause a dose-dependent increase in serum creatinine and urea, which may require dose reduction or discontinuation. Azathioprine can cause blood dyscrasias and liver impairment, while mycophenolate mofetil can cause hypogammaglobulinaemia, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis. Prednisolone, on the other hand, doesn’t affect renal function.
It is important to monitor patients for potential side effects and adjust the dosage or switch to alternative drugs as needed. Additionally, it is unlikely that perioperative causes of renal dysfunction will be significant three months after surgery. About 10-20% of patients taking tacrolimus may develop calcineurin inhibitor-related renal impairment five years after transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You received a letter from the ophthalmology department regarding Mrs. Patel, an 80-year-old woman who has been listed for cataract surgery. They report that her blood pressure (BP) is raised at 156/94 mmHg and ask you to follow this up, as her BP needs to be well controlled before the operation will be performed.
You have a look at her medication list and see she is already on amlodipine 5mg, losartan 50 mg, and hydrochlorothiazide 12.5mg.
Her most recent renal profile is below.
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 82 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Assuming she is compliant with her medications, what is the next treatment step for her hypertension?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic with a potassium level greater than 4.5mmol/L, the recommended 4th-line option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. It is important to check for postural hypotension and confirm the elevated clinic reading with home/ambulatory BP monitoring for patients with resistant hypertension. Combining an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor with an angiotensin II receptor blocker, such as candesartan, is not recommended. There is no need to switch patients who are already taking bendroflumethiazide to indapamide. Referral to cardiology would be appropriate if the patient remains uncontrolled on the maximum tolerated dose of a 4th antihypertensive.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation. He reports no recent unprotected sexual intercourse and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Idiopathic and self-limiting
Explanation:Understanding Haematospermia: Causes and Symptoms
Haematospermia, the presence of blood in the ejaculate, is a common and usually benign symptom that can affect men of any age. In about 50% of cases, the cause is unknown and the symptom is self-limiting. However, further investigation may be necessary for men over 40 or those with accompanying symptoms such as perineal pain or abnormal examination findings.
Other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, epididymitis, hypertension, and prostate cancer, can also cause haematospermia. However, these conditions are usually accompanied by other symptoms such as dysuria, testicular pain, urinary symptoms, penile discharge, headaches, visual disturbance, or are unlikely in a 35-year-old man without any other symptoms.
It is important to seek medical attention if haematospermia persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in with an inflamed glans and prepuce of his penis. He has not been sexually active for six months and denies any discharge. He reports cleaning the area twice a day. He has no history of joint problems or skin conditions. Which of the following statements is accurate in this case?
Your Answer: It is likely this is an irritant reaction
Correct Answer: It is likely this is an allergic reaction
Explanation:Balanitis: Causes and Management
Balanitis is a common condition that presents in general practice. It can have various causes, but the most likely cause in many cases is an irritant reaction from excessive washing and use of soaps. Other common causes include Candida, psoriasis, and other skin conditions. If there is any discharge, swabbing should be done. If ulceration is present, herpes simplex virus (HSV) should be considered. In older men with persistent symptoms, Premalignant conditions and possible biopsy may be considered.
The management of balanitis involves advice, reassurance, and a topical steroid as the initial treatment. Testing for glycosuria should be considered to rule out Candida. If the symptoms persist, further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. It is important to identify the cause of balanitis to ensure appropriate management and prevent recurrence. By understanding the causes and management of balanitis, healthcare professionals can provide effective care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of consuming bendroflumethiazide?
Your Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Gout is more likely to occur as a result of taking bendroflumethiazide, rather than pseudogout.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient presents with lower urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following statements about benign prostatic hyperplasia is not true?
Your Answer: Possible presentations include recurrent urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases
Explanation:The use of Goserelin (Zoladex) is not recommended for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, urinary frequency, and urgency. She appears to be in good health and is only taking folic acid. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. A urine dip test reveals positive results for leucocytes and nitrates but negative for ketones and glucose. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate antibiotic therapy. What is the most suitable duration of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: 7 days
Explanation:For pregnant women with a UTI, a 7-day course of antibiotics is necessary. During the first trimester, nitrofurantoin is the preferred antibiotic, given as 100 mg modified-release twice a day for the entire duration. However, it should be avoided during the term as it may cause neonatal haemolysis. Uncomplicated UTIs in non-pregnant patients can be treated with a 3-day course of antibiotics. For simple lower respiratory tract infections or skin infections, a 5-day course of antibiotics is recommended. Previously, men with UTIs were advised to undergo a 10-14 day treatment, but the latest NICE guidance in 2018 recommends a 7-day course of either trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for suspected lower urinary tract infections in men.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old gentleman who is being investigated for subfertility. His semen analysis result shows a mild oligozoospermia.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Refer to fertility clinic
Correct Answer: Repeat test in 12 weeks
Explanation:Repeat Confirmatory Semen Analysis and Other Fertility Advice
According to NICE, it is recommended to repeat confirmatory semen analysis after 3 months (12 weeks) from the initial test. This is to allow the cycle of spermatozoa to be completed. However, if there is a significant deficiency in spermatozoa, a repeat test should be taken as early as possible.
