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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male experienced the sudden death of his spouse. Within a week, he arrived at the Emergency department with an inability to speak at a normal volume and could only communicate in hushed tones.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Logoclonia
Correct Answer: Aphonia
Explanation:Speech disturbances can be caused by organic of psychogenic disorders. In this case, the patient is experiencing dissociative aphonia, which is a conversion disorder where psychological stress is converted into physical symptoms. Aphonia is the loss of ability to vocalize, resulting in whispered speech, and can also occur in organic disorders. Dysphonia is a speech impairment characterized by hoarseness but without complete loss of function. Echolalia is the automatic repetition of words of parts of sentences spoken in the presence of the person. Logoclonia is a condition where the patient may get stuck on a particular word, resulting in spasmodic repetition of syllables of words. Stuttering is a speech disorder characterized by involuntary repetitions, prolongations, of blocks in speech flow, resulting in silent pauses of difficulty producing sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 2
Correct
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Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox. She has a history of memory lapses. Upon examination, there are no significant cognitive impairments. What nutritional supplement should be considered to decrease her chances of experiencing neuropsychiatric complications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:For individuals undergoing treatment for alcohol dependence, it is recommended to administer prophylactic Vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent the development of neuropsychiatric complications such as Wernicke’s of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The administration of intravenous of intramuscular thiamine (Pabrinex) is effective in reducing the risk of such complications. However, a lower dosage is used for prophylactic purposes compared to the dosage used for individuals with established cognitive deficits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Who is the author of 'The Psychopathology of Everyday Life'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sigmund Freud
Explanation:History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Identify the genetic trait that is inherited through the mitochondria.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy
Explanation:Inheritance Patterns and Examples
Autosomal Dominant:
Neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, and Noonan’s syndrome are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern. This means that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed to cause the condition.Autosomal Recessive:
Phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, and cystic fibrosis are all examples of conditions that follow an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. This means that two copies of the mutated gene are needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Dominant:
Vitamin D resistant rickets and Rett syndrome are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked dominant inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the condition.X-Linked Recessive:
Cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, and Lesch-Nyhan are examples of conditions that follow an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located on the X chromosome and two copies of the gene are needed to cause the condition.Mitochondrial:
Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy and Kearns-Sayre syndrome are examples of conditions that follow a mitochondrial inheritance pattern. This means that the mutated gene is located in the mitochondria and is passed down from the mother to her offspring. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is believed to be the cause of the negative symptoms observed in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased dopaminergic activity in the frontal lobe
Explanation:Psychosis is associated with heightened dopaminergic activity in the striatum, while negative symptoms are linked to reduced dopaminergic activity in the frontal lobe.
The Dopamine Hypothesis is a theory that suggests that dopamine and dopaminergic mechanisms are central to schizophrenia. This hypothesis was developed based on observations that antipsychotic drugs provide at least some degree of D2-type dopamine receptor blockade and that it is possible to induce a psychotic episode in healthy subjects with pharmacological dopamine agonists. The hypothesis was further strengthened by the finding that antipsychotic drugs’ clinical effectiveness was directly related to their affinity for dopamine receptors. Initially, the belief was that the problem related to an excess of dopamine in the brain. However, later studies showed that the relationship between hypofrontality and low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) dopamine metabolite levels indicates low frontal dopamine levels. Thus, there was a move from a one-sided dopamine hypothesis explaining all facets of schizophrenia to a regionally specific prefrontal hypodopaminergia and a subcortical hyperdopaminergia. In summary, psychosis appears to result from excessive dopamine activity in the striatum, while the negative symptoms seen in schizophrenia appear to result from too little dopamine activity in the frontal lobe. Antipsychotic medications appear to help by countering the effects of increased dopamine by blocking postsynaptic D2 receptors in the striatum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of memory problems, frequent falls, and disrupted REM sleep. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:In addition to fluctuating cognition and visual hallucinations, Lewy body dementia often involves sensitivity to neuroleptics. Patients may also experience falls and REM sleep disorder as common symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of tumor that is caused by human herpesvirus 8. When it is associated with AIDS, it typically appears as red to purple-red macules on the skin that quickly progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions tend to occur on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes, and can also be found in the lymph nodes, stomach, intestines, and lungs in more advanced cases. Individuals with severe mental illness are at a higher risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and are more likely to have HIV infection compared to the general population. Therefore, it is important to have a basic understanding of the symptoms of this condition.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is a typical EEG finding in individuals with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slow background rhythm with paroxysmal sharp waves
Explanation:Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is characterized by a slow background rhythm accompanied by paroxysmal sharp waves on EEG, while the remaining options are typical EEG features of the aging process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a description of a dopamine pathway in the brain that is relevant to schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median raphe nucleus to VTA
Explanation:The median raphe nucleus is a group of neurons located in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating mood, anxiety, and stress. It is connected to various brain regions, including the ventral tegmental area (VTA), which is a key component of the brain’s reward system.
The connection between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA is important because it allows for the modulation of reward-related behaviors and emotions. The median raphe nucleus sends serotonergic projections to the VTA, which can influence the release of dopamine, a neurotransmitter that is associated with pleasure and reward.
Studies have shown that disruptions in the communication between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA can lead to various psychiatric disorders, such as depression and addiction. Therefore, understanding the mechanisms underlying this connection is crucial for developing effective treatments for these conditions.
In summary, the connection between the median raphe nucleus and the VTA is an important pathway for regulating reward-related behaviors and emotions, and disruptions in this pathway can lead to psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the origin of agoraphobia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escape conditioning is involved
Explanation:Beck identified two cognitive distortions, catastrophization and selective abstraction, which play a role in the development of depression. These distortions involve magnifying negative events and selectively focusing on negative aspects, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Aetiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What is the most probable reason for the mixed martial artist's motivation to become a champion despite experiencing humiliation from his father as a child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:The man’s mother’s stance against violence prevented him from acting aggressively towards his father. Instead, he found an outlet for his aggression through martial arts, which was deemed socially acceptable. His success as a champion suggests that he sublimated his aggression into a positive pursuit, rather than displacing it onto others, which is a less mature defense mechanism. There is no indication that he repressed his feelings towards his father, as he was able to channel his aggression in a constructive manner.
Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the OTC medication that poses the highest risk of a severe interaction with an MAOI antidepressant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorphenamine
Explanation:Chlorphenamine, also known as Piriton, is classified as a first-generation antihistamine that functions by obstructing the H1 receptor. This sedative antihistamine is utilized to treat allergic conditions like hay fever. Additionally, it is present in certain cough medicines as it reduces the production of mucus.
MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions
First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).
MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.
Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.
Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the truth about hyperprolactinemia that is linked to the use of antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is often asymptomatic
Explanation:Hyperprolactinemia is frequently without symptoms, and determining whether treatment is necessary involves weighing the present symptoms, potential long-term risks, and perceived advantages of maintaining the antipsychotic. It is frequently discovered by chance and does not typically necessitate altering the medication regimen.
Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following sleep disruptions is not commonly linked to depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased total sleep time
Explanation:Depression and Sleep Architecture
Major depression has been extensively studied using polysomnography, a technique that records brain waves, eye movements, and muscle activity during sleep. The results of these studies have consistently shown that individuals with depression experience significant disruptions in their sleep architecture.
Specifically, depression is associated with decreased sleep continuity, meaning that individuals may wake up frequently throughout the night. Additionally, depression is characterized by prolonged sleep onset latency, of the amount of time it takes to fall asleep, as well as increased wake time after sleep onset, which refers to the amount of time spent awake during the night.
Other sleep disturbances commonly observed in individuals with depression include decreased sleep efficiency, of the amount of time spent asleep relative to the amount of time spent in bed, and decreased total sleep time. Early morning awakenings are also common in depression, as are reductions in slow wave sleep, which is the deepest stage of sleep.
Interestingly, depression is also associated with changes in REM sleep, the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs. Specifically, individuals with depression tend to have reduced REM sleep onset latency, meaning they enter REM sleep more quickly, as well as increased REM density, of the amount of eye movements during REM sleep. Additionally, individuals with depression may spend a prolonged amount of time in the first REM sleep period.
Overall, the disruptions in sleep architecture observed in depression may contribute to the development and maintenance of depressive symptoms. Understanding these sleep disturbances may therefore be an important target for the treatment of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What factors contribute to the development of depression in relation to social background?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brown and Harris
Explanation:Depression (Brown and Harris)
In 1978, Brown and Harris conducted a study on 458 women in the inner London area of Camberwell to investigate the causes of depression. The study resulted in the development of a model that identified four vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women. These factors included having three of more children under the age of 14 at home, lacking an intimate relationship with a husband of boyfriend, lacking employment outside of the home, and experiencing the loss of a mother before the age of 11 years. The model emphasized the role of psychosocial factors in the development of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35 year old anxious man, during the course of his therapy, says that he is calm but the whole world is anxious. Which of the following defense mechanisms does this illustrate?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Projection
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A researcher studying suicide prevention strategies in elderly populations is gathering information on the prevalence of suicide. What was the rate of suicide in the United Kingdom in 2011 among individuals aged 65 and older?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: UK suicide rates increased significantly between 2010 and 2011
Explanation:Between 2007 and 2011, there was a significant increase in the suicide rate among males aged 45 to 59, with 22.2 deaths per 100,000 population in 2011. The highest suicide rate overall was observed in males aged 30 to 44, with 23.5 deaths per 100,000 population in 2011. For females, the highest suicide rate was seen in the 45- to 59-year-old age group, with 7.3 deaths per 100,000 population in 2011. In 2011, there were 4,552 male suicides (a rate of 18.2 suicides per 100,000 population) and 1,493 female suicides (5.6 per 100,000 population).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Durkheim proposed models of suicide that were based on which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The influence of the relationship between and individual and the society
Explanation:History of major works in psychiatry
Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
Ronald Laing – The divided self
Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
Tom Main – The Ailment
Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Identify the option that represents a secondary amine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desipramine
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: First and Second Generation
Tricyclic antidepressants are classified into two generations: first generation of tertiary amines, and second generation of secondary amines. The secondary amines are known to have fewer side effects and primarily affect noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines are believed to enhance both serotonin and noradrenaline.
Secondary amines include Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, and Amoxapine. On the other hand, tertiary amines include Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Dosulepin (Dothiepin), Doxepin, Trimipramine, and Butriptyline.
By understanding the differences between the two generations of tricyclic antidepressants, healthcare professionals can better tailor their treatment plans to their patients’ needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In 1848, an accident caused a severe brain injury to Phineas Gage in the USA. Despite the injury, he managed to survive and became a renowned case in the history of psychiatry. Can you identify the primary brain region that was affected by his injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The tamping rod caused a severe injury by piercing through his skull, damaging a significant portion of his left frontal lobe and leading to a drastic alteration in his personality. Sadly, he passed away at the age of 36, 12 years after the incident.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Regarding the following medications, smoking tobacco will not affect the levels of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:While there is some conflicting evidence, it is generally believed that tobacco smoking does not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of lithium.
Tobacco products predominantly smoked tobacco that burns the organic matter produces hydrocarbons. And these hydrocarbons lead to the induction of certain cytochrome p450 enzymes notably CYP1A2 predominantly but also CYP1A1 and also CYP2E1 or other major enzymes that are induced by tobacco. This will lead to the increased clearance of a variety of pharmacologic agents that are used especially in psychiatric populations. The most important ones to remember are antipsychotics and one of the antidepressants specifically fluvoxamine. When it comes to antipsychotics, clozapine and olanzapine are probably the most important ones to remember but also haloperidol and chlorpromazine could be affected as well. But for antidepressants, it’s really fluvoxamine that’s going to be mostly affected. And what this means is that while the person is actively smoking cigarettes, the clearance of these medications is increased probably anywhere from 20% to 50% or sometimes even more. And so what this means is those individuals may require higher doses than usual.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of the Thematic Apperception Test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Personality
Explanation:The TAT is a psychological test that uses ambiguous pictures of people to elicit narratives from subjects. These narratives provide insight into the subjects’ underlying motives, concerns, and social perspectives.
Neuropsychological Tests
Neuropsychological tests are used to assess cognitive function and behavior in individuals with neurological of psychiatric conditions. These tests are designed to evaluate specific domains of cognitive function, such as attention, language, memory, visuospatial skills, executive function, and intelligence. They can also be used to assess personality traits and emotional functioning.
Attention: The digit span test measures an individual’s ability to remember and repeat a series of numbers. The Trails A test assesses visual attention and processing speed.
Language: The Boston Naming Test evaluates an individual’s ability to name objects. Verbal fluency tests assess an individual’s ability to generate words within a specific category.
Memory: The Wechsler Memory Scale assesses different aspects of memory, including immediate and delayed recall. The Ray Auditory Verbal Learning Test measures an individual’s ability to remember a list of words.
Visuospatial skills: The Ray-Osterrieth Complex Figure test assesses an individual’s ability to copy and recall a complex figure.
Executive function: The Wisconsin Card Sort Test measures an individual’s ability to shift cognitive strategies. The Stroop test assesses an individual’s ability to inhibit automatic responses. The Trails B test evaluates an individual’s ability to switch between tasks.
Intelligence: The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Test assesses an individual’s overall intellectual functioning. The National Adult Reading Test measures an individual’s premorbid intelligence. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale assesses intellectual functioning in children and adults.
Personality (Projective Tests): The Rorschach Inkblot test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of inkblots. The Thematic Apperception Test evaluates an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their interpretation of ambiguous pictures. The Draw-A-Person test assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their drawing of a person. Sentence completion tests assess an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to incomplete sentences.
Personality (Objective Tests): The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality and emotional functioning based on their responses to a standardized questionnaire. The Sixteen Personality Factor Questionnaire (16PF) evaluates an individual’s personality based on 16 different traits. The NEO Personality Inventory assesses an individual’s personality based on five different dimensions. The Eysenck Personality Questionnaire (EPQ) measures an individual’s personality based on three different dimensions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which atypical antipsychotic has the lowest likelihood of causing weight gain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications, which may be caused by various mechanisms such as 5HT2c and H1 antagonism, hyperprolactinaemia, and increased serum leptin. This weight gain is often due to increased food intake and reduced energy expenditure. Additionally, antipsychotic-induced weight gain can lead to diabetes mellitus, with females being more susceptible to metabolic side effects than males. Among antipsychotics, clozapine and olanzapine have the highest risk of weight gain, while quetiapine and risperidone have a moderate risk. On the other hand, aripiprazole, asenapine, and amisulpride (the 3 As) are associated with the least amount of weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What should be avoided in individuals with hepatic impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Duloxetine undergoes hepatic metabolism and its clearance is significantly decreased even in cases of mild impairment. There have been documented cases of hepatocellular injury and, although rare, jaundice. A single case of fulminant hepatic failure has also been reported. Therefore, individuals with hepatic impairment should not take duloxetine as it is contraindicated (as stated in the Maudsley 14th Ed).
Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is the concept of Conventional Ethics according to Lawrence Kohlberg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To gain approval from others
Explanation:Attachment theory is a framework that emphasizes the importance of secure emotional bonds and resources in shaping an individual’s development and behavior. It highlights the significance of early relationships and experiences in shaping one’s sense of security and ability to form healthy relationships later in life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mutations in the gene that produces alpha-synuclein have been linked to early-onset Parkinson's disease
Explanation:Lewy bodies, which are present in Parkinson’s disease, are composed of alpha-synuclein.
Genetic Contributors to Parkinson’s Disease
Genetic contributors to Parkinson’s disease can range from highly penetrant DNA variants to variants that individually increase the lifetime risk of the disease. These genetic risks are often divided into rare DNA variants with high effect sizes, typically associated with familial Parkinson’s disease, and more common, smaller effect variants, usually identified in sporadic cases. While rare variants in over 20 genes have been reported to cause Parkinson’s disease, most cases are idiopathic.
One gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is SNCA, which codes for alpha-synuclein. Autosomal dominant mutations of SNCA have been identified in several families with inherited Parkinson’s disease. Mutant forms of alpha-synuclein aggregate and induce other proteins to incorporate into the aggregate, forming Lewy bodies, which are similar to the beta-amyloid plaques found in Alzheimer’s patients. Another gene implicated in Parkinson’s disease is the Parkin gene.
It is important to note that the known genes responsible for Parkinson’s disease are responsible for a minority of cases, with the majority being sporadic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency department during a weekend getaway with friends. She reports feeling restless and experiencing unusual electric sensations in her head. She acknowledges not drinking excessively but admits to missing her usual antidepressant medication since Friday morning. What type of antidepressant is she likely prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Discontinuation symptoms are less likely with bupropion, clomipramine, and fluvoxamine as their half life is around 21 hours, whereas venlafaxine has a relatively short half life of approximately five hours, leading to a higher rate of discontinuation symptoms. Mirtazapine has a half life of approximately 20-40 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a delusional episode and is detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. He firmly believes that one of the doctors on the ward is his long-lost brother, despite acknowledging that they have different facial features.
What is the name of the syndrome he is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fregoli syndrome
Explanation:The term Fregoli syndrome refers to a delusion where the patient mistakenly identifies an unfamiliar person as someone they know. This condition is named after Leopoldo Fregoli, an Italian actor who was known for his ability to quickly change his appearance during performances. Cotard syndrome is a type of delusion that occurs in cases of psychotic depression, where the patient believes that they are already dead. Capgras syndrome is another type of misidentification delusion, but in this case, the patient believes that someone they know has been replaced by an identical imposter. Charles Bonnet Syndrome is a condition that causes complex visual hallucinations. Finally, Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, is a phenomenon where men experience symptoms similar to their pregnant partners. These conditions are all well-documented in the field of psychiatry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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