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  • Question 1 - Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles? ...

    Correct

    • Double-stranded DNA is found in which of the following cell organelles?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) is a double-stranded molecule of 16.6 kb (Figure 1, lower panel). The two strands of mtDNA differ in their base composition, with one being rich in guanines, making it possible to separate a heavy (H) and a light (L) strand by density centrifugation in alkaline CsCl2 gradients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking...

    Correct

    • A cohort study is being designed to look at the relationship between smoking and prostate cancer. What is the usual outcome measure in a cohort study?

      Your Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      A cohort study is a particular form of longitudinal study that samples a cohort (a group of people who share a defining characteristic, typically those who experienced a common event in a selected period, such as birth or graduation), performing a cross-section at intervals through time.
      The relative risk (RR) or risk ratio is the ratio of the probability of an outcome in an exposed group to the probability of an outcome in an unexposed group. Relative risk is used in the statistical analysis of the data of experimental, cohort and cross-sectional studies, to estimate the strength of the association between treatments or risk factors, and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is caused by vitamin D? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is caused by vitamin D?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma phosphate

      Explanation:

      Intestinal phosphate absorption is mediated by both transcellular and paracellular routes. The 1,25(OH)2D increases intestinal transcellular phosphate absorption at least in part by enhancing expression of type 2b sodium–phosphate cotransporter, thus increasing plasma phosphate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common chromosomal defect in Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Non-dysjunction

      Explanation:

      Nondisjunction of chromosome 21 is the leading cause of Down syndrome. Two risk factors for maternal nondisjunction of chromosome 21 are increased maternal age and altered recombination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Arrange an appointment with a psychiatrist

      Correct Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks

      Explanation:

      The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      58.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of 16. However, she gives the consent to be fed by a nasogastric tube. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances are you most likely to find?

      Your Answer: Hypophosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling...

    Correct

    • You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling to cope with the workload and often leave the ward late. Who is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer: Speak to your consultant

      Explanation:

      Speaking to your consultant is the most appropriate first action to take in this scenario. They are best placed to be able to take action to try and amend the situation. The consultant is also ultimately responsible for patient care and hterefore have a right to know if you are struggling, as this may affect patient care.
      Arriving early and taking time off sick do not address the problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Myc is a family of regulator genes and proto-oncogenes that code for transcription factors.

      A tumor suppressor gene, or antioncogene, is a gene that protects a cell from one step on the path to cancer. When this gene mutates to cause a loss or reduction in its function, the cell can progress to cancer, usually in combination with other genetic changes. Tumor suppressor genes can be grouped into categories including caretaker genes, gatekeeper genes, and landscaper genes; the classification schemes are continually evolving.
      Examples include:
      Gene Associated cancers
      p53 Common to many cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
      APC Colorectal cancer
      BRCA1 Breast and ovarian cancer
      BRCA2 Breast and ovarian cancer
      NF1 Neurofibromatosis
      Rb Retinoblastoma
      WT1 Wilm’s tumour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following immunological changes is seen in progressive HIV infection?

      Your Answer: Increase in B2-microglobulin levels

      Explanation:

      The immunological changes in HIV include depletion in CD4+ T cell, cytokine dysregulation and immune dysfunction. The dominant immunologic feature of HIV infection is progressive depletion of the helper T cell (CD4+ T cell), which reverses the normal CD4:CD8 ratio and subsequently lead to immunodeficiency. Other imuunological changes include:
      increased B2-microglobulin
      decreased IL-2 production
      polyclonal B-cell activation
      decreased NK cell function
      reduced delayed hypersensitivity responses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment...

    Correct

    • A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?

      Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Choose the correct stage in the cell cycle that vincristine acts on: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct stage in the cell cycle that vincristine acts on:

      Your Answer: M

      Explanation:

      Vincristine is part of the antimitotic agents, cell cycle specific (M phase). It binds to microtubules in the spindle apparatus and prevents their proper function, finally arresting mitosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • Supplementation of which one of the following might help a patient diagnosed with homocystinuria?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Correct Answer: Pyridoxine

      Explanation:

      In general, the aim is to keep the homocysteine (Hcy) concentration as close to normal as possible. In patients who are fully-responsive to pyridoxine, standard doses can lead to tHcy levels below 50 μmol/L (and sometimes within the normal range). Some patients who are partially-responsive to pyridoxine may be able to achieve a tHcy level below 50 μmol/L if they are also on a low-Met diet; for others it is not a realistic goal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders; occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Where is secretin secreted from? ...

    Correct

    • Where is secretin secreted from?

      Your Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a peptide hormone produced in the S cells of the duodenum, which are located in the intestinal glands. In humans, the secretin peptide is encoded by the SCT gene.
      Secretin helps regulate the pH of the duodenum by
      1) inhibiting the secretion of gastric acid from the parietal cells of the stomach and
      (2) stimulating the production of bicarbonate from the ductal cells of the pancreas.
      G cells in the antrum of the stomach release gastrin
      I cells in upper small intestine release CCK
      D cells in the pancreas & stomach secrete somatostatin
      K cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide, an incretin, which also promotes triglyceride storage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared test

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:

      1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
      2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
      3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
      4 Calculate:
      R+ = sum of all positive ranks
      R- = sum of all negative ranks
      R = smaller of R+ and R-
      5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Choose the correct statement regarding leptin: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding leptin:

      Your Answer: Is produced mainly by the hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      Leptin, a 167–amino acid hormone, was discovered in 1994 and is secreted mainly by adipocytes. Plasma leptin levels are significantly correlated with body mass index (BMI) and the total amount of body fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?

      Your Answer: Serum immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils...

    Incorrect

    • A new study was developed to assess the benefit of omega-3 fish oils in patients with established ischaemic heart disease. The power of the study is equal to:

      Your Answer: 1 - probability of making a type I error

      Correct Answer: 1 - probability of making a type II error

      Explanation:

      The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which form of study design would you choose if you were trying to...

    Correct

    • Which form of study design would you choose if you were trying to ascertain whether the use of dummies in infants is correlated with sudden infant death syndrome?

      Your Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      A case-control study is designed to help determine if an exposure is associated with an outcome (i.e., disease or condition of interest). In theory, the case-control study can be described simply. Case-control studies have specific advantages compared to other study designs. They are comparatively quick, inexpensive, and easy. They are particularly appropriate for (1) investigating outbreaks, and (2) studying rare diseases or outcomes. Sudden infant death syndrome is a rare medical event, thus case-control study is the most suitable option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:

      Your Answer: Is the square root of standard deviation

      Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases

      Explanation:

      When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
      The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      6.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (15/20) 75%
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