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  • Question 1 - A young adult woman complains that her mother interferes in every aspect of...

    Correct

    • A young adult woman complains that her mother interferes in every aspect of her life and tries to control her. The woman no longer speaks to her parents or eats meals with them. The mother has increased her efforts to maintain control.

      Which of the following conditions could arise from this situation?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Psychological Disorders and Family Dynamics

      Family dynamics can play a role in the development of certain psychological disorders. Anorexia nervosa, for example, may be linked to attempts to regain control and self-esteem through food restriction and weight loss. Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is associated with severe childhood trauma, particularly sexual abuse. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterised by exaggerated feelings of self-importance and a strong need for approval from others. Schizophrenia may be influenced by highly expressed emotions within the family. Separation anxiety disorder, however, does not seem to be present in the given vignette. Understanding the relationship between family dynamics and psychological disorders can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on Chest X-Ray. He appears unwell to you. His urea level is 8 mmol/l, and respiratory rate is 38 breaths per minute. His pulse rate is 89, and blood pressure is 120/58 mmHg.

      What is the patient's CURB 65 score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer: Test vaginal pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:

      1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.

      2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.

      3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.

      4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.

      5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.

      In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, lethargic, and disoriented, and it is suspected that he has not had a meal in the past two days. The medical team decides to initiate chlordiazepoxide PRN and administer IV Pabrinex. Which specific vitamin, found in Pabrinex, can help halt the progression of symptoms leading to Wernicke's encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: B1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man who drinks 6 cans of soda a day would like...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man who drinks 6 cans of soda a day would like to stop his habit. He is considering taking varenicline (Champix®) to help him quit smoking and wants to learn about its potential side effects.
      What is the most common side effect associated with orlistat?

      Your Answer: Galactorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Abnormal dreams

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Varenicline

      Varenicline is a medication commonly used to help people quit smoking. However, like any medication, it can have side effects. One of the most common side effects is abnormal dreams and sleep disorders. While eye pain, lacrimation, and visual disturbances can occur, increased intraocular pressure is not a known side effect. Menorrhagia and vaginal discharge may occur, but amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea are not associated with varenicline. It’s important to note that nicotine withdrawal symptoms can occur as early as 4 hours after the last cigarette and peak around 48 hours after quitting. These symptoms can include headache, anxiety, tobacco cravings, appetite changes, nausea, paraesthesiae, sleep disturbance, sweating, and low mood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about it. He has a medical history of dyspepsia, hypertension, and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer. Which medication from his prescription list is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Goserelin

      Explanation:

      The use of GnRH agonists (such as goserelin) for treating prostate cancer can lead to the development of gynaecomastia. This medication can also cause loss of libido and erectile dysfunction due to its mode of action. Bisoprolol does not have any known association with gynaecomastia. While metoclopramide can cause nipple discharge and hyperprolactinaemia, it is not linked to gynaecomastia. On the other hand, cimetidine (not omeprazole) is known to cause gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of...

    Correct

    • The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of medication may be linked to a higher incidence of venous thromboembolism in older individuals?

      Your Answer: Atypical antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is diagnosed with a 1.5 cm uterine fibroid that is not distorting the uterine cavity. She has two children and desires ongoing contraception, but is currently relying solely on condoms. What is the recommended initial treatment for her menorrhagia?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      Medical treatment can be attempted for uterine fibroids that are smaller than 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. This may include options such as an intrauterine system, tranexamic acid, or COCP. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest starting with an intrauterine system, which can also serve as a form of contraception.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and...

    Correct

    • A 44 year old patient is undergoing quadruple therapy (rifampicin, isoniazid, ethambutol and pyrazinamide) for a confirmed diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis. During a respiratory follow up, the patient reports a decline in vision, particularly a decrease in the vibrancy of colors. What modification would you suggest for the medication?

      Your Answer: Stop ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The use of ethambutol has been linked to optic neuropathy and the onset of color blindness. If these symptoms occur, the medication should be stopped. To prevent these adverse effects, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is often administered alongside ethambutol in medical settings.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior GP in a bustling surgery, you are approached by the son (next-of-kin) of one of your middle-aged patients who brings her in for evaluation. The patient appears to be in a state of agitation and is expressing bizarre delusions and paranoid beliefs, causing a disturbance in the surgery by shouting. She is uncooperative during the consultation and frequently pleads to be allowed to leave. Both you and the son agree that urgent psychiatric assessment is necessary.

