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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
      Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study

      The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man without medical history is beginning treatment with tranylcypromine for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man without medical history is beginning treatment with tranylcypromine for his depression. What foods should he be cautioned against consuming?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cheese

      Explanation:

      To prevent a hypertensive crisis, individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should steer clear of tyramine-containing foods, such as cheese. Other foods have not been found to have an interaction with MAOIs.

      Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors and their Adverse Effects

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are drugs that inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, which is responsible for the breakdown of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and noradrenaline in the presynaptic cell. Non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors, such as tranylcypromine and phenelzine, are used in the treatment of atypical depression and other psychiatric disorders. However, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects.

      One of the main adverse effects of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is hypertensive reactions when consuming tyramine-containing foods such as cheese, pickled herring, Bovril, Oxo, Marmite, and broad beans. This is because monoamine oxidase normally breaks down tyramine, but when inhibited by the drug, tyramine can accumulate and cause a sudden increase in blood pressure. Therefore, patients taking non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors must adhere to a strict diet that avoids these foods.

      Another adverse effect of non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors is anticholinergic effects, which can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. These effects are due to the inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. As a result, acetylcholine levels increase and can lead to these side effects.

      In conclusion, while non-selective monoamine oxidase inhibitors can be effective in treating certain psychiatric disorders, they are not commonly used due to their adverse effects. Patients taking these drugs must adhere to a strict diet and be monitored for potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy test. She has no significant medical or family history and reports no smoking or alcohol consumption. Her BMI is 30.9kg/m², blood pressure is within normal limits, and a urine dipstick is unremarkable. What tests should be offered to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old male with an inoperable oesophageal carcinoma has received a self-expanding metal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with an inoperable oesophageal carcinoma has received a self-expanding metal stent to relieve his malignant dysphagia. However, he has now presented with acute dysphagia to fluids that has lasted for four hours. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fizzy drink

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Malignant Dysphagia in Oesophageal Cancer Patients

      Patients with oesophageal cancer often present with symptoms such as progressive dysphagia, weight loss, and anaemia. Unfortunately, these symptoms tend to appear late in the disease’s progression, making treatment more challenging. Oesophagectomy, the surgical removal of the oesophagus, is typically reserved for early-stage cancers that have not yet invaded surrounding tissues. Traditionally, malignant dysphagia was treated with repeated endoscopic dilatations. However, self-expanding metal stents (SEMS) are now the preferred treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia.

      While SEMS placement is generally safe and effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Early complications may include malposition, oesophageal perforation, bleeding, and stent migration. Late complications are more commonly related to eating, such as food bolus blockages or tumour overgrowth. If a food bolus blocks a stent, patients may be advised to consume a fizzy drink to help break it up. However, if this is unsuccessful, endoscopy may be required to dislodge the blockage.

      In summary, SEMS placement is a safe and effective treatment option for patients with malignant dysphagia caused by oesophageal cancer. While there are potential complications to be aware of, these are generally manageable with prompt medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine phone consultation. Her father is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine phone consultation. Her father is worried about her well-being, but she insists that she is fine and has no issues. Her father believes that she is socially withdrawn as she does not have any friends and spends most of her time indoors using her phone. Upon further inquiry, you discover that this woman has a strong belief that her phone is being monitored by the government, which is contributing to her isolation. She does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms, and her speech, tone, and mood are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP 10 days after giving birth and reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, the GP notes a pulse rate of 90 / min, a temperature of 38.2ºC, and diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels generally tender upon vaginal examination, while the breast examination is unremarkable. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia

      Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.

