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  • Question 1 - A 69-year-old woman is admitted with confusion. She's known to have a history...

    Correct

    • A 69-year-old woman is admitted with confusion. She's known to have a history of multiple myeloma. Blood exam reveals the following: Na+ = 147 mmol/l, K+ = 4.7 mmol/l, Urea = 14.2 mmol/l, Creatinine = 102 μmol/l, Adjusted calcium = 3.9 mmol/l. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: IV 0.9% saline

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding hyponatremia:

      Your Answer: Hyperlipidaemia may cause pseudohyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      The Hyperlipidaemia Effect: Pseudohyponatremia in Pancreatic Cancer; Patients who have disorders of cholestasis commonly present with volume depletion due to vomiting and poor oral intake, which, in turn, often leads to hypovolemic hyponatremia. It is less well known that disorders of cholestasis, including tumours of the hepatobiliary system, can be accompanied by hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?...

    Correct

    • Intracellular proteins tagged with mannose-6-phosphate are destined to which of the following organelles?

      Your Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      Lysosomal hydrolases are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and specifically transported through the Golgi apparatus to the trans-Golgi network, from which transport vesicles bud to deliver them to the endosomal/lysosomal compartment. The explanation of how the lysosomal enzymes are accurately recognized and selected over many other proteins in the trans-Golgi network relies on them being tagged with a unique marker: the mannose-6-phosphate (M6P) group, which is added exclusively to the N-linked oligosaccharides of lysosomal soluble hydrolases, as they pass through the cis-Golgi network. Generation of the M6P recognition marker depends on a reaction involving two different enzymes: UDP-N-acetylglucosamine 1-phosphotransferase and α-N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphodiester α-N-acetylglucosaminidase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the formula to calculate the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer: 1 / (Absolute risk reduction)

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of molluscum contagiosum rather than chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Absence of erythema surrounding lesions

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum (MC), is a viral infection of the skin that results in small, raised, pink lesions with a dimple in the center with little to no surrounding erythema. They may occasionally be itchy or sore. They may occur singularly or in groups. Any area of the skin may be affected, with abdomen, legs, arms, neck, genital area, and face being most common. Onset of the lesions is around 7 weeks after infection. It usually goes away within a year without scarring.
      Chickenpox lesions in the early stages may be mistaken for molluscum. However, the presence of associated macules and later vesicles and pustules help to differentiate them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both lower limbs, complains of lethargy and of difficulties climbing stairs. He also claims he's experienced muscle loss in his lower limbs. History reveals type 2 diabetes mellitus and heavy alcohol use for the last 4 years. Clinical examination reveals marked loss of fine touch and proprioception. The distribution is in a stocking manner and bilateral. However, no evidence of ataxia is present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Dry beriberi

      Explanation:

      Hypovitaminosis B1, consistent with dry beriberi is crucially a treatable condition, although sometimes with incomplete recovery, but it is probably under-recognized yet increasingly common given increasing levels of alcohol abuse in the western world. Dry beriberi or ‘acute nutritional polyneuropathy’ is considered to be rare in the western world. Rapid deterioration can occur, typically with weakness, paraesthesia and neuropathic pain. Striking motor nerve involvement can occur, mimicking Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). In the context of increasing alcohol abuse in the western world, it is possible that alcoholic neuropathy associated with abrupt deterioration due to concomitant nutritional hypovitaminosis B1 may be seen increasingly often.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Choose the best source of folic acid: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the best source of folic acid:

      Your Answer: Milk

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Beef liver is one of the best sources of folic acid, amongst others like green vegetables and nuts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female patient presents with a one week history of bloody diarrhoea, fever and abdominal pain. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which she controls with methotrexate. Her stool sample shows Campylobacter jejuni. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Fluids + ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      This woman is receiving methotrexate, an immunosuppressant, to control her rheumatoid arthritis. In such immunocompromised patients, BNF suggests clarithromycin as first-line management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive...

    Correct

    • A 62year-old manpresents with exertional chest pain and is found to have extensive coronary artery disease on angiogram. Which of the following cell types is most implicated in the development of coronary artery plaques?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      An atheroma is an accumulation of degenerative material in the tunica intima (inner layer) of artery walls. The material consists of (mostly) macrophage cells, or debris, containing lipids (cholesterol and fatty acids), calcium and a variable amount of fibrous connective tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old male patient is admitted with hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5, after being stabbed in the back. Which sign would you expect to see by assessing the patient's sensory function and muscle strength?