      Which section of the Mental Health Act (1983) would allow a GP to detain a patient for emergency psychiatric evaluation?

      Your Answer: Section 3

      Correct Answer: Section 4

      Explanation:

      In cases where there is a need for urgent psychiatric assessment, GPs may utilize Section 4 of the Mental Health Act. This can be done with the assistance of an AMHP or NR, and allows for the emergency transfer of the patient. Unlike Section 2, which requires the agreement of two psychiatrists, Section 4 is used when there is a risk of unacceptable delay in the patient’s care. It provides a 72-hour window for assessment, after which it is typically converted to a Section 2. Additionally, the police have the authority under Section 135 and 136 to take a patient to a safe location for psychiatric evaluation.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      32.4
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  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of leg weakness. Other than a recent cold 1 month ago, he has been feeling well and has no significant medical history. On examination, it is noted that he has reduced power in his legs as well as reduced knee and ankle reflexes. His lower peripheral sensation was intact. What investigation can be done to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) whole spine

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Guillain-Barré Syndrome

      Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. To confirm a diagnosis of GBS, several diagnostic tests may be performed.

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is often done to confirm GBS and rule out an infection in the meninges. An LP in GBS would show a rise in protein with a normal white-blood-cell count, found in 66% of patients with GBS.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the whole spine is unlikely to show GBS-specific abnormalities in the early stages of the disease, as it starts in the peripheral nervous system.

      Blood cultures are not diagnostic of GBS, as the presence of Campylobacter jejuni (often the trigger for GBS) is unlikely to be detected four weeks after the infection.

      Computed tomography (CT) of the head is not useful in diagnosing GBS, as the pathology is in the peripheral nervous system, and an abnormality in the brain would not be seen on imaging.

      Electromyography (EMG) is not typically performed in GBS diagnosis. Instead, nerve conduction studies may be performed, which could show decreased motor nerve-conduction velocity (due to demyelination), prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F-wave latency.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical presentation, lumbar puncture, and nerve conduction studies can help diagnose Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.8
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  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.

      Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      184.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with Down's syndrome presents to you with a recent diagnosis of essential hypertension. He is accompanied by his caregiver and expresses his fear of needles, requesting medication that does not require regular blood tests. Which of the following medications would be appropriate for him?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of renal function and electrolytes is necessary for both Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, and Candesartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      24.4
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  • Question 16 - A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who is worried about his breathing problems. He has an oxygen saturation of 90%, his chest is slightly wheezy, but there is weak inspiratory effort, and his lips are pale.
      What is the probable classification of the acute asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Correct Answer: Life-threatening acute asthma

      Explanation:

      The child is experiencing life-threatening acute asthma, which is a medical emergency. This is defined as having any of the following features: SpO2 below 92%, peak expiratory flow below 33% of the best or predicted, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, hypotension, exhaustion, or confusion. Therefore, 999 should be called immediately. This is not moderate or mild acute asthma, nor is it acute severe asthma, as the child is showing signs of cyanosis. Acute severe asthma is defined as having any of the following: SpO2 between 33-50% of the best or predicted, inability to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed, heart rate above 125 beats/min (for ages over 5) or above 140 beats/min (for ages 1-5), or respiratory rate above 30 breaths/min (for ages over 5) or above 40 breaths/min (for ages 1-5).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. He has a photograph and is worried about the different appearances of her eyes. One eye shows a normal red reflex while the other appears white. He wants to know if this is normal.

      What is your advice for him?

      Your Answer: Reassure; check every 6 months and refer if persisting aged 2

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology

      Explanation:

      If a newborn lacks red reflex, it is important to consider the possibility of retinoblastoma. Other causes should also be evaluated, but urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for a comprehensive, dilated eye examination is necessary.