While it is known that elevated scrotal temperatures can reduce semen quality, it is uncertain whether wearing loose-fitting underwear can improve fertility. Nevertheless, it is still advisable to wear looser underwear while trying to conceive.
Screening for antisperm antibodies is not recommended as there is no effective treatment to improve fertility. The significance of these antibodies is still unclear.
Overall, these recommendations can help couples who are trying to conceive to take practical steps towards improving their fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman is found to be hypertensive. Her renal function is normal but urine dipstick testing shows blood ++. Her mother had also been hypertensive and had died prematurely aged 37 years of a cerebral haemorrhage.
Select the single most likely cause of this patient’s hypertension.Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
Explanation:Causes of Hypertension with Renal Involvement
Hypertension with renal involvement has various causes, with renal impairment being the most common identifiable cause. Dipstick haematuria is a strong indicator of glomerulonephritis, particularly IgA nephropathy. However, if there is a family history and cerebral haemorrhage, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a likely cause. ADPKD is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease and often presents with hypertension and microscopic haematuria. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal arteries, which is autosomal dominant, may also cause hypertension but doesn’t present with haematuria. Renovascular atherosclerosis, on the other hand, causes hypertension but doesn’t show abnormal dipstick testing. A bruit may be audible in both fibromuscular dysplasia and renovascular atherosclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?Your Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Explanation:Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management
Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.
Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.
Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?Your Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis
Explanation:Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know
PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
– PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
– It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
– It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
– It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
– It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of stage 3 chronic kidney disease (CKD) attends his annual check-up with his General Practitioner. He reports feeling well.
During the examination, his haemoglobin (Hb) level is measured at 107 g/l (normal range: 125–165 g/l), and his mean cell volume (MCV) is 86 fl (normal range: 80–100 fl). Iron studies come back normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer the patient to nephrology for erythropoietin consideration
Explanation:Management of Renal Anaemia in CKD Patients
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and anaemia may require referral to nephrology for erythropoietin treatment if their hemoglobin (Hb) levels are below 110 g/l or if they experience symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, lethargy, and palpitations. Other causes of anaemia should be ruled out before considering erythropoiesis-stimulating agents to maintain Hb levels between 100-120 g/l in adults. Endoscopy may be necessary in cases of iron-deficiency anaemia, but not in normocytic anaemia with normal iron studies. Iron-replacement therapy is not required in this case. Referral to nephrology is necessary for patients with CKD and renal anaemia, diagnosed when Hb levels drop below 110 g/l. Waiting for Hb levels to drop below 10.0 g/dl before referral is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with left-sided pain. He reports the pain as radiating from his left flank down to his groin. The pain is severe, comes in waves and the patient looks visibly restless. He has not taken any analgesia.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and stage 4 chronic kidney disease.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate initial analgesia to prescribe in this case?
Your Answer: Per rectal diclofenac
Correct Answer: IV paracetamol
Explanation:Choosing the Appropriate Analgesia for a Patient with Renal/Ureteric Colic
When treating a patient with renal or ureteric colic, it is important to consider their medical history and current condition before prescribing analgesia. In this case, the patient has severe kidney disease, which rules out the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) as they can cause further harm to the kidneys.
The most appropriate initial analgesia for this patient is IV paracetamol. While opioids such as IV morphine can be considered, they should be reserved as a third-line option. Oral codeine may also be used, but only after NSAIDs and IV paracetamol have been ruled out.
It is important to note that NSAIDs such as oral naproxen and per rectal diclofenac are typically the first-line analgesics for renal/ureteric colic. However, they are contraindicated in this patient due to their severe kidney disease.
In summary, when choosing the appropriate analgesia for a patient with renal/ureteric colic, it is crucial to consider their medical history and current condition. In this case, IV paracetamol is the most appropriate initial option due to the patient’s severe kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, reporting symptoms of frequent urination, weak urinary stream, and dribbling at the end of urination. He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately a year. Upon examination, his prostate is soft and normal in size, his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) falls within the normal range for his age, and his bladder and kidneys are not palpable. He has a history of renal colic and has previously undergone cystoscopic removal of a bladder stone. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urethral stricture
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urinary Symptoms: A Differential Diagnosis
Urinary symptoms can be caused by various conditions, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause. One possible cause is urethral stricture, which refers to the narrowing of the urethra due to scarring from inflammation, trauma, infection, tumors, or surgery. Patients may experience no symptoms, mild discomfort, or complete urinary retention. Another possible cause is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which can cause urinary frequency, poor stream, and terminal dribbling, but normal examination findings make prostatic disease unlikely. Bladder stones can also cause urinary symptoms such as suprapubic pain, dysuria, intermittency, frequency, hesitancy, nocturia, and urinary retention, as well as terminal hematuria and sudden cessation of voiding with associated pain. Chlamydia infection can cause urethritis with urethral discharge and dysuria, and a possible late complication is a stricture. Prostatic carcinoma can also cause similar symptoms, but the patient’s young age and normal examination of the prostate and PSA result make this diagnosis unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.
The urine culture report indicates:
Significant growth of Escherichia coli
Trimethoprim Sensitive
Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
Cefalexin Sensitive
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter
Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation
Explanation:Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence
Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.
Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.
While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 70-year-old patient with diabetes, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). He had an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) 2 months ago for which he had a stent. He is having his annual review when he mentions that he has suffered from erectile dysfunction for the last 2 years. He says that it came on gradually and that he now never has erections anymore, in any situation. He has been married for 45 years and this is having an effect on his relationship with his wife.
His blood pressure today is 135/85 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal that his blood glucose levels are well controlled on oral medications and his CKD is stable. He takes regular exercise.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for this patient's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: Sildenafil
Correct Answer: A vacuum erection device along with lifestyle advice
Explanation:The NICE clinical knowledge summary (CKS) guidelines recommend phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitors, such as sildenafil and tadalafil, as the first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction (ED) unless there are contraindications. However, those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors may benefit from vacuum erection devices, which are recommended as the first-line treatment for well-informed older men with infrequent sexual intercourse and comorbidity requiring non-invasive, drug-free management of ED. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should also be considered, but this patient already has good control of his risk factors and regularly exercises. Intracavernous injections may be a second-line option for men with pelvic trauma or spinal cord injury. Vasculogenic causes, such as cardiovascular disease, are the most common organic cause of ED, and lifestyle changes and drug treatment can be effective in managing this condition.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 63-year-old man, John, reports that his older brother has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer after having his PSA test done as part of the national screening programme. John says that he has had his PSA test today and the results were normal.
When will John's next PSA test be due?Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:In the UK, breast cancer screening is currently offered to women between the ages of 50 and 70 every three years. However, there are plans to expand this service to include women aged 47 to 73 by the end of 2016. Additionally, women between the ages of 40 and 50 who are at a high risk of developing breast cancer may be offered screening every two years.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old gentleman who has come to discuss PSA testing. He recently read an article in a newspaper that discussed the potential role of PSA testing in screening for prostate cancer and mentioned seeing your GP to discuss this further.
He is otherwise well with no specific urinary tract/genitourinary signs or symptoms. He has no significant past medical history or family history.
What advice would you give regarding PSA testing?Your Answer: 2 out of 3 men with a raised PSA level will not have prostate cancer
Correct Answer: 1 in 25 men with a normal PSA level will turn out to have prostate cancer
Explanation:PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer: Benefits and Limitations
PSA testing for prostate cancer in asymptomatic men is a contentious issue with some advocating it as a screening test and others wary of over-treatment and patient harm. It is important to clearly impart the benefits and limitations of PSA testing to the patient so that they can make an informed decision about whether to be tested.
One of the main debates surrounding PSA testing is its limitations in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Two out of three men with a raised PSA will not have prostate cancer, and 15 out of 100 with a negative PSA will have prostate cancer. Additionally, PSA testing cannot distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, leading to potential over-treatment.
There is also debate about the frequency of PSA testing. Patients with elevated PSA levels who are undergoing surveillance often have PSA levels done every three to six months, but how often should a PSA level be repeated in an asymptomatic man who has had a normal result? Some experts suggest a normal PSA in an asymptomatic man doesn’t need to be repeated for at least two years.
When it comes to prostate cancer treatment, approximately 48 men need to undergo treatment in order to save one life. It is important for patients to weigh the potential benefits and limitations of PSA testing before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy experiences urinary retention and an acute kidney injury. Which medication should be discontinued?
Your Answer: Finasteride
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Due to the risk of lactic acidosis, metformin should be discontinued as the patient has developed an acute kidney injury. Additionally, in the future, it may be necessary to discontinue paroxetine as SSRIs can exacerbate urinary retention.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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