      Your Answer: Ipsilateral loss of temperature, contralateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Correct Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      Depending on the level of SCI, patients experience paraplegia or tetraplegia. Paraplegia is defined as the impairment of sensory or motor function in lower extremities. Patients with incomplete paraplegia generally have a good prognosis in regaining locomotor ability (,76% of patients) within a year. Complete paraplegic patients, however, experience limited recovery of lower limb function if their NLI is above T9. The spinothalamic tract is the one responsible for sensory information such as pain or temperature. However, it decussates at the same level the nerve root enters the spinal cord, meaning that the sensory loss will be contralateral. However, the dorsal column carries sensory fibres for fine touch and vibration and it decussates at the medulla which means that the sensory loss will be ipsilateral. The corticospinal tract is responsible for motor functions and it decussates at the medulla, meaning that the motor function loss will be ipsilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?

      Your Answer: HLA-A3

      Correct Answer: HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
      HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in...

    Correct

    • What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic...

    Incorrect

    • A study is carried out to assess the efficacy of a new anti-epileptic drug for children with absence seizures. The total number of the children selected for the study was 400, from which 150 children were assigned to take the new drug and 250 children were assigned in the control group. After a period of four months, only 15 children taking the new drug had a seizure compared to 100 children from the control group who had seizure. What is the correct value regarding the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer: 30%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Relative risk reduction (RRR) tells you by how much the treatment reduced the risk of bad outcomes relative to the control group who did not have the treatment. In the previous example, the relative risk reduction of fever and rash in the group of the children on the intervention was 40 per cent (1 – 0.6 = 0.4 or 40 per cent). RRR = (EER -CER) / CER = (0.1 – 0.4) / 0.4 = -0.75 or 75% reduction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      121
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaucher's disease

      Explanation:

      Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      51.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following best describes the main action of the polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: DNA amplification

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method widely used in molecular biology to make several copies of a specific DNA segment. Using PCR, copies of DNA sequences are exponentially amplified to generate thousands to millions of more copies of that particular DNA segment.The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections. PCR is also extensively used in forensics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old patient has been admitted with a very swollen and painful right...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old patient has been admitted with a very swollen and painful right knee. He was unable to walk on it so came into hospital. It is currently being treated as gout with non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. You notice he is of short stature, has shortened arms and legs and a flat nasal bridge. A mutation in which gene is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Fibroblast growth factor receptor

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is a common cause of dwarfism. It is caused by a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3). In normal development FGFR3 has a negative regulatory effect on bone growth. In achondroplasia, the mutated form of the receptor is constitutively active and this leads to severely shortened bones. The effect is genetically dominant, with one mutant copy of the FGFR3 gene being sufficient to cause achondroplasia, while two copies of the mutant gene are invariably fatal. A person with achondroplasia thus has a 50% chance of passing dwarfism to each of their offspring. People with achondroplasia can be born to parents that do not have the condition due to spontaneous mutation. It occurs as a sporadic mutation in approximately 80% of cases (associated with advanced paternal age) or it may be inherited as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder.
      People with achondroplasia have short stature, with an average adult height of 131 centimeters (52 inches) for males and 123 centimeters (48 inches) for females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following occurs during reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction?

      Your Answer: Proteins are converted to RNA

      Correct Answer: RNA is converted to DNA

      Explanation:

      Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction is a laboratory technique combining reverse transcription of RNA into DNA and amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. It is primarily used to measure the amount of a specific RNA. The main advantage of PCR is its sensitivity: only one strand of sample DNA is needed to detect a particular DNA sequence. It now has many uses including prenatal diagnosis, detection of mutated oncogenes and diagnosis of infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following cardiac tissue types has the highest conduction velocity?

      Your Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Nerve conduction velocity is an important aspect of nerve conduction studies. It is the speed at which an electrochemical impulse propagates down a neural pathway. Ultimately, conduction velocities are specific to each individual and depend largely on an axon’s diameter and the degree to which that axon is myelinated.
      The cardiac action potential is a brief change in voltage (membrane potential) across the cell membrane of heart cells. Conduction speed varies:
      Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec
      AV node conduction 0.05 m/sec
      Ventricular conduction Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec (this allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema...