      Retinoblastoma is a prevalent type of eye cancer that is commonly found in children, with an average age of diagnosis at 18 months. It is caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. About 10% of cases are hereditary. The most common presenting symptom is the absence of red-reflex, which is replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria). Other possible features include strabismus and visual problems.

      When it comes to managing retinoblastoma, enucleation is not the only option. Depending on how advanced the tumor is, other treatment options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, and photocoagulation. The prognosis for retinoblastoma is excellent, with over 90% of patients surviving into adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?

      Your Answer: DC cardioversion

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:

      Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.

      Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.

      DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.

      Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A man of 45 years presents following the death of his wife.
    Which one...

    Correct

    • A man of 45 years presents following the death of his wife.
      Which one of the following is going to heighten your suspicion of an abnormal grief reaction?

      Your Answer: Delayed or absent grief

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal and Normal Grief Reactions

      Grief is a highly individualized experience that can be influenced by personal, social, and cultural factors. There are three recognized types of abnormal grief reactions: delayed, inhibited, and prolonged. Delayed grief is characterized by a delay of more than two weeks before grieving begins, or sometimes not occurring at all until triggered by another subsequent bereavement. Inhibited grief occurs when the bereaved person appears minimally affected by the death, and prolonged grief lasts significantly longer than average.

      On the other hand, normal grief reactions are characterized by features such as sadness, weeping, poor sleep, reduced appetite, motor restlessness, searching for the deceased, poor concentration and memory, low mood (but not frank depression), and the impression of seeing or hearing the deceased. Poor memory, brief episodes of seeing the dead person, poor concentration, and searching for the deceased are all common manifestations of a normal grief reaction.

      It is important to note that there is a great degree of flexibility when assessing whether a grief reaction is normal or abnormal, as it is a highly personal experience. Understanding the different types of grief reactions can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain, headache, and blurred vision that started 3 hours ago. He denies any history of eye disease or trauma.
      During the examination, the left eye appears red and watery, while the right pupil reacts normally to light, but the left pupil remains dilated and unresponsive.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by sudden onset of unilateral eye pain and visual loss, often accompanied by a headache. Examination findings consistent with glaucoma include an erythematous globe with a fixed and dilated pupil and a hazy cornea. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and examination findings.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old woman complains of 'strange spots' affecting her eyesight. She has observed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman complains of 'strange spots' affecting her eyesight. She has observed several flashes and floaters in the visual field of her left eye over the last few days. What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Posterior vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal tear is a common condition among individuals aged 65 years and above, and it is the most probable diagnosis in this case. Typically, an ophthalmologist will evaluate such patients to determine the likelihood of developing retinal detachment.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old woman with bipolar disorder presents to the GP clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with bipolar disorder presents to the GP clinic for a medication review as she plans to conceive. She is currently prescribed lithium as a mood stabilizer. What potential fetal abnormality should be considered with this medication?

      Your Answer: 'Grey baby' syndrome

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Cardiac foetal abnormalities, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly, can be caused by lithium. Chloramphenicol is linked to ‘Grey baby’ syndrome, while ACE inhibitors, alcohol, carbamazepine, valproate, and warfarin are associated with craniofacial abnormalities. Carbamazepine and valproate are also linked to neural tube defects.

      Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses

      During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some of the teratogens that can cause harm to a developing fetus include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.

      ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, while carbamazepine can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome, and cocaine can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor.

      Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, while lithium can cause Ebstein’s anomaly (atrialized right ventricle). Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth, while thalidomide can cause limb reduction defects. Finally, warfarin can cause craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.

      It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man complains of bilateral leg pain that occurs during walking. He has a history of peptic ulcer disease and osteoarthritis. The pain usually starts after walking for about 5 minutes and goes away when he sits down. He has noticed that leaning forward or crouching helps relieve the pain. There are no abnormalities found during musculoskeletal and vascular examination of his lower limbs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory arachnoiditis

      Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      This presentation is typical of spinal stenosis. Although peripheral arterial disease is a possible alternative diagnosis, the pain relief factors and absence of abnormalities in the vascular examination suggest otherwise.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a check-up. The foetal heart rate is detected on the Doppler scan and growth rates are appropriate for the gestational age. The mother reports to the midwife that she has been experiencing faster breathing than usual in the recent weeks. The midwife reassures her that an increase in ventilation is a typical occurrence during pregnancy. What other physiological changes are considered normal during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Red blood cell volume increases

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.