      If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due to lower abdominal pain and distension for the past three days. He has been unable to pass stool or flatus. The patient had a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 25 years ago. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended and non-tender, and he appears to be in obvious discomfort. The CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis reveals evidence of large bowel obstruction at the splenic flexure. What is the probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colon cancer

      Explanation:

      A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precaution?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old pregnant refugee from Afghanistan visits her general practitioner for her first scan at 20 weeks. During the ultrasound, a 'snow-storm' appearance is observed without visible foetal parts. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

      Explanation:

      A snowstorm appearance on ultrasound scan is indicative of a complete hydatidiform mole, which occurs when all genetic material comes from the father and no foetal parts are present. Vaginal bleeding is often the first symptom. In contrast, an incomplete hydatidiform mole results from two sets of paternal chromosomes and one set of maternal chromosomes, and may have foetal parts present without a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Gestational diabetes can cause foetal structural abnormalities and macrosomia, but not a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. An incomplete miscarriage may cause vaginal bleeding, but it would not result in a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound.

      Characteristics of Complete Hydatidiform Mole

      A complete hydatidiform mole is a rare type of pregnancy where the fertilized egg develops into a mass of abnormal cells instead of a fetus. This condition is characterized by several features, including vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus size that is greater than expected for gestational age, and abnormally high levels of serum hCG. Additionally, an ultrasound may reveal a snowstorm appearance of mixed echogenicity.

      In simpler terms, a complete hydatidiform mole is a type of pregnancy that does not develop normally and can cause abnormal bleeding and an enlarged uterus. Doctors can detect this condition through blood tests and ultrasounds, which show a unique appearance of mixed echogenicity. It is important for women to seek medical attention if they experience any abnormal symptoms during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents with a complaint of dyspnoea that has been worsening with physical activity for the past month. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had normal prenatal testing. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and her lungs are clear bilaterally without cardiac murmur. Mild dependent oedema is noted in her lower extremities. What is the probable cause of her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased minute ventilation

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy and Breathlessness: Understanding the Relationship

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes numerous physiological changes that can affect her respiratory system. One of the most significant changes is an increase in tidal volume, which leads to an overall increase in minute ventilation. This increased respiratory workload can result in a feeling of breathlessness, which is experienced by up to 75% of pregnant women, particularly during the first trimester. However, it is important to note that this feeling of breathlessness is typically not indicative of any underlying cardiac or pulmonary issues.

      While some degree of dependent leg edema is normal during pregnancy, it is important to understand that other respiratory changes, such as a decrease in residual volume or a reduction in functional residual capacity, do not typically contribute to the feeling of breathlessness. Respiratory rate usually remains unchanged during pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy and their impact on the respiratory system can help healthcare providers better manage and address any concerns related to breathlessness in pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female student presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain that started suddenly while she was shopping 3 hours ago. She reports not having her periods for 8 weeks and being sexually active. She also has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease 4 years ago. On examination, there is generalised guarding and signs of peritonism. An urgent ultrasound scan reveals free fluid in the pouch of Douglas with an empty uterine cavity, and a positive urine βhCG. Basic bloods are sent. Suddenly, her condition deteriorates, and her vital signs are BP 85/50 mmHg, HR 122/min, RR 20/min, and O2 saturation 94%.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resuscitate and arrange for emergency laparotomy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong indication of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy based on the clinical presentation. The patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly, with symptoms of shock and a systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg. Due to her unstable cardiovascular state, urgent consideration must be given to performing an emergency laparotomy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the relationship between the electrocardiogram and the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The QT interval gives a rough indication of the duration of ventricular systole

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Electrocardiogram: Key Components and Timing

      As a junior doctor, interpreting electrocardiograms (ECGs) is a crucial skill. One important aspect to understand is the timing of key components. The QT interval, which measures ventricular depolarization and repolarization, gives an indication of the duration of ventricular systole. However, this measurement is dependent on heart rate and is corrected using Bazett’s formula. The P wave results from atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex is caused by ventricular depolarization. The first heart sound, which coincides with the QRS complex, results from closure of the AV valves as the ventricles contract. The second heart sound, occurring at about the same time as the T wave, is caused by closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. Understanding the timing of these components is essential for accurate ECG interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of mild left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of mild left testicular pain and dysuria that has been going on for six days. During the examination, the patient's scrotum is inflamed, and the epididymis is the most tender area. The patient has a temperature of 37.9°C, and the urine dipstick test came back negative. The cremasteric reflex is present.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg bd for 10 days (or single dose 1g azithromycin) plus IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute Epididymitis and its Treatment

      Acute epididymitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation of the epididymis, which causes pain and swelling in the testicles over several days. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in patients under 35 years old. In contrast, urinary coliforms are the most common cause in children and men over 35 years old.

      To treat acute epididymitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a combination of antibiotics is required. A course of doxycycline or a single dose of azithromycin can cover chlamydia, while ceftriaxone can cover Neisseria, which can be resistant to other antibiotics. It is important to note that single agents do not cover both infections.

      Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the use of anti-inflammatory drugs and scrotal support, but they do not treat the underlying cause. It is crucial to seek medical attention promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.

      In summary, acute epididymitis is a painful condition that requires a combination of antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. Prompt medical attention and proper treatment are essential to prevent complications and achieve symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 14 - You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 35-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman who has presented for her initial prenatal visit. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant.
      During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes which was managed with insulin therapy. However, her blood glucose levels are currently within normal limits. She is presently taking 400 µcg folic acid supplements and has no other medication history.
      At this clinic visit, a complete set of blood and urine samples are collected.
      What alterations would you anticipate observing in a healthy pregnant patient compared to before pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased serum urea

      Explanation:

      Physiological Changes During Pregnancy

      The human body undergoes significant physiological changes during pregnancy. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume by 30%, heart rate by 15%, and cardiac output by 40%. However, systolic blood pressure remains unchanged, while diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters, returning to non-pregnant levels by term. The enlarged uterus may interfere with venous return, leading to ankle edema, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation by 40%, with tidal volume increasing from 500 to 700 ml due to the effect of progesterone on the respiratory center. Oxygen requirements increase by only 20%, leading to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2, which can cause a sense of dyspnea accentuated by the elevation of the diaphragm. The basal metabolic rate increases by 15%, possibly due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones, making warm conditions uncomfortable for women.

      The maternal blood volume increases by 30%, mostly in the second half of pregnancy. Red blood cells increase by 20%, but plasma increases by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin. There is a low-grade increase in coagulant activity, with a rise in fibrinogen and Factors VII, VIII, X. Fibrinolytic activity decreases, returning to normal after delivery, possibly due to placental suppression. This prepares the mother for placental delivery but increases the risk of thromboembolism. Platelet count falls, while white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow by 30%, with glomerular filtration rate increasing by 30-60%. Salt and water reabsorption increase due to elevated sex steroid levels, leading to increased urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria is common due to the increased GFR and reduction in tubular reabsorption of filtered glucose.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, especially during the third trimester and lactation. Calcium is transported actively across the placenta, while serum levels of calcium and phosphate fall with a fall in protein. Ionized levels of calcium remain stable, and gut absorption of calcium increases substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D.

      The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase by 50%,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 40-weeks gestation for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic at 40-weeks gestation for her first pregnancy. She reports no contractions yet. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and a palpable uterus indicates a term pregnancy. The cervix is firm and dilated to 1 cm, with the foetal head stationed 1 cm below the ischial spines. The obstetrician performs a membrane sweep and decides to initiate treatment with vaginal prostaglandins. What is the most probable complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine hyperstimulation

      Explanation:

      When inducing labour in a patient who is past her due date, the main complication to watch out for is uterine hyperstimulation. The recommended method for inducing labour according to NICE guidelines is vaginal prostaglandins, which can be administered as a gel, tablet or slow-release pessary. A membrane sweep may also be performed alongside this. Vaginal prostaglandins work by ripening the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions. If uterine hyperstimulation occurs, tocolytic agents can be given to relax the uterus and slow contractions. It’s important to note that a breech presentation is not a complication of induction of labour, especially in cases where the foetus is stationed in the pelvis below the ischial spines. Chorioamnionitis, which is inflammation of the foetal membranes due to bacterial infection, is a risk during prolonged labour and repeated vaginal examinations, but it is not the main complication of induction of labour. Cord prolapse is also a possible complication, but it is more common when the presenting part of the foetus is high, which is not the case in this pregnancy where the foetal head is stationed 1 cm below the ischial spine.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female presents with sudden onset pain in her left leg. The leg appears pale and cold, with reduced sensation and muscle strength. She has no prior history of leg pain.

      The patient has a medical history of COPD and atrial fibrillation. She has been taking ramipril and bisoprolol for a long time and completed a short course of prednisolone and clarithromycin for a respiratory tract infection 2 months ago. She is an ex-smoker with a 30-year pack history.

      What factor from the patient's background and medical history is most likely to contribute to her current presentation of acute limb ischaemia, which required an emergency operation 3 hours after admission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute limb ischaemia caused by embolism. Cardiovascular disease is more likely to affect males than females. While ramipril and respiratory tract infections may impact cardiovascular risk, they do not increase hypercoagulability. Smoking tobacco is a risk factor for atherosclerosis and could contribute to progressive limb ischaemia, but in this case, the patient’s lack of previous claudication suggests that the cause is more likely to be an embolism related to their atrial fibrillation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The histology report indicates that the adenocarcinoma is moderately differentiated and has invaded into the muscle, but not through the wall. One of the 13 lymph nodes examined has been found to be involved by metastatic tumour, but the high tie node is free of tumour. A liver biopsy from a suspicious lesion in the liver has shown 'no evidence of malignancy'. Can you determine the stage of this patient's cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified Dukes' C1

      Explanation:

      Dukes’ Classification for Colon Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to stage colon cancer based on the extent of tumor invasion and spread. Dukes’ A refers to tumors that are confined to the bowel wall, while Dukes’ B tumors have spread to the serosa. Dukes’ C1 tumors have spread to local nodes, but apical nodes are spared. On the other hand, Dukes’ C2 tumors involve the apical nodes, and Dukes’ D tumors have distant metastases, which carry the worst prognosis.

      It is important to understand Dukes’ classification as it helps in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with colon cancer. The stage of the cancer is a crucial factor in deciding the best course of action, including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. By accurately staging the cancer, doctors can provide patients with the most effective treatment options and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old woman presents to the medical admissions unit with complaints of breathlessness....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents to the medical admissions unit with complaints of breathlessness. Her GP had noted reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion at the left lung base. An urgent chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pleural effusion. To identify the cause of the effusion, an aspirate of the pleural fluid is taken, and the results show a pleural effusion fluid protein/serum protein ratio of 0.73. What is the probable reason for the pleural effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      To determine the cause of a pleural effusion, the effusion fluid protein/serum protein ratio can be used. An effusion is considered exudative if the ratio is >0.5, indicating that there is more protein in the effusion than in the serum. In this patient’s case, the ratio is 0.73, indicating an exudative effusion. Only one of the listed options can cause an exudative effusion.

      Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.

      Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterior anterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.

      Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.

      For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic 8 weeks after her last menstrual period with complaints of severe nausea, vomiting, and vaginal spotting. Upon examination, she is found to be pregnant and a transvaginal ultrasound reveals an abnormally enlarged uterus. What would be the expected test results for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High beta hCG, low TSH, high thyroxine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms described in this question are indicative of a molar pregnancy. To answer this question correctly, a basic understanding of physiology is necessary. Molar pregnancies are characterized by abnormally high levels of beta hCG for the stage of pregnancy, which serves as a tumor marker for gestational trophoblastic disease. Beta hCG has a similar biochemical structure to luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Consequently, elevated levels of beta hCG can stimulate the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), leading to symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. High levels of T4 and T3 negatively impact the pituitary gland, reducing TSH levels overall.
      Sources:
      Best Practice- Molar Pregnancy
      Medscape- Hydatidiform Mole Workup

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a uterus that is large for dates, and very high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months, as around 2-3% of cases may develop choriocarcinoma.

      Partial hydatidiform mole, on the other hand, occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. As a result, the DNA is both maternal and paternal in origin, and the fetus may have triploid chromosomes, such as 69 XXX or 69 XXY. Fetal parts may also be visible. It is important to note that hCG can mimic thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which may lead to hyperthyroidism.

      In summary, gestational trophoblastic disorders are a group of conditions that arise from the placental trophoblast. Complete hydatidiform mole and partial hydatidiform mole are two types of these disorders. While complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, partial hydatidiform mole occurs when a normal haploid egg is fertilized by two sperms or by one sperm with duplication of the paternal chromosomes. It is important to seek urgent medical attention and effective contraception to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following checks is not included in the pre-operative checklist of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following checks is not included in the pre-operative checklist of the WHO (World Health Organisation) for patients over 60 years of age before the administration of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Does the patient have 12-lead ECG monitoring in place?

      Explanation:

      Checklists are a highly effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to prevent common surgical mistakes.

      The checklist is divided into three phases of the operation:
      1) Before administering anaesthesia (sign-in)
      2) Before making an incision in the skin (time-out)
      3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign-out).

      During each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.

      Before administering anaesthesia, the following checks must be completed:
      – The patient has confirmed the site, identity, procedure, and consent.
      – The site is marked.
      – The anaesthesia safety check is completed.
      – The patient has a functioning pulse oximeter.
      – Is the patient allergic to anything?
      – Is there a risk of a difficult airway or aspiration?
      – Is there a risk of blood loss exceeding 500ml (7 ml/kg in children)?

      The Importance of Surgical Safety Checklists

      Checklists have proven to be an effective tool in reducing errors in various fields, including medicine and aviation. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has developed a Surgical Safety Checklist to minimize the occurrence of common surgical mistakes.

      The checklist is divided into three phases of an operation: before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in), before the incision of the skin (time out), and before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out). In each phase, a checklist coordinator must confirm that the surgical team has completed the listed tasks before proceeding with the operation.

      Before the induction of anaesthesia, the checklist ensures that the patient’s site, identity, procedure, and consent have been confirmed. The site must also be marked, and an anaesthesia safety check must be completed. Additionally, the pulse oximeter must be on the patient and functioning. The checklist also prompts the team to check for any known allergies, difficult airway/aspiration risks, and risks of significant blood loss.

      Using a surgical safety checklist can significantly reduce the occurrence of surgical errors and improve patient outcomes. It is essential for surgical teams to prioritize patient safety by implementing this tool in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 21 - You are requested to evaluate a 28-year-old patient in a joint medical/obstetric clinic...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 28-year-old patient in a joint medical/obstetric clinic who has recently been diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Her pregnancy has been complicated by a diagnosis of gestational diabetes through routine screening and she now takes metformin 500 mg three times a day.

      She is currently 26 weeks pregnant and has just undergone a scan that revealed an estimated foetal weight of 900g (99th percentile). She reports feeling well and has been tolerating the metformin without any issues. A fasting blood glucose level is taken at the clinic and compared to her previous results:

      6 weeks ago: 6.0mmol/L
      4 weeks ago: 6.1 mmol/L
      Today: 7.5mmol/L

      Based on the above information, what changes would you make to the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue metformin and add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added to the treatment plan. This patient was initially advised to make lifestyle changes and follow a specific diet for two weeks, as her fasting blood glucose was below 7 mmol/L. However, since she did not meet the targets, she was started on metformin monotherapy. Insulin therapy was not initiated earlier because her fasting blood glucose was below 7 mmol/L. According to NICE guidelines, if metformin monotherapy fails to achieve the desired results, insulin should be started, and lifestyle changes should be emphasized. Therefore, the correct answer is to continue metformin and add insulin to the patient’s treatment plan. The other options, such as increasing the dose of metformin, stopping metformin and starting insulin, adding gliclazide, or prescribing high-dose folic acid, are incorrect.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergillus

      Explanation:

      Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More

      Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:

      – Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
      – Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
      – Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
      – Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
      – Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.

      Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pain in his left leg. The pain has been constant for the past 2 hours. He has been experiencing calf pain when walking for the past few months, which improves with rest. He has no significant medical history and is asymptomatic otherwise.

      Upon examination, his left leg appears pale and cool. The anterior tibialis pulse on the left cannot be palpated, but the popliteal pulse is normal. Both pulses on his right leg are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doppler examination of pulses

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with acute limb pain and a history of intermittent claudication, a handheld arterial Doppler examination should be performed to confirm suspected acute limb ischaemia. This is because manual palpation of pulses can be operator-dependent and the Doppler examination can quickly and easily quantify the extent of the loss. Other symptoms of acute limb ischaemia include pallor, loss of distal pulse, and feeling of coldness.

      Compartment pressure monitoring can aid in the diagnosis of compartment syndrome, which presents with pain and possibly pallor in the lower leg, but not cold temperature. However, compartment syndrome is usually diagnosed clinically, and compartment pressure monitoring is only used in cases of diagnostic uncertainty.

      Compression ultrasonography is useful when a deep vein thrombosis is suspected, which presents with swelling, redness, and a hot leg – the opposite of the symptoms described in acute limb ischaemia. It also does not affect the pulses or explain the intermittent claudication.

      Immediate anticoagulation is not appropriate before further investigations and confirmation of diagnosis by a specialist. While anticoagulation is used in the treatment of acute limb ischaemia, it is important to have a more detailed assessment before initiating treatment.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing burning epigastric pain and vomiting on and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing burning epigastric pain and vomiting on and off for the past 4 weeks. His father was recently treated for gastric cancer. During an upper GI endoscopy, gastric biopsies were taken and tested positive for Helicobacter pylori. The patient has a penicillin allergy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for eradicating H. pylori in this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for one week

      Explanation:

      H. pylori infection is a common cause of peptic ulceration and increases the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. A PPI-based triple therapy is effective in 90% of cases with low rates of re-infection. For patients not allergic to penicillin, a 7-day PPI triple therapy including omeprazole, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin is appropriate. Metronidazole is given twice daily for seven days, while levofloxacin is only used if the patient has had previous exposure to clarithromycin. Quadruple therapy, including metronidazole or clarithromycin, bismuth, tetracycline, and PPI, is second-line in H. pylori eradication and is given for two weeks. In penicillin-allergic patients, clarithromycin and metronidazole are used with a PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner due to experiencing epigastric pain. The pain occurs approximately 3 hours after eating a meal. Despite using both histamine 2 receptor blockers and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), he has only experienced moderate relief and tests negative on a urease breath test. An endoscopy is performed, revealing multiple duodenal ulcers. The patient's gastrin level is tested and found to be above normal. A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered, and the patient is diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Which hormone typically inhibits gastrin secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Hormones and Enzymes: Their Effects on Gastrin Secretion

      Gastrin secretion is regulated by various hormones and enzymes in the body. One such hormone is somatostatin, which inhibits the release of gastrin. In the treatment of gastrinomas, somatostatin analogues like octreotide can be used instead of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).

      Aldosterone, on the other hand, is a steroid hormone that is not related to gastrin and has no effect on its secretion. Similarly, glycogen synthase and hexokinase, which play regulatory roles in carbohydrate metabolism, do not affect gastrin secretion.

      Another steroid hormone, progesterone, also does not play a role in the regulation of gastrin secretion. Understanding the effects of hormones and enzymes on gastrin secretion can help in the development of targeted treatments for gastrointestinal disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 26 - A 19-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department after consuming eight paracetamol tablets,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department after consuming eight paracetamol tablets, four cans of strong cider and two mouthfuls of bleach in an attempt to end his life. He reports feeling extremely anxious and low in mood for the past week following a recent argument with his girlfriend. He believes he has no worth in society and thinks he is 'better off dead', hoping his girlfriend will understand how low he has been recently now that he has almost succeeded in ending his own life. He takes no regular medication and has a history of depression for which he sees his GP. He has no relevant family history. He has been to the emergency department with suicide attempts eight times in the last six months. He has no history of deliberate self-harm otherwise.

      What is the necessary feature required for a diagnosis of a personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Over 18 years of age

      Explanation:

      Undesirable personality traits that are pervasive are characteristic of personality disorders. These disorders cause long-term difficulties in interpersonal relationships and functioning in society. Diagnosis is only possible once a person’s personality has fully developed and their adaptive behaviours have become fixed, typically after the age of 18. However, borderline personality disorder may be diagnosed earlier if there is sufficient evidence that the patient has undergone puberty.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father who is concerned about her growth. He reports that she is not keeping up with her peers in terms of height and weight. The girl has been experiencing smelly diarrhoea around 4-5 times per week and complains of stomach pain.
      During the examination, the GP notes that the girl's abdomen is distended and her buttocks appear wasted. Her growth chart shows a drop of 2 centile lines, now placing her on the 10th centile.
      Which investigation is most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye that lasted for about half an hour. He experienced initial blurring of vision followed by cloudiness and inability to see out of the eye. The patient has a recent history of hypertension and takes atenolol, but is otherwise generally healthy. He drinks modest amounts of alcohol and smokes five cigarettes per day. On examination, his vision is now normal in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. His pulse is regular at 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 162/88 mmHg, and BMI is 30. Cardiovascular examination, including auscultation over the neck, is otherwise unremarkable. What investigations would you order for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary vision loss. To diagnose this condition, doctors should look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are present, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. To better understand this condition, resources such as a diagnostic flow chart and medical articles can be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - An 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a fever and difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of osteoarthritis, hypertension, and chronic kidney disease, and takes atorvastatin, amlodipine, and codeine regularly. During the examination, she appears unwell, and there are splinter haemorrhages on her nails. A systolic murmur in the mitral area is audible. Her vital signs are a pulse of 100/min, a respiratory rate of 18/min, a blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, and a temperature of 38°C. The diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis is made based on clinical findings, and blood cultures reveal Streptococcus viridans. Appropriate IV fluids and gentamicin are administered, and she recovers from the infection. However, a few days later, she develops acute tubular necrosis.

      What is the most likely cause of her acute tubular necrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage

      The correct answer is Gentamicin. This aminoglycoside antibiotic is known to be nephrotoxic and can cause acute tubular necrosis, especially in patients with pre-existing renal impairment.
      Amlodipine is not associated with kidney damage.
      Codeine is also not known to be nephrotoxic, but may require dose adjustment in patients with kidney disease to prevent toxicity.
      Dehydration can cause acute kidney injury, but in this case, the patient has received appropriate IV fluids.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.

      It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old runner experiences chest pain and collapses while jogging. He is brought to the Emergency department within an hour. Upon arrival, he is conscious and given a sublingual nitrate which provides some relief. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/85 mmHg. An ECG reveals 3 mm of ST segment elevation in leads II, III, AVF, V5 and V6. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admission for cardiac catheterisation and percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

      Explanation:

      Initial and Long-Term Treatment for Inferolateral ST-Elevation MI

      The patient’s history and ECG findings suggest that they are experiencing an Inferolateral ST-elevation MI. The best initial treatment for this condition would be percutaneous coronary intervention. It is likely that the patient would have already received aspirin in the ambulance.

      For long-term treatment, the patient will require dual antiplatelet therapy, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, a statin, a beta blocker, and an ACE-inhibitor. These medications will help manage the patient’s condition and prevent future cardiac events.

      It is important to follow the NICE guideline for Acute Coronary Syndrome to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate treatment and care. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help improve the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Passmed