    Correct

    • A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
      An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what? ...

    Incorrect

    • Primarily, funnel plots are used to do what?

      Your Answer: Demonstrate the heterogeneity of a meta-analysis

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are graphical tools to assess and compare clinical performance of a group of care professionals or care institutions on a quality indicator against a benchmark. Incorrect construction of funnel plots may lead to erroneous assessment and incorrect decisions potentially with severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man presents with red and flaky patches at the corners of his mouth. Upon examination, angular cheilitis is diagnosed. Anamnesis reveals a history of excessive drinking and malnutrition. What is the most probable deficiency responsible for his condition?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B2 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Riboflavin, vitamin B2, is a water-soluble and heat-stable vitamin that the body uses to metabolize fats, protein, and carbohydrates into glucose for energy. Riboflavin deficiency can cause fatigue, swollen throat, blurred vision, and depression. It can affect the skin by causing skin cracks, itching, and dermatitis around the mouth. Hyperaemia and oedema around throat, liver degeneration, and hair loss can also occur along with reproductive issues. Usually, people with riboflavin deficiency also have deficiencies of other nutrients. In most cases, riboflavin deficiency can be reversed unless it has caused anatomical changes such as cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?

      Your Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
      William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
      Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man is found collapsed in the street and is brought to the A&E. The results from the blood tests reveal Calcium = 1.62mmol/l and Albumin = 33g/l. The man is known to have a history of alcoholic liver disease. Which of the following is the best management regarding his calcium levels?

      Your Answer: 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      Acute, symptomatic hypocalcaemia is treated with 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids:

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the major site at which membrane lipids are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Because they are extremely hydrophobic, lipids are synthesized in association with already existing cellular membranes rather than in the aqueous environment of the cytosol. Although some lipids are synthesized in association with other membranes, most are synthesized in the ER. They are then transported from the ER to their ultimate destinations either in vesicles or by carrier proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete? ...

    Correct

    • What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete?

      Your Answer: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 (IL-4), IL-5 and IL-13, the signature cytokines that are produced during type 2 immune responses, are critical for protective immunity against infections of extracellular parasites and are responsible for asthma and many other allergic inflammatory diseases. Although many immune cell types within the myeloid lineage compartment including basophils, eosinophils and mast cells are capable of producing at least one of these cytokines, the production of these “type 2 immune response-related” cytokines by lymphoid lineages, CD4 T helper 2 (Th2) cells and type 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s) in particular, are the central events during type 2 immune responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old lady presents with severe morning headaches associated with nausea. Head MRI reveals a large compressive tumour arising from the falx cerebri. The tumour is well delineated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningioma

      Explanation:

      Meningiomas are the most common benign tumours of the brain. Their name is derived from the fact that they arise from the dura mater which together with the pia matter and arachnoid mater form the meninges. The chances that a meningioma is benign are almost 98%. They are non-invasive and well delineated, causing sign and symptoms of brain compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the...

    Incorrect

    • A study was developed to assess a new oral antithrombotic drug on the chance of stroke in high-risk patients, compared to warfarin. The total number of patients receiving the new drug were 200 compared to 600 who were receiving warfarin. From the ones receiving the new drug, 10 patients had a stroke within 3 years, compared to 12 patients who were receiving warfarin and had a stroke. What is the relative risk of having a stroke within 3 years for patients receiving the new drug?

      Your Answer: 3.33

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group)
      Experimental event rate, EER = 10 / 200 = 0.05

      Control event rate, CER = 12 / 600 = 0.02

      Therefore the relative risk = EER / CER = 0.05 / 0.02 = 2.5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding nitric oxide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Promotes platelet aggregation

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide, known as an endothelium-derived relaxing factor (EDRF), is biosynthesized endogenously from L-arginine, oxygen, and NADPH by various nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzymes and is a signaling molecule in many physiological and pathological processes in humans.
      One of the main enzymatic targets of nitric oxide is guanylyl cyclase. The binding of nitric oxide to the haem region of the enzyme leads to activation, in the presence of iron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows: Na+: 122 mmol/L, K+: 3.4 mmol/L, Urea: 3.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 69 umol/l. During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (19/29) 66%
Passmed