      If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 16-year-old high school student visits his doctor because he is struggling with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old high school student visits his doctor because he is struggling with his self-esteem due to skin problems. During the examination, you observe multiple open and closed comedones mainly on his chin and cheeks. He also reports experiencing painful papules on his back. About six weeks ago, your colleague prescribed him topical benzoyl peroxide and topical fusidic acid, but he feels that they have not been effective. He has no medical history and is not taking any other medications. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin

      Correct Answer: Oral oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that she has previously received treatment for constipation, but is generally healthy. The mother reports that the child is currently passing only one hard stool every 3-4 days, which resembles 'rabbit droppings'. There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhea. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake

      Correct Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.9
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter who is worried about his confusion after a recent chest infection. She mentions that he did not get better even after taking amoxicillin. During the examination, crackles are heard on the left side of his chest and his vital signs show a respiratory rate of 28/min, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, and heart rate of 110/min.

      What would be the suitable fluid therapy to administer?

      Your Answer: 500ml stat

      Explanation:

      This individual displays several indicators of red flag sepsis, such as confusion, hypotension, and elevated respiratory rate. It is imperative to initiate the sepsis 6 protocol.
      According to the NICE guidelines for sepsis, when administering intravenous fluid resuscitation to patients aged 16 and above, it is recommended to use crystalloids containing sodium levels between 130-154 mmol/litre, with a 500 ml bolus administered in less than 15 minutes.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.9
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  • Question 29 - A 25 year-old woman and her partner visit their GP due to their...

    Correct

    • A 25 year-old woman and her partner visit their GP due to their inability to conceive after trying for 4 months. The woman reports having regular periods and no identifiable cause in her medical history. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Address how the couple are having sexual intercourse and reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      When a couple is trying to conceive, it is normal for it to take up to one year for them to be successful. Therefore, medical examinations are typically conducted after one year of consistent attempts to conceive. However, it may be wise to address any physical barriers that could be hindering the couple’s ability to conceive, which is why their sexual history is taken into consideration.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in secondary dysmenorrhoea?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in secondary dysmenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Adenomyosis is the condition where the tissue lining the uterus (endometrium) grows into the muscular wall of the uterus (myometrium).

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:

      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l

      What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Oral alendronate + prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      22.7
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  • Question 32 - A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse,...

    Correct

    • A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      PaO2 11.9 kPa
      pH 7.35 7.40 ± 0.05
      PaCO2 27 mmHg
      Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol
      Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol
      HCO3− 15 mmol
      Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol
      Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
      With which of the following are the results consistent?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by various medical conditions. One such condition is an Addisonian crisis, which occurs due to severe adrenal insufficiency. This results in reduced activity of aldosterone, causing sodium loss and potassium retention, leading to hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

      Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, resulting in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but with an increased anion gap due to ketone bodies.

      Diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. However, excessive thiazide treatment would result in hypokalaemia and not hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?

      Your Answer: Serum IGF1 levels

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing

      Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles for the past 8 months, and missing 3 periods recently. She also reports experiencing sudden hot flashes for the last 4 months. The patient has a history of breast cancer and underwent chemotherapy and radiation. On examination, no abnormalities are found, and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer: Offer diet and lifestyle advice only

      Correct Answer: Offer dapagliflozin

      Explanation:

      Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He...

    Correct

    • You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He struggles to stand up, using his arms to assist him in rising from a squat. What is this maneuver called?

      Your Answer: Gower's sign

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dystrophinopathies

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in connecting the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both of the binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other common symptoms include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene. This mutation preserves both binding sites, resulting in a less severe form of the disorder. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 10 years, and intellectual impairment is much less common in patients with Becker muscular dystrophy.

      Overall, understanding dystrophinopathies is important for early diagnosis and management of these disorders. While there is currently no cure for dystrophinopathies, early intervention and supportive care can help improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most probable psychiatric issue that he may experience?

      Your Answer: Tics

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Depression is a prevalent psychiatric issue in patients with Parkinson’s disease, with approximately 40% of individuals experiencing it, despite dementia being a common comorbidity.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old woman is seen in the rheumatology clinic after being diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is seen in the rheumatology clinic after being diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 6 months ago. She was initially started on methotrexate, however, was unable to tolerate its side effects. The consultant is considering starting the patient on hydroxychloroquine.
      What should happen before the patient begins treatment?

      Your Answer: Blood film

      Correct Answer: Examination by an ophthalmologist

      Explanation:

      Patients who will be on long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment must now undergo an initial ophthalmologic examination. Recent studies indicate that hydroxychloroquine-induced retinopathy is more prevalent than previously believed. The latest guidelines from RCOphth (March 2018) recommend color retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula for patients who are expected to take the medication for more than five years. While it is recommended to conduct a complete blood count and assess renal and liver function when starting hydroxychloroquine, other options are unnecessary.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents to you with his mother, reporting pain in his left hip. He is typically healthy, but he recently saw another doctor for a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The pain began two days ago, and he is hesitant to put weight on his left leg.

      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis of the hip

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for a child experiencing hip pain, limp, and a recent infection could be transient synovitis.

      Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in the coronary care unit. The heart monitor records this event. An emergency call is made and a defibrillator is quickly brought to the scene. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Administer one shock, then commence CPR

      Correct Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then commence CPR

      Explanation:

      In a witnessed cardiac arrest with VF/VT rhythm, up to three quick successive shocks should be given before starting chest compressions. This is regarded as the first shock in the ALS algorithm. Adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes and a praecordial thump should only be used if a defibrillator is not available. Commencing CPR after just one shock would miss the opportunity to deliver three rapid shocks.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin

      Explanation:

      There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with complaints of dry, gritty, and painful eyes bilaterally. She has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years and has found little relief with frequent use of lubricating eye drops. Upon examination, both eyelids were crusted and had irregular margins. The meibomian orifices on both lids were obstructed with oily material. What is the underlying cause of this woman's dry eye condition?

      Your Answer: Chronic conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Meibomian blepharitis

      Explanation:

      When the tarsal glands are chronically infected, they can hinder the production of the precorneal tear film, which is responsible for slowing down the evaporation of tears. This can ultimately lead to dry eyes.

      The tarsal glands, also known as Meibomian glands, produce an oily substance that forms the outer layer of the precorneal tear film. This oily substance helps to prevent tear evaporation, while also improving tear stability and spreading. However, when Meibomian blepharitis occurs, the production of this oil is reduced, causing excessive water from the tear film to evaporate and resulting in dry eyes. None of the other options listed are relevant to this issue, as they do not involve dysfunction of the Meibomian glands.

      Understanding Dry Eye Syndrome

      Dry eye syndrome is a condition that causes discomfort in both eyes, with symptoms such as dryness, grittiness, and soreness that worsen throughout the day. Exposure to wind can also cause watering of the eyes. People with Meibomian gland dysfunction may experience symptoms that are worse upon waking, with eyelids sticking together and redness of the eyelids. In some cases, dry eye syndrome can lead to complications such as conjunctivitis or corneal ulceration, which can cause severe pain, photophobia, redness, and loss of visual acuity.

      Although there may be no abnormalities on examination, eyelid hygiene is the most appropriate management step for dry eye syndrome. This can help control blepharitis, which is a common condition associated with dry eye syndrome. By understanding the symptoms and appropriate management steps, individuals with dry eye syndrome can find relief and improve their overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 70-year-old male has been admitted to the cardiology ward following his presentation...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male has been admitted to the cardiology ward following his presentation to the emergency department with palpitations and dyspnoea. After further investigations, he was diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed digoxin for rate control. What is the recommended frequency for routine drug monitoring in this case?

      Your Answer: No routine monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Digoxin levels do not require regular monitoring, unless there is suspicion of toxicity. As this patient is commencing digoxin and has no signs of toxicity, routine monitoring is unnecessary. It is not necessary to measure digoxin levels every month until they have stabilized, nor is it appropriate to monitor the drug every 2 weeks for the first 3 months. Routine monitoring is also not required annually throughout the course of treatment.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 57-year-old woman and her husband arrive at the hospital with concerns about...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman and her husband arrive at the hospital with concerns about her increasing forgetfulness. The husband reports that she has lost her keys multiple times and struggles to remember her daily activities. The patient herself is worried about developing dementia, especially since her grandmother had it. She has diabetes, hypertension, and agitated depression, and has been taking medication for a recent urinary tract infection. Which of the listed medications is the most likely cause of her memory problems?

      Medication list:
      - Metformin/Glicizide for diabetes
      - Lorazepam for sleep and anxiety
      - Citalopram for depression
      - Nitrofurantoin for urinary tract infection

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that can cause anterograde amnesia as a side effect, resulting in significant impairment of memory recall and the formation of new memories. Additionally, it is utilized in anesthesia.

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genital herpes

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a history of psoriasis visits his GP complaining of a deterioration in his psoriatic plaques. He has been prescribed multiple medications by his cardiologist to alleviate his cardiac symptoms.
      Which of the following newly prescribed medications is the probable cause of this man's psoriasis exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic plaques can be worsened by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, but not by calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel. However, NSAIDs like aspirin can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, has no impact on psoriasis.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
    Sodium...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
      Sodium 130 mmol/l (135-145)
      Potassium 7.3mmol/l (3.5-5.0)
      Urea 9.1mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
      Creatinine 167 mmol/l (60-110)
      To begin with, she is administered IV calcium gluconate.
      What effect does this medication have on the electrolyte levels?

      Your Answer: No change

      Explanation:

      To stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, IV calcium gluconate is administered. This is done to prevent further increase in potassium levels. The removal of potassium from the extracellular space to the intracellular space is achieved through a combination of insulin and dextrose or nebulized salbutamol. Calcium resonium is then used to excrete potassium from the body.

      Managing Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, if left untreated, can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to address any precipitating factors, such as acute kidney injury, and stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. The management of hyperkalaemia can be categorised by the aims of treatment, which include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body.

      The severity of hyperkalaemia can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, with the latter being defined as a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L or higher. It is important to note that the presence of ECG changes is crucial in determining the appropriate management. ECG changes associated with hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern.

      The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia involve stabilising the cardiac membrane with IV calcium gluconate, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments with a combined insulin/dextrose infusion or nebulised salbutamol, and removing potassium from the body with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis. In practical treatment, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment with IV calcium gluconate, insulin/dextrose infusion, and other temporary measures to lower serum potassium levels. Further management involves stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying cause, and lowering total body potassium with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His urine and serum tests reveal elevated ketone levels, and his serum glucose level is 3 mmol/L. An ABG is conducted, and the results are as follows:
      pH 7.24
      PaO2 14.7 kPa
      PCO2 3.5 kPa
      HCO3 13 mEq/L
      What is the most probable cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient is experiencing metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose levels, alcohol consumption should be considered as a possible cause. This condition is characterized by partial respiratory compensation. While diabetic ketoacidosis could also be a potential cause, a serum glucose level of 3mmol/L makes it less likely. Therefore, the patient is more likely to be suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis. It is important to note that a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state would present with high serum glucose levels and normal ketone levels, while a diabetic hypoglycemic episode would not typically result in elevated ketone levels or metabolic acidosis.

      Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.

      The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical glycopyrrolate

      Correct Answer: Aluminium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.

      Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following causes Scarlet fever? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes Scarlet fever?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus species (group A haemolytic)

      Explanation:

      Scarlet Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by toxin-producing strains of the group A streptococcal bacterium (Streptococcus pyogenes). It is a notifiable disease to Public Health England. The symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and a rash with a red strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, fine papular rash, tonsillitis, tiredness, headache, nausea, and vomiting.

      The condition is treated with fluids, an antipyretic, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Other causes such as Influenza pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, and Parvovirus B19 are not related to scarlet fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has scarlet fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      8.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (4/5) 80%
Cardiovascular (2/4) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (7/7) 100%
Neurology (1/3) 33%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (4/7) 57%
Paediatrics (0/4) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/3) 33%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/5) 60%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed