00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old heavy smoker (40 cigarettes per day) has a past history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Over the past few months he has suffered a chronic cough and has lost approximately 2 stone (about 12.5 kg) in weight. He has been increasingly drowsy over the past few days and his relatives were unable to rouse him this morning. On examination he has a Glasgow Coma Score of 6 and you notice that he has been incontinent of urine and faeces.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma with cerebral metastases

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scanning for Deteriorating Conscious Level in a Heavy Smoker with a History of Chronic Cough and Weight Loss

      This patient’s history of chronic cough and weight loss raises the possibility of bronchial carcinoma, which may have metastasized to the brain. The progressively deteriorating conscious level suggests increasing cerebral edema, which is a common complication of cerebral metastases. While stroke and glioblastoma are possible alternative diagnoses, they are less likely given the patient’s history. A meningioma is slow-growing, and subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden severe headache.

      Urgent CT scanning is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment. Medical treatment may include dexamethasone with or without mannitol IV to reduce cerebral edema. However, even with treatment, the prognosis for this type of presentation is extremely poor.

      Intracranial tumors can be caused by metastases, malignant primary brain tumors, or benign brain tumors. Metastases account for around 50% of cases, while malignant primary brain tumors and benign brain tumors account for around 35% and 10%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      789.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?

      Your Answer: Admit for 8 hours of observation

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.

      The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.

      It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old female patient who has a previous medical history of hypothyroidism visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient who has a previous medical history of hypothyroidism visits the clinic with complaints of weakness, specifically in her arms, which has been ongoing for the past four months. Additionally, she has been experiencing double vision towards the end of the day, despite having a recent normal eye examination. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
      On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors

      Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.

      Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old man presents with restlessness and drowsiness. He is known to drink...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with restlessness and drowsiness. He is known to drink in excess of fifty units of alcohol per week.

      On examination he has a broad-based gait. There is nystagmus and bilateral lateral rectus muscle palsy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Folic acid deficiency

      Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Serious Condition Linked to Alcoholism and Malnutrition

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. It is commonly seen in patients with a history of alcohol excess, malnutrition, and can even occur during pregnancy. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient for the brain.

      If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize and treat this condition as an emergency with thiamine replacement. The therapeutic window for treatment is short-lived, making early diagnosis and intervention essential.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have devastating consequences if left untreated. It is important to consider this diagnosis in confused patients, especially those with a history of alcoholism or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine replacement can prevent irreversible damage to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with complaints of lower back pain and pain and weakness in his lower limbs. He reports that his symptoms have been getting worse for the past five days. About three weeks ago, he had Campylobacter gastroenteritis.
      During the examination, the doctor observes diminished or absent reflexes in the legs and hypotonia. The patient's pain and light-touch sensations are also reduced.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polymyositis

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis, Multiple Sclerosis, Polymyositis, and Spinal Cord Compression

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a neurological disorder that causes demyelination and axonal degeneration, resulting in acute, ascending, and progressive neuropathy. It typically presents with symmetrical weakness starting in the lower extremities and may progress to respiratory failure in severe cases. Treatment involves plasma exchange or immunoglobulins and intravenous methylprednisolone, but approximately 20% of patients may experience residual disability and 10% may die from complications.

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is another neurological disorder that causes weakness, but it is characterized by fatigability and doesn’t involve sensory changes. Symptoms range from mild weakness of limited muscle groups to severe weakness of multiple muscle groups.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disorder that classically presents with symptoms and signs separated by time and space. Transverse myelitis can occur, resulting in acute weakness or paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and loss of control of the bowels and bladder.

      Polymyositis is a disorder characterized by muscle weakness that starts proximally and progresses over a period of weeks to months. While it may cause muscle aches, it would not normally cause sensory changes.

      Symptoms suggestive of spinal cord compression include back pain, paralysis, decreased sensation below the level of compression, and urinary and fecal incontinence or retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presents with recurrent attacks of the room spinning around her...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with recurrent attacks of the room spinning around her in a horizontal plane, which is happening on multiple occasions every day. Each attack lasts about ten seconds and seems to occur whenever she turns in bed, lies down or sits up from the supine position. There are no other associated symptoms. She is taking no medication. Standard neurological examination is normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Epley manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vertigo and Treatment Options

      Vertigo is a common condition that can be triggered by head movement and is characterized by brief bouts of dizziness. The Dix-Hallpike maneuver can be used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), which can be treated with the Epley maneuver. Sumatriptan is used to treat migraines, which may produce symptoms of vertigo but are not specifically related to head movement. Aspirin is used to manage acute stroke, which should be ruled out in patients with vertigo. Prochlorperazine can provide relief from vertigo symptoms, but it is not a curative measure for BPPV and the Epley maneuver should be tried first. Understanding the different causes and treatment options for vertigo can help patients manage their symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe, intermittent, piercing left-sided frontotemporal headache over the past few days. The headache seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day, and lasts between 15 minutes to 2 hours. He feels sick at the time and is unable to lie still. He had a similar episode last year.

      During a headache-free period, a complete neurological examination is entirely normal.

      What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s demographics, description of pain, and duration of symptoms, it is likely that they are experiencing a cluster headache. These headaches typically last between 15 minutes to 2 hours and occur in clusters over a period of time. The fact that the patient had a similar headache a year ago also supports this diagnosis.

      A carotid artery dissection would cause persistent symptoms, including neck pain and neurological symptoms, and would not explain the same symptoms occurring a year ago.

      Migraines usually present with unilateral, episodic headaches, but patients tend to want to lie still during an attack, which is the opposite of what is seen in cluster headaches. Additionally, migraines typically last longer than 15 minutes to 2 hours and do not occur in clusters over a period of time.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is more common in women over the age of 50 and tends to have a specific trigger, such as brushing teeth. The pain is typically more facial in distribution rather than frontotemporal.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They...

    Incorrect

    • A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They have a pulse and are breathing. The receptionist calls an ambulance whilst you assess the patient. You rub their sternum hard and say loudly ‘can you hear me?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      When evaluating a patient’s GCS score, producing unintelligible noises is assigned a score of 2. In this case, the patient is emitting a groan, which falls under this category and would receive a score of 2 for voice. Additionally, the patient would receive a score of 5 for motor response as they are able to localize pain and push away your hand. The patient would receive a score of 2 for eyes as they are only opening them in response to pain. Overall, the patient’s GCS score would be 9 out of 15.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 pm.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Temporomandibular joint dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics

      Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.

      Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.

      Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.

      Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.

      In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a no-no head tremor and an action tremor of the hands. There are no other neurological abnormalities.
      Select the most appropriate initial treatment.

      Your Answer: Selegiline

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Essential Tremor: A Common Movement Disorder

      Essential tremor is the most prevalent movement disorder, characterized by a postural tremor that can occur between the ages of 20 and 60. It is a slowly progressive condition that can last for years. The exact cause of essential tremor is unknown, but it can be inherited or occur sporadically. The frequency of the tremor ranges from 4-11 Hz, depending on the affected body segment. Essential tremor most commonly affects the hands, but it can also affect the head, voice, tongue, and legs. In severe cases, the tremor may occur at rest. Interestingly, small amounts of alcohol can alleviate the tremor, which is not the case for Parkinson’s disease. The most commonly used drugs for essential tremor are propranolol and primidone, but other medications such as alprazolam, atenolol, gabapentin, and topiramate may also be effective. Understanding essential tremor is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve C5

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7

      Explanation:

      The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old insulin-dependent type 2 diabetic visits her GP with a complaint of a burning sensation in her left leg. She mentions that the leg is very sensitive to touch as well.

      After diagnosis, the GP prescribes amitriptyline for neuropathic pain. However, after 12 weeks, the patient returns and reports no improvement despite taking the medication as directed.

      The GP decides to discontinue the use of amitriptyline. What alternative treatment options should the GP suggest next?

      Your Answer: Oral carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Oral duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The initial drugs recommended for treating neuropathic pain are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these medications are ineffective, the next step is to try one of the remaining three drugs. Therefore, the correct option is duloxetine.

      According to NICE guidelines, lidocaine patches are not a recommended treatment for neuropathic pain.

      Topical capsaicin is only suitable for localized neuropathic pain. Using topical capsaicin for neuropathic pain affecting the entire leg would not be appropriate.

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, including oral naproxen, are not recommended for treating neuropathic pain.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.

      Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements about the use of triptan agonists for treating...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the use of triptan agonists for treating migraines is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: May be given subcutaneously

      Correct Answer: Should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of an aura

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to take triptans as soon as the headache begins, rather than waiting for the aura to start.

      Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment

      Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.

      It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.

      While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.

      Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A home visit is requested by the husband of a 72-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • A home visit is requested by the husband of a 72-year-old woman who is experiencing difficulty walking. Upon arrival, the patient reports weakness in her left arm since mid-morning and displays some facial asymmetry when smiling. Apart from a history of hypertension managed with ramipril, she is generally healthy. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange review at rapid access TIA clinic

      Correct Answer: Dial 999 for emergency admission

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective...

    Incorrect

    • In a 20-year-old man with generalised tonic-clonic seizures, what is the most effective initial oral treatment option?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Valproate

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatments for Epilepsy: A Guide

      When it comes to treating epilepsy, it’s important to choose the right medication for the specific type of seizure. While topiramate is often used as a first-line treatment, there isn’t enough evidence to support its effectiveness. Phenobarbital is no longer recommended due to its side effects, and phenytoin can cause problems with long-term use. For primary generalized epilepsy, lamotrigine and valproate are the preferred options, although lamotrigine can worsen myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine can also be used, but may exacerbate myoclonic or absence seizures. For partial seizures, carbamazepine or lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, with levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, or sodium valproate as alternatives if needed. By choosing the right medication, patients with epilepsy can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden weakness on the right side of her face and difficulty with tears flowing from her right eye. She experienced some mild pain around her right ear the day before the weakness started.

      Upon examination, there is evident right facial nerve palsy, and there are no indications of herpes zoster infection.

      What can be said about this condition?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids are strongly recommended to improve outcomes

      Correct Answer: Anti-virals are of proven benefit

      Explanation:

      Bell’s Palsy: Treatment and Symptoms

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, usually on one side of the face. While the cause of Bell’s palsy is unclear, it is thought to be a post-viral phenomenon in many cases. Interestingly, a family history is found in around 4% of patients with Bell’s.

      Most patients with Bell’s palsy make a complete recovery, but to protect the cornea, artificial tears are absolutely required. Post-auricular pain is found in around 50% of patients and may occur 2-3 days before presentation.

      When it comes to treatment, corticosteroids have demonstrated significantly improved outcomes in Bell’s palsy, in contrast to anti-virals where two recent RCTs were negative. It is important to note that early treatment is crucial for the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the correct statement regarding thrombolytic treatment of acute ischaemic stroke? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding thrombolytic treatment of acute ischaemic stroke?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis should be given on the basis of a clinical diagnosis when access to immediate CT scanning is not available

      Correct Answer: Control of malignant or severe hypertension is required before thrombolysis

      Explanation:

      Thrombolysis in Acute Ischaemic Stroke: Guidelines and Considerations

      Thrombolysis is a treatment option for acute ischaemic stroke, but it must be administered within a narrow window of opportunity. Before thrombolysis can be given, haemorrhage must be excluded by CT scan. Unfortunately, only a minority of patients meet the criteria for thrombolysis due to the time-sensitive nature of the treatment.

      While thrombolysis can reduce long-term deaths and disability, it does come with a small increase in short-term deaths. Uncontrolled hypertension is a risk factor that should be addressed before thrombolysis is considered. Additionally, there are several contraindications, including recent surgery, current anticoagulation, previous intracranial bleeding, urinary tract bleeding, and known cerebral aneurysm.

      It’s important to note that thrombolysis is not beneficial for transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs). Overall, the decision to administer thrombolysis in acute ischaemic stroke requires careful consideration and adherence to guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse. He is brought in by a friend because he has been more confused over the last few days.

      On examination the patient has nystagmus, an abducens nerve palsy and walks with an ataxic gait.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Neuropsychiatric Consequences of Heavy Alcohol Intake

      Sustained heavy alcohol intake can lead to several neuropsychiatric consequences. One of these is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the classic triad may not always be present, and patients may experience other symptoms such as headache, anorexia, vomiting, and confusion. This condition is caused by thiamine deficiency and requires prompt treatment with parenteral thiamine to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a progression from Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Patients with this condition develop memory problems but have good preservation of other cognitive functions. They are unable to consolidate new information and tend to confabulate rather than acknowledge their poor memory. Although treatment with thiamine is necessary, the response is often poor. Therefore, it is important to address alcohol intake and prevent the development of these debilitating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
      During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
      Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer: Examination of the optic fundi

      Correct Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries

      Explanation:

      Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:

      1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.

      2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.

      3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.

      4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.

      5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Guillain Barre syndrome

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is reported to have brief staring spells (lasting seconds at a time) accompanied by a blank facial expression. He stops what he is doing during the attack and remains motionless. Several of these can occur during the day.
      Which statement correctly describes this condition?

      Your Answer: Educational attainment and behaviour are not affected

      Correct Answer: Hyperventilation may precipitate an attack

      Explanation:

      Childhood Absence Epilepsy: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Childhood absence epilepsy, also known as petit mal epilepsy, is a type of generalized epilepsy that typically begins between the ages of four and seven. While the seizures associated with this condition are not usually life-threatening, they can have a significant impact on a child’s education, development, and behavior.

      Diagnosis of childhood absence epilepsy is typically made through a combination of clinical history and electroencephalogram (EEG) testing. Hyperventilation can be used to trigger an absence seizure, which is characteristic of this type of epilepsy. Neuroimaging is not typically necessary unless there is a suspicion of structural abnormalities.

      Treatment for childhood absence epilepsy typically involves medication, with sodium valproate, ethosuximide, and lamotrigine being the drugs of choice. In some cases, a combination of medications may be necessary to fully control seizures. The ketogenic diet may also be effective for some children.

      The prognosis for childhood absence epilepsy is generally good, with 80% of patients responding well to medication. However, tonic-clonic seizures may develop in up to 40% of children with this condition, and persistence of seizures is more likely in these cases. Despite the challenges associated with childhood absence epilepsy, educational attainment and behavior are typically not affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient who is suspected of having classical migraine (migraine with aura). At what point is an aura considered atypical and a potential 'red flag' if it lasts longer than what duration?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the correct statement about the use of levodopa in the treatment...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement about the use of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's disease from the given list of options?

      Your Answer: The lowest effective dose should be used

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: A First Line Drug for Parkinson’s Disease Treatment

      Levodopa is considered as the primary medication for treating Parkinson’s disease, especially for individuals in the early stages of the disease whose motor symptoms affect their quality of life. Compared to other alternatives such as dopamine agonists and MAO-B inhibitors, levodopa is more effective in managing motor symptoms, although it has more motor complications.

      To prevent peripheral metabolism of the drug, levodopa is combined with a peripheral dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor called carbidopa. This combination allows a greater proportion of levodopa to cross the blood-brain barrier for central nervous system effect. The most commonly used preparations are Sinemet® and Madopar®.

      It is recommended to start with the lowest effective dose that maintains good function, such as Sinemet® 62.5 mg tds with food, which can be increased to 125 mg after two weeks. Levodopa is generally well-tolerated, and side-effects such as nausea and dizziness are rare and mild. There is no evidence that using modified-release levodopa from the start delays the onset of motor complications. However, prolonged use of levodopa may be associated with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. She has diabetes and has not attended the diabetic follow-up clinic for a year. Eight months ago she had a mild stroke that affected her right side. She was also found to have atrial fibrillation, for which she is taking warfarin.
      On examination, she is obese. She has normal muscle power. Her tone is slightly increased on the right, with right-sided reflexes are slightly brisker than those on the left. Pinprick is reduced over the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Anterolateral Thigh Pain in a Stroke Patient with Increased Reflexes and Tone

      The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This condition typically causes pain and sensory abnormalities in the anterolateral thigh and is more common in obese individuals. The patient’s increased reflexes and tone on the right side are likely due to the stroke she suffered seven months ago.

      Other possible causes of anterolateral thigh pain and weakness include diabetic femoral nerve amyotrophy, femoral hernia, and iliopsoas haematoma from warfarin use. However, these conditions are less likely based on the patient’s presentation.

      Thalamic pain from a previous stroke is another potential cause, although it is not typically as well-localized as the patient’s symptoms suggest. It is important to consider the patient’s diabetes as a factor that may increase the susceptibility of any peripheral nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about developing Alzheimer's disease. He has been experiencing memory problems for the past few months, frequently repeating questions according to his wife. He struggles to recall recent events but has a good memory of things that happened a long time ago. What finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Objective neurological deficits

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cognitive Impairment in Alzheimer’s Dementia

      Alzheimer’s dementia is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects cognitive function. While it doesn’t typically cause objective neurological deficits, it can manifest in a variety of cognitive impairments. These include an inability to plan activities, agnosia (the failure to identify objects despite intact sensory function), apraxia (the inability to carry out motor activities despite intact motor function), and language disturbance (such as receptive or expressive dysphasia). These impairments are all related to executive function and can be seen in other forms of dementia as well. Understanding these symptoms can help with early detection and management of Alzheimer’s dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 37-year-old woman presents with new-onset facial weakness. She had been in excellent...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with new-onset facial weakness. She had been in excellent health until last summer when, after a hiking trip, she noticed an expanding erythematous rash on her abdomen, ultimately about 8 inches in diameter and lasting about three weeks. This improved following treatment with an oral cephalosporin, but she developed six weeks of diffuse arthralgias and headaches.
      She has developed acute right facial paralysis, evolving over 24 hours, with retro auricular pain, hyperacusis and a decreased sense of taste. On examination, a complete, right lower motor neurone, seventh nerve palsy is noted.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Facial Paralysis and Other Symptoms After a Walking Holiday

      Facial paralysis is a common neurological manifestation of Lyme disease, which is a possible diagnosis for a patient with no specific history of tick bite but with a rash and arthralgias after a walking holiday. Sarcoidosis can also cause facial palsy but fits less well with the story. Bell’s palsy is consistent with a complete lower motor neurone seventh nerve palsy, hyperacusis, and retroarticular pain, but doesn’t explain the preceding symptoms. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations, which doesn’t fit with a single episode of seventh nerve palsy. Ramsay Hunt syndrome would cause pain and a vesicular eruption in and around the ear and the facial palsy but not the other features, and is unlikely without the characteristic rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for sweet foods. He lost his job as an accountant because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. The neurological examination is normal.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia (Pick’s Disease)

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of progressive dementia that primarily affects the frontal and/or temporal lobes of the brain. Unlike other dementias that affect the posterior parietal lobes, frontotemporal dementia is the fourth most common cause of dementia, following Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease, and vascular or non-neurodegenerative dementia. It typically occurs in individuals aged 55-65 and is characterized by insidious onset of behavioral and cognitive effects.

      Early symptoms of frontotemporal dementia include psychiatric problems such as aggression, socially inappropriate behavior, and lack of concern or apathy. Depression may also occur early on, before memory loss. Speech and language problems are common, with difficulty in naming objects and grammatically incorrect speech. Memory problems are less severe in the early stages of the disease. Incontinence may also be an early feature, unlike in Alzheimer’s disease. Parkinsonism may develop but is not as prominent as in Lewy body disease.

      On examination, patients with frontotemporal dementia may exhibit inappropriate behavior, echolalia, and echopraxia. Neurological examination may show primitive reflexes and akinesia with plastic rigidity. Visuospatial and visual orientation skills are relatively well preserved.

      Full clinical diagnostic features of frontotemporal dementia can be found in the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance, February 2006. It is important to differentiate frontotemporal dementia from other types of dementia, as the treatment and management strategies may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 12 hours ago. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently taking carbamazepine.

      What is the recommended first-line emergency contraception to offer in this situation?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel 3 mg

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 30 mg

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Emergency Contraception in Patients on Liver-Inducing Drugs

      The question of first-line treatment for emergency contraception in patients on liver-inducing drugs is an important one. It is crucial to understand the terminology used in such questions to avoid confusion and provide accurate answers. The recommended first-line treatment in such cases is the copper intrauterine device. This device is particularly useful for patients on drugs such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, antiretrovirals, and St John’s wort, which induce liver enzymes. If a patient declines the use of an IUD, a double dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line treatment. It is important to note that this information is specific to first-line treatment and not just any possible treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old truck driver has recently been diagnosed with epilepsy and started on sodium valproate. What guidance should be given regarding his group 2 license?

      Your Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 1 year without medication

      Correct Answer: He cannot drive until he is fit-free for 10 years without medication

      Explanation:

      Individuals who possess a group 2 license and have epilepsy are only permitted to operate a vehicle after a period of 10 years without experiencing seizures while not taking medication. This is a more stringent requirement compared to group 1 license holders. If a group 2 license holder is diagnosed with epilepsy, it is advised that they refrain from driving, even if their condition is under control with medication. Only after a decade of being seizure-free without medication can they undergo a reassessment to determine their eligibility to drive.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for his unilateral, throbbing headaches accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being evaluated for his unilateral, throbbing headaches accompanied by photophobia that have been occurring once every two weeks for the past year and a half. Despite taking paracetamol, which has had limited effect, he continues to experience these symptoms. His family has a history of migraines. According to NICE, what is the most appropriate treatment for an acute attack?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Nasal triptan + paracetamol

      Explanation:

      For patients aged 12-17 with migraines, it is recommended to use a combination of nasal sumatriptan and an NSAID or nasal sumatriptan and paracetamol for acute treatment. Oral triptans are not approved for use in individuals under 18 years old. For prophylaxis, topiramate or propranolol are recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He recently experienced a seizure and was referred to a neurologist for further investigation. Despite showing symptoms of a seizure, all tests, including EEG and imaging, came back normal. The neurologist concluded that it was a solitary fit and advised against medication. The patient has been discharged from further follow-up but was instructed to inform the DVLA. He has come to you for guidance on how long he should refrain from driving his car after the initial seizure.

      Can you provide information on the potential causes of seizures in adults?

      Your Answer: 4 months

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Understanding DVLA Driving Restrictions for Patients with Neurological Conditions

      There are important pieces of information to consider when it comes to driving restrictions for patients with neurological conditions. In the case of a banking assistant who experienced a solitary seizure, the latest DVLA guidance suggests refraining from driving for six months after the seizure. This applies to Group 1 entitlement drivers, which includes cars and motorcycles. If the patient was an HGV driver, the restriction would be five years.

      It’s important to note that this was an isolated seizure with normal test results and no medication. If the patient had epilepsy, the driving restriction would be one year following the attack. It’s crucial to be familiar with the latest guidance and any new changes, as questions about driving restrictions often come up in the MRCGP exam.

      Understanding the impact of these restrictions on patients’ working and personal lives is also important. As part of the curriculum map for neurological problems, candidates should have an understanding of the current DVLA restrictions on driving, particularly with regard to epilepsy. It’s essential to be aware of any new restrictions or amendments and to pass on this information to patients. By staying informed, doctors can help patients navigate the potential consequences of driving restrictions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

    The neurologist decides to observe him...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a generalised tonic-clonic seizure.

      The neurologist decides to observe him off treatment but two months later he has another seizure.

      What percentage of people who have two seizures will go on to have a third if they do not receive any treatment?

      Your Answer: >90%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Likelihood of Successive Seizures

      Once a person experiences a second seizure, there is a high probability that they will have a third event, with around 75% of untreated individuals experiencing this. As a result, it is crucial to consider treatment options at this stage. This question aims to test a candidate’s understanding of the likelihood of successive seizures by providing broad ranges of percentages. This knowledge is essential for GPs who often counsel patients on their management and need to make informed decisions about whether to escalate treatment based on the likelihood of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced since her teenage years. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the frequency of her headaches. She attributes this to her stressful job, which has caused her to feel more anxious. She reports a bilateral frontal headache that is moderate in intensity and feels like a tightening sensation. She denies any prodrome, visual symptoms, or vomiting. On examination, she appears well and has a blood pressure of 118/68 mmHg. Her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there are no focal neurological deficits. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate

      Explanation:

      Managing Tension Headaches

      Tension headaches are a common type of headache that can be episodic or chronic. Episodic tension headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as paracetamol, aspirin, or NSAIDs. However, chronic tension headaches may require a regular prescription of amitriptyline or nortriptyline. Acupuncture may also be a treatment option for some patients.

      It is important to note that codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided in the treatment of tension headaches due to the risk of medication overuse headache. Patients who respond to amitriptyline should continue treatment for at least 2 months before slowly reducing the dose to stop. Those who cannot tolerate amitriptyline may be prescribed nortriptyline instead. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage tension headaches and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner as the previous night he...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner as the previous night he experienced sudden onset of numbness and weakness of the right arm and leg. The symptoms fully resolved after approximately eight hours. Since the last episode, he has had no further symptoms and is usually well. Neurological examination is normal and his blood pressure is 158/92 mmHg. It is found that he has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 96 bpm.
      What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Initiate amlodipine 5 mg

      Correct Answer: Administer aspirin 300 mg immediately

      Explanation:

      Importance of Immediate Actions for Suspected TIA Patients

      When a patient presents with symptoms of a suspected transient ischaemic attack (TIA), immediate actions are crucial to reduce the risk of stroke. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend administering aspirin 300 mg immediately, even in cases of unconfirmed TIA. Referral for specialist assessment should also be made immediately, with the patient seen within 24 hours. The ABCD2 score is no longer recommended for risk stratification, as all suspected cases of TIA should be regarded as potentially high risk of stroke. While antihypertensives may be necessary, initiating aspirin is a higher priority. Additionally, patients should be advised not to drive for at least one month after a TIA. Taking these immediate actions can greatly improve outcomes for patients with suspected TIA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 1-day history of left-sided neck pain and right-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain began, he noted that his left eyelid was drooping and that he had developed weakness and altered sensation in his right arm and leg.
      He had recently visited a chiropractor for neck pain after a road traffic accident. Examination reveals a left Horner syndrome and weakness and sensory disturbance on the right-hand side with an extensor right plantar.
      What is the single most likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior fossa space-occupying lesion

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery dissection

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for Sudden-Onset Symptoms and Signs with Horner Syndrome: Carotid Artery Dissection

      The sudden onset of symptoms and signs, along with Horner syndrome, suggests a possible left carotid artery dissection leading to left hemispheric ischaemia and subsequent right-sided signs. While chiropractic manipulation and neck trauma can cause carotid and vertebral artery dissections, they often occur spontaneously. Dissection should be considered when neck pain is associated with an ischaemic stroke syndrome. Horner syndrome is a common symptom of carotid artery dissection due to the close relationship between sympathetic nerve fibres and the carotid artery.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as subarachnoid haemorrhage, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, and venous sinus thrombosis, do not fully explain the constellation of symptoms and signs, particularly the presence of Horner syndrome. Therefore, carotid artery dissection remains a likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
    Two days earlier he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an episode of memory loss.
      Two days earlier he had become confused. His daughter led him into the house where he apparently sat down at her request and had a glass of water. He then wandered around the house confused, but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his daughter, though continuing to ask similar questions repeatedly.
      After four hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol related amnesia

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: A Brief Overview

      Transient global amnesia is a rare condition that typically affects individuals over the age of 50. It is characterized by a temporary vascular insufficiency of both hippocampi, which results in a sudden onset of memory loss. However, despite the memory loss, individuals retain their awareness of personal identity and normal cognitive function.

      The episode usually lasts less than 24 hours, and the memory loss is often limited to recent events. The cause of transient global amnesia is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain. While the condition can be alarming, it is generally not considered to be a serious or life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 29-year-old woman began to stumble when walking. Her right leg was slightly...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman began to stumble when walking. Her right leg was slightly stiff and weak, especially after exercise and hot showers. These symptoms developed over 3 days and gradually disappeared over 4 weeks. She was on the college swimming team before these symptoms arose. There, she developed a unique and extreme type of fatigue that was different from the usual fatigue she experienced when swimming. This disappeared after several weeks, but reappeared again 6 months before her current presentation.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Sclerosis and its Symptoms

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that often presents with symptoms that worsen with exercise and heat, and profound fatigue. These symptoms are not consistent with chronic fatigue syndrome, as MS symptoms are separated by time and can vary in intensity. Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, and diabetic neuropathy tend to have symmetrical neurological impairment, which is not typical of MS.

      Fatigue is a common symptom experienced by about 70% of MS patients. It is different from regular tiredness or exhaustion and is often out of proportion to any activity performed. Primary fatigue is caused by MS itself, while secondary fatigue is caused by other factors that affect MS patients more than those without the condition, such as depression, pain, and sleep disturbance. Understanding the symptoms of MS can help patients manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old man has suddenly developed left-sided facial weakness and comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has suddenly developed left-sided facial weakness and comes to the clinic on the same day. He is experiencing difficulty in closing his left eye, has lost taste on the front of the tongue, and is sensitive to loud noise. The entire left side of his face is affected, and he cannot wrinkle his forehead on the left side.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Aciclovir and prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone 25 mg twice a day

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, resulting in the inability to wrinkle the forehead. This indicates a lower motor neurone (LMN) lesion, which is often caused by a viral infection such as herpes simplex type 1 or varicella zoster. In the past, the majority of cases were labelled idiopathic or Bell’s palsy, but recent research has shed light on the underlying causes.

      Other symptoms of facial nerve palsy may include hyperacusis, inability to produce tears, and loss of taste. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brain stem.

      Treatment for facial nerve palsy typically involves prednisolone, which should be given within 72 hours of onset and continued for 10 days. Aciclovir is no longer recommended, and there is no evidence supporting the use of steroids in children. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary if the cornea is exposed despite attempts to close the eyelid.

      While most patients recover fully from facial nerve palsy, some may experience permanent nerve damage or severe sequelae. It is important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a 3-month history of progressive difficulty with speech and swallowing. During examination, she exhibits dysarthria and a brisk gag reflex. There is increased tone in all four limbs, with weakness distributed pyramidally. Sensation is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: Types, Symptoms, and Characteristics

      Motor neurone disease, also known as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is a degenerative condition that affects motor neurones, leading to increasing disability and death. It usually occurs after the age of 50 and has a focal onset, with a particular group of muscles affected first. Rare variants include primary lateral sclerosis and progressive muscular atrophy.

      Brainstem gliomas are diagnosed in children and young adults under the age of twenty, with common symptoms including double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, dysarthria, headache, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Physical examination commonly elicits long tract signs such as spasticity, hyperreflexia, and abnormal reflexes.

      Cervical spondylotic myelopathy is a serious consequence of cervical intervertebral disc degeneration, with clinical signs and symptoms depending on which spinal cord level is affected and the extent of the pathology. There may be upper and lower motor neurone signs, sensory changes, and bladder and bowel involvement.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome presents within 3 weeks of a respiratory or bowel infection, due to immune damage to the peripheral nervous system. Early symptoms include nerve root type pain and paraesthesia of the legs and feet, followed by proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities progressing over hours to days. Tendon reflexes are lost but plantar responses remain normal.

      Multiple sclerosis is characterized by symptomatic neurological episodes, motor, sensory, or autonomic, that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 56-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presents with worsening neuropathic pain in his legs despite being on amitriptyline hydrochloride. His HbA1c is 82 mmol/mol. What would be the next step in managing his painful diabetic neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Referral to pain clinic for specialist advice

      Correct Answer: Switch to a different neuropathic pain drug

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic pain drugs are typically prescribed as a single therapy, and if they are not effective, they should be switched rather than combined with other drugs. However, it is common to see patients taking a combination of neuropathic agents. The 2013 NICE guidelines advise against prescribing more than one neuropathic pain drug at the same time, such as amitriptyline and gabapentin or pregabalin if there has been little response to amitriptyline. Capsaicin cream can be used as an alternative to oral preparations if they are not desired or tolerated. If the pain is severe or significantly affects the patient’s quality of life, a referral to a pain clinic should be considered. In cases where initial treatments have failed and the patient is awaiting referral, a short course of tramadol may be considered. It is incorrect to titrate amitriptyline if the patient has not responded to two months of treatment, as further titration is unlikely to be beneficial.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.

      Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg for acute migraine attacks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has been prescribed sumatriptan 50 mg for acute migraine attacks because over-the-counter remedies were not effective. She has not found them to be effective in spite of taking two doses in attack. Only partial relief was obtained after each dose.
      What is the most appropriate drug to prescribe next?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen 400mg

      Correct Answer: Sumatriptan 100 mg

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine: Steps and Medications to Consider

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects millions of people worldwide. When managing migraine, the first step is to use simple analgesia with or without antiemetics. This may include aspirin, ibuprofen, or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Paracetamol may not be strong enough, while codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided due to their potential for medication-overuse headache and addiction.

      If the initial treatment is not effective, the next step is to offer rectal analgesia and antiemetics. Diclofenac suppositories and domperidone suppositories may be suitable for patients experiencing vomiting.

      The third step is to use specific anti-migraine drugs or ergotamine. Triptans are the first choice for specific anti-migraine drugs. If the first choice fails to relieve the acute migraine pain adequately, the doctor may consider increasing the dose of the same triptan, using a different formulation for more rapid response, or changing to a different triptan. Ergotamine is best avoided due to its limited absorption and side-effects. If it is used, it is better taken rectally.

      It is important to note that opioids and ergotamine should be avoided in the management of acute migraine, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      In conclusion, managing migraine involves a stepwise approach that considers the patient’s symptoms and response to treatment. It is essential to consult the Guidelines for All Healthcare Professionals in the Diagnosis and Management of Migraine, Tension-Type, Cluster and Medication-Overuse Headache by the British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) for a more detailed account of migraine management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman who had a meningioma removed 3 months ago is experiencing menorrhagia and severe bruising. She has also observed swelling of her gums and a gradual decline in energy and strength. Which medication is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oxcarbazepine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Drugs and their Side Effects: A Comparison

      Craniotomies can increase the risk of seizures post-operatively, leading to prophylactic treatment with antiepileptics such as phenytoin. However, this drug is associated with gum hypertrophy and blood disorders. Carbamazepine may cause fatigue, bruising, and menorrhagia, but not gum hypertrophy. Sodium valproate can cause most symptoms but is not commonly associated with gum hypertrophy and should be avoided in women of reproductive age. Topiramate can cause all symptoms except gum hypertrophy, while oxcarbazepine rarely causes thrombocytopenia and doesn’t commonly lead to gum hypertrophy. Overall, phenytoin is the most likely drug causing the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male smoker presents with sudden and severe pain on the left side of his head, which has occurred four times this week. He reports that the pain is not throbbing and denies any visual disturbances or aura. Upon examination, there is profuse rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and swelling of the left eyelid. Additionally, the patient has partial ptosis and miosis on the left side. Further questioning reveals that both the patient and his father experience this pain every two years or so. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      This case depicts the manifestation of a cluster headache, which is accompanied by several risk factors such as being a young male smoker with a positive family history. The occurrence of partial Horner’s syndrome is a common symptom in cluster headaches, but the primary autonomic symptoms are rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion, and lacrimation.

      Although the absence of visual disturbances like photophobia or blurred vision makes acute closed-angle glaucoma less probable, it is still advisable to consider this condition in such a presentation.

      While it is possible to have migraines without aura, the non-throbbing nature of the pain makes this diagnosis less likely.

      The one-sided pain distribution is inconsistent with a typical tension headache, which is usually described as a ‘tight band’ around the head.

      The sudden onset and recurrence every two years make the presence of a brain tumour less likely.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 70-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a left hemiparesis. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a left hemiparesis. What sign would indicate that he is more likely to have an ischaemic stroke rather than a haemorrhagic stroke?

      Your Answer: Diastolic blood pressure >110 mm Hg

      Correct Answer: Carotid bruit

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Ischaemic from Haemorrhagic Stroke: The Role of Symptoms and Neuroimaging

      Symptoms alone are not enough to differentiate between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke. Neuroimaging is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. However, a meta-analysis has shown that the presence of certain incorrect options can increase the likelihood of haemorrhagic stroke. Coma is also more commonly associated with haemorrhagic stroke. Conversely, the probability of haemorrhage is decreased by the presence of cervical bruit and prior transient ischaemic attack. Therefore, a combination of symptoms and neuroimaging is crucial in accurately distinguishing between ischaemic and haemorrhagic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect may be experiencing migraines. What feature is more prevalent in younger patients with migraines compared to older ones?

      Your Answer: Attacks lasting > 24 hours

      Correct Answer: Bilateral symptoms

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of migraine in children are frequently experienced on both sides of the head.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman with vague symptoms is seen by 4 different GPs over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with vague symptoms is seen by 4 different GPs over the course of 8 months and is finally diagnosed with multiple sclerosis following an MRI.

      A GP partner reviews her notes to see whether there were any early indicators of this diagnosis. Select ONE statement in her notes that in retrospect, is highly suggestive of multiple sclerosis.

      Your Answer: Photophobia

      Correct Answer: Relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) + Pale optic discs

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis is frequently observed in individuals with multiple sclerosis, often as an initial symptom.

      Migraines are typically associated with unilateral throbbing headaches, while photophobia is a common symptom of both migraines and meningitis.

      Hair loss and sweating are nonspecific symptoms and do not necessarily indicate multiple sclerosis.

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her general practice surgery following two episodes of sudden-onset limb paralysis at night, which have occurred over the last four months. She describes waking shortly after falling asleep and being unable to move her limbs or to speak. This is associated with a feeling of suffocation that lasts for about one minute. She has no other symptoms other than daytime sleepiness which she has attributed to her busy work schedule. Her father recently died from an intracranial haemorrhage during his sleep.
      On examination, no abnormalities are observed.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Transient Limb Paralysis with Sleep Paralysis

      Transient limb paralysis with sleep paralysis can be a frightening experience for patients. However, it can be caused by a variety of conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. One possible cause is narcolepsy, which presents with a tetrad of classic symptoms including excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Brainstem transient ischaemic attack (TIA) can also cause vertigo, dizziness, and imbalance, but not episodic limb paralysis. Cervical disc prolapse (CDP) typically produces neck and arm pain or symptoms of spinal cord compression, which are not transient. Depression and anxiety may cause feelings of suffocation during a panic attack, but no other symptoms are described in this patient. Nocturnal seizures, which occur during sleep, may cause unusual conditions upon awakening, but transient limb paralysis is not typically a feature. Considering these potential causes can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old male with prostate cancer visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain accompanied by shooting pains down both legs to the knee. During the examination, the doctor observes decreased tone in the lower limbs and is unable to elicit ankle and knee reflexes.

      What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Cauda equina

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of cauda equina syndrome includes lower back pain, reduced perianal sensation, and sciatica, with urinary incontinence as a late sign. Bilateral sciatica and lower back pain are typical symptoms. Referred hip pain may be felt in the knee and lower back, but it would not be associated with sciatica or lower motor neuron signs in the legs. A conus medullaris lesion would present with leg weakness and early painless retention and constipation. A sciatic nerve lesion would not be bilateral, so it is unlikely in a patient with bilateral sciatica and lower back pain. A bilateral L5 nerve root lesion would cause sciatica that may extend to the toes, numbness in the foot and/or toes (especially on the side of the big toe), and foot drop, but ankle and knee reflexes would remain intact.

      Understanding Cauda Equina Syndrome

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. This can lead to permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness, as well as urinary and bowel incontinence. It is important to consider CES in any patient who presents with new or worsening lower back pain.

      The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically occurring at L4/5 or L5/S1. Other causes include tumors, infections, trauma, and hematomas. CES may present in a variety of ways, including low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation or pins-and-needles in the perianal area, and decreased anal tone. Urinary dysfunction, such as incontinence, reduced awareness of bladder filling, and loss of urge to void, is also a possible symptom.

      It is crucial to recognize that there is no one symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude CES. However, checking anal tone in patients with new-onset back pain is good practice, even though studies show that it has poor sensitivity and specificity for CES. In case of suspected CES, an urgent MRI is necessary. The management of CES involves surgical decompression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old man is referred by his GP to the memory clinic and is diagnosed with mild vascular dementia. He has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and early peripheral vascular disease. Which medication listed below would be the best option for treating his cognitive symptoms?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine, are a class of drugs used to treat cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia. The goal is to slow down the rate of decline, and approximately half of patients respond positively to the medication. However, it is challenging to determine the individual response as it is unknown how much deterioration would have occurred without the medication. Memantine, a glutamate receptor antagonist, is another drug used in Alzheimer’s disease and is recommended by NICE for severe dementia or when anticholinesterase inhibitors are not suitable. Rivastigmine can also be prescribed for dementia associated with Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, there are currently no medications available to treat cognitive symptoms in vascular dementia.

      Understanding the Causes of Dementia

      Dementia is a condition that affects millions of people worldwide, and it is caused by a variety of factors. The most common causes of dementia include Alzheimer’s disease, cerebrovascular disease, and Lewy body dementia. These conditions account for around 40-50% of all cases of dementia.

      However, there are also rarer causes of dementia, which account for around 5% of cases. These include Huntington’s disease, Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Pick’s disease, and HIV (in 50% of AIDS patients). These conditions are less common but can still have a significant impact on those affected.

      It is also important to note that there are several potentially treatable causes of dementia that should be ruled out before a diagnosis is made. These include hypothyroidism, Addison’s disease, B12/folate/thiamine deficiency, syphilis, brain tumours, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural haematoma, depression, and chronic drug use (such as alcohol or barbiturates).

      In conclusion, understanding the causes of dementia is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment. While some causes are more common than others, it is important to consider all potential factors and rule out treatable conditions before making a final diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher complains of intense headache of 2-hours duration. The pain is localised around the right eye and is associated with tearing and redness of the eye. The patient reported he has had similar episodes over the last year. He also admits that these episodes occurred every day for a few weeks with one to three attacks a day which last for 1-2 hours, frequently at night. After 6 weeks, the attacks stopped. She lost her job 6 months ago and has noticed an increase in the intensity of the pain since. Examination reveals drooping of the eyelid and small pupil on the right side.
      Select the single MOST likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Tension-type headache

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Headache Types: Cluster Headache, Intracranial Neoplasm, Acute Anterior Uveitis, Migraine, and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate between different types to provide appropriate treatment. Cluster headache is a rare condition that affects mostly men and is characterized by intense pain around one eye, accompanied by nasal stuffiness and sometimes Horner syndrome. In contrast, headache is often a late symptom of an intracranial neoplasm, and a new headache or change in pattern may indicate an underlying tumor. Acute anterior uveitis presents with eye pain, redness, photophobia, excessive tearing, and decreased vision. Migraine is a common type of headache that presents with severe, often unilateral pain, accompanied by vomiting and photophobia. Tension-type headache is usually mild to moderate and described as pressure or tightness around the head. Understanding the specific features and associated symptoms of each type of headache can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 50-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to your clinic with a complaint of a headache that has been persistent for the past four months. He reports a mild, dull ache over the right temporal area. The pain is present most of the time, is not related to posture, and is not worse at night. He has attempted to alleviate the pain with ibuprofen, but it has been ineffective. He denies experiencing any aura, nausea, vomiting, seizures, ringing in the ears, drowsiness, or changes in cognitive function. He is otherwise healthy and doesn't take any regular medications.

      During the examination, he is alert and oriented. His blood pressure is normal. The cervical spine examination reveals no abnormalities, and he has a good range of motion. The neurological examination, including the cranial nerves, is normal, and there is no papilledema.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for physiotherapy to the cervical spine

      Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral to a local specialist

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Patients with Recent Onset Headaches

      If a patient presents with a headache of recent onset, lasting for at least one month, but without any signs of raised intracranial pressure, it is recommended to discuss with a local specialist or consider a non-urgent referral. However, urgent referral to a specialist is necessary if the headache is accompanied by features suggestive of raised intracranial pressure, such as vomiting, drowsiness, posture-related headache, or pulse-synchronous tinnitus. Additionally, if the patient experiences other non-focal neurological symptoms like blackout, change in personality or memory, immediate referral to a specialist is also required. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with recent onset headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but she has also noticed that her head has a tendency to nod, especially when she is under stress or embarrassed. The hand tremor is worse when she is carrying things such as a cup and saucer. She has noticed that the symptoms are improved when she drinks alcohol. Her mother had a similar tremor. Examination reveals a 4-6-Hz tremor, most marked when her arms are outstretched, and nodding movements of the head. She has difficulty in neatly copying a spiral diagram. Other neurological examination is normal. Thyroid function is normal.
      Select the single most appropriate first-line therapy.

      Your Answer: A dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: A Comprehensive Guide

      Essential tremor is a common neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking of the hands, head, and voice. While there is no cure for essential tremor, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.

      Before starting any treatment, it is important to rule out any underlying peripheral or central nervous system disease and exclude possible causes of physiological tremor such as hyperthyroidism, drug-related tremor, or alcohol withdrawal.

      The most appropriate first-line therapy for essential tremor is β blockade. If this is not tolerated, primidone is an alternative. Other medications that have shown effectiveness include alprazolam, atenolol, topiramate, and clonazepam. However, gabapentin has only been found to be effective when used as monotherapy and not as adjunct therapy.

      For head tremors, botulinum toxin A can be used. In rare cases, surgery may be considered, such as deep brain stimulation or thalamotomy.

      It is important to note that mild tremors may not require any treatment or only intermittent treatment for difficult social situations.

      In conclusion, essential tremor can be managed with various treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true about acute post-infective polyneuropathy?

      Your Answer: It is an upper motor neurone lesion

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerves are not involved

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome: A Brief Overview

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a polyneuropathy that can affect cranial nerves, particularly the facial nerves. It is a lower motor neurone lesion that is often preceded by lumbar or intracapsular pain. While full recovery is possible, some residual weakness is common. In the acute phase, muscle wasting doesn’t occur, but it may develop in the long term. Respiratory muscle involvement can cause reduced peak flow, which may require ventilation. Additionally, sensory disturbance is typically present. Overall, Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic with a change in his behaviour, his wife has also noticed a few aggressive outbursts over the past months. His mini-mental test score is 20.
      Which patterns of cognitive deficit would favour a dementia of subcortical origin?

      Your Answer: Preserved verbal fluency

      Correct Answer: Reduced verbal output

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differences between Cortical and Subcortical Dementia

      Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there are many different types of dementia, two of the most common are cortical and subcortical dementia. Understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in diagnosing and treating the condition.

      Cortical dementia is caused by damage to the cerebral cortex, which is the outer layer of the brain. This area is responsible for memory and language, so patients with cortical dementia often experience severe memory loss and difficulty with language. Alzheimer’s, frontotemporal dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are all common causes of cortical dementia.

      Subcortical dementia, on the other hand, is caused by damage to areas beneath the cortex and disruption in the frontostriatal connections. This can result in early frontal lobe problems such as planning difficulties, poor verbal fluency, personality change, and task switching. While complex motor functions are typically preserved in subcortical dementia, patients may experience psychomotor slowing, reduced verbal output, and reduced alertness. Parkinson’s disease, vascular dementia, and multiple sclerosis are all common causes of subcortical dementia.

      It’s important to note that the distinction between cortical and subcortical dementia is not always clear-cut, and as the condition progresses, patients may experience symptoms of both types of dementia. However, understanding the differences between these two types of dementia can be helpful in identifying the underlying cause of the condition and developing an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?...

    Correct

    • What is the single correct statement concerning essential tremor from the list provided?

      Your Answer: Tremor may be worsened by medication

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tremors: Causes and Treatment Options

      Tremors can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication such as lithium, tricyclic antidepressants, metoclopramide, and bronchodilators. However, the most common type of tremor seen in general practice is essential tremor, which is worsened by posture and movement but relieved by rest. This type of tremor can affect various parts of the body, including the head, neck, jaw, and voice.

      In contrast, Parkinsonian tremor is present at rest. When it comes to treating essential tremor, β blockers are typically the first-line option. If these are not suitable, primidone may be tried, although it can cause sedation. Unfortunately, up to half of patients do not respond to these treatments or cannot tolerate them. In such cases, topiramate may be a viable alternative for long-term management.

      Occasionally, short-term treatment with alprazolam or clonazepam may be used to alleviate tremors caused by tension or anxiety. However, these medications can cause sedation and may be habit-forming. Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for tremors can help patients manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger and inability to pronate his forearm on one side. There is no history of trauma.
      Identify the nerve that is most likely to be affected.

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Anterior Interosseous Nerve: Function, Symptoms, and Treatment

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor nerve that branches off from the median nerve just below the antecubital fossa. It runs along the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius and ends in the pronator quadratus muscle at the wrist. Its primary function is to supply the flexor pollicis longus, the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.

      However, the nerve can be affected by direct penetrating injury or compression, leading to a condition known as anterior interosseous syndrome. This condition causes weakness in the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers, as the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus are weakened.

      Treatment for compression includes rest, immobilization, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and possibly steroid injections or nerve release and repair. While spontaneous recovery is possible, seeking medical attention is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 17-year-old man presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve lesion

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      Nerve Lesions and their Effects on Foot and Ankle Movement

      The common peroneal nerve, arising from the sciatic nerve, can be damaged by pressure in the area close to the head of the fibula. Its deep branch supplies muscles that dorsiflex the foot and toes, while the superficial branch supplies muscles that evert the foot. Damage to the posterior tibial nerve results in weakness of plantar flexion and inversion of the foot. A L4/5 palsy produces weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion with sensory loss over the lower leg. A sciatic nerve lesion produces weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, inversion, and plantar flexion, with widespread sensory loss and loss of the ankle jerk. Nerve entrapment is a rare cause of these lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe headache on the right side of his head that has been ongoing for the past hour. He also reports excessive watering of his right eye and a blocked nose.

      Over the past two weeks, he has experienced five similar episodes, each lasting around two hours. He has been feeling well in between each episode. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day.

      During the examination, he appears restless and agitated, making it difficult to perform a neurological assessment. However, you observe that his right pupil is more constricted than the left, and his blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. He is apyrexial.

      Apart from referring him to a neurologist for a confirmed diagnosis, what immediate treatment options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oral sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous sumatriptan

      Explanation:

      This individual is displaying classic symptoms of a cluster headache, including severe unilateral headache lasting between 15-180 minutes, accompanied by lacrimation, nasal congestion, and miosis on the same side.

      Subcutaneous triptans are an effective treatment for managing acute bouts of cluster headache. While intranasal triptans can also provide rapid relief, subcutaneous use has been shown to be more effective.

      There is no evidence to support the use of opioids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories, paracetamol, or oral triptans in this situation, and they should not be used.

      Short-burst oxygen therapy can also be used for rapid relief, but the individual’s current smoking status would make the use of home oxygen unsafe.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with no previous medical history of note complains of sudden-onset double vision that came on while he was playing basketball. He had a transient episode of weakness in his right arm 3 months ago that lasted several days. On examination he has a right-sided lateral rectus palsy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is diagnosed based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time. While other conditions may present similar symptoms, MS is the most likely diagnosis in the absence of other symptoms. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include midline meningioma and AION, which tend to cause visual field or other neurological signs. Lyme disease may cause facial and other cranial nerve palsies, but lesions would not be separated by time as they are in MS. Cerebral aneurysms typically present as subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      In summary, a diagnosis of MS is made based on the presence of two distinct neurological lesions separated by time, and other conditions must be ruled out through differential diagnosis. An MRI scan is used to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) concerned about his memory. He has felt more forgetful over the last six months; his wife mentions that he seems to ask the same questions repeatedly.
      The GP decides to conduct a Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE).
      What is the most appropriate advice to provide the patient before this test?

      Your Answer: The MMSE involves tests of immediate and delayed recall

      Explanation:

      The MMSE: A Test of Cognition and Recall

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used test to assess cognitive function in patients. It consists of 30 items that evaluate various aspects of cognition, including immediate and delayed recall, fine motor skills, calculation, language, and comprehension. One of the tasks involves asking the patient to recall three words immediately and later on in the test. A score of 27 or lower on the MMSE may indicate dementia.

      While the MMSE does test fine motor skills by asking the patient to copy intersecting pentagons, it may not be the best screening tool for general practice. GPs may find other tests, such as the 6-Item Cognitive Impairment Test or the GP Assessment of Cognition Test, more suitable for their needs.

      It’s important to note that the MMSE is not designed to assess affective disorders or delirium. Therefore, it should not be used for this purpose. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for clinicians to establish a baseline understanding of a patient’s cognitive state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 48-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy complains of severe headaches associated...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who takes hormone replacement therapy complains of severe headaches associated with photophobia, nausea and occasional vomiting. They typically affect the left side of her head, sometimes with temporary blurring of vision. They persist for up to 12 hours and occur on average once every 6-8 weeks.
      Select the single most appropriate first-line medical treatment.

      Your Answer: Amytriptyline

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen and domperidone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Migraine Without Aura

      Migraine without aura is a common type of migraine that can cause severe headaches, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. The first-line treatment for this condition is over-the-counter analgesia with an antiemetic prescribed if necessary. If this doesn’t work, patients can try the triptan group of medications, although some may respond better to one member of this group than another.

      For patients who experience at least two migraines per month, prophylactic treatment is normally used. NICE recommends combination therapy with an oral triptan and a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, or an oral triptan and paracetamol. Alternatively, monotherapy with an oral triptan, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug, aspirin, or paracetamol may be preferred.

      However, the BASH approach is considered more logical and is the basis for NICE’s guidelines. It is important to note that each case must be judged on an individual basis, and patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood....

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man has had a tendency to have complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly squats down on the ground and also has another repetitive action of rubbing his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes swear words. The symptoms prevent him from working and having a normal social life.
      Which of the following conditions is often associated with his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Tics: Tourette Syndrome, Epilepsy, Huntington’s Disease, Parkinson’s Disease, and Restless Legs Syndrome

      When a patient presents with sudden involuntary repeated movements or sounds, a tic disorder may be suspected. Tourette syndrome is a likely diagnosis if the symptoms have lasted longer than a year, started in childhood, and include at least two motor tics and one vocal tic. Tourette syndrome is often associated with other conduct disorders such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

      Myoclonic epilepsy may be considered as a differential diagnosis for tics, but the brief shock-like jerks of a muscle or group of muscles in myoclonic seizures are distinct from the complex tics and vocal tics seen in Tourette syndrome. There is no association between epilepsy and Tourette syndrome.

      Huntington’s disease, a hereditary condition characterized by chronic progressive chorea and mental deterioration, usually presents around the age of 40 years old. However, there is no association between Huntington’s disease and Tourette syndrome.

      Parkinson’s disease, a chronic neurological disorder characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremors, and rigidity, is not associated with Tourette syndrome.

      Restless legs syndrome, a common condition in which patients experience an unpleasant sensation in their legs that is temporarily relieved by movement, is not associated with Tourette syndrome. However, symptoms can affect sleep and may include periodic leg movements during sleep.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with tics, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis, including Tourette syndrome, epilepsy, Huntington’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and restless legs syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - What is the correct statement about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and its treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and its treatment?

      Your Answer: Treatment of ADHD is based on the use of sedatives to reduce arousal levels

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbance is a common side-effect of methylphenidate

      Explanation:

      Management of ADHD in Children and Adults

      Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder that affects both children and adults. Diagnosis and management of ADHD should be done by a specialist trained in the disorder. Management of ADHD includes drug-based and non-drug-based approaches such as cognitive behavioural therapy, social skills training, and family support.

      Methylphenidate, an amphetamine derivative, is commonly used in drug-based treatment of ADHD. However, sleeplessness and anxiety are common side effects during initiation. Growth monitoring, blood pressure, and pulse should be monitored initially and subsequently if there are clinical concerns, as growth retardation and raised blood pressure are potential side effects. An ECG may be necessary if there is a history or family history of cardiac disease.

      Ongoing prescriptions of methylphenidate are usually supplied by the GP under shared-care arrangements. Sedative drugs are not used in the management of ADHD. It is important to note that at least 15-20% of children with ADHD continue to have full ADHD as adults, and as many as 65% may continue to have problematic symptoms that interfere with their academic or work potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke? ...

    Incorrect

    • How long should a patient cease driving after experiencing a stroke?

      Your Answer: No restriction unless physical/visual impairment

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      If you have had a stroke or TIA, the DVLA advises that you should refrain from driving for a period of one month.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has a persistent tremor that only occurs when he extends his arm. His wife is worried that it may be a serious condition. Other than the tremor, there are no other neurological symptoms observed during examination.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Huntington’s chorea

      Correct Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Tremors: Essential Tremor, Chorea, Intention Tremor, Parkinsonism, and Motor Neurone Disease

      Tremors are involuntary movements that can be caused by various conditions. Essential tremor is a common type that is worsened by movement and relieved by rest. Patients may turn to alcohol to alleviate symptoms. It can be difficult to distinguish from other types of tremors, such as exaggerated physiological tremor or medication-induced tremor. Essential tremor typically affects the upper limbs, but can also involve the neck, face, and jaw muscles.

      Chorea, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular, flowing movements that are not repetitive or rhythmic. Intention tremor is a feature of cerebellar ataxia, which is usually accompanied by other cerebellar signs like ataxia and dysarthria. Parkinsonism causes a resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity, which occurs even in a relaxed limb that is fully supported.

      Motor neurone disease usually presents with fasciculations, which are involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that are visible under the skin. It is important to differentiate between these different types of tremors to accurately diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset weakness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset weakness of the muscles on the left side of his face. He is unable to wrinkle his forehead and has difficulty closing his eye. Additionally, he reports loss of taste on the anterior part of his tongue and discomfort with loud noises. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Facial Paralysis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including lower motor neurone lesions, upper motor neurone lesions, herpes zoster, Lyme disease, and sarcoidosis. In cases of lower motor neurone lesions, patients may be unable to wrinkle their forehead due to the destruction of the final common pathway to the muscles. However, in upper motor neurone lesions, the forehead muscles may be partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brainstem.

      Bell’s palsy, also known as idiopathic facial paralysis, is the most common cause of unilateral facial paralysis. While further testing or referral is not usually required, it’s important to assess patients to exclude other possible identifiable causes. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy may include the inability to close the eye, pain, and vesicles in the ear, hard palate, and anterior two thirds of the tongue.

      Steroids, such as prednisolone, are an effective treatment for Bell’s palsy and should be started within 72 hours of onset. This treatment option can also be used in children. Full recovery occurs in approximately 80% of cases. If the failure to close the eye is endangering the cornea, further intervention may be necessary.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for facial paralysis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and psychiatric issues presents to the Emergency Department with confusion after experiencing a seizure earlier in the day. During the examination, a coarse tremor is observed, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure = 134/86 mmHg, pulse = 84/min regular, and temperature = 36.7ºC. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic overdose

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer: Foot drop

      Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her memory in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her memory in the past six months. She reports increased forgetfulness and misplacing items. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications. Her MMSE score is 24/30. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) and its Limitations

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used tool to assess cognitive functioning. It is scored out of 30, with scores of 25-30 considered normal. Mild cognitive impairment is classified as scores of 21-24, while moderate cognitive impairment is described as scores of 10-20. Severe impairment is indicated by a score of less than 10. However, it is important to note that the MMSE only assesses cognitive impairment and not cognitive decline, which requires a history. Additionally, the MMSE is sensitive to education, meaning that individuals with low intelligence or limited education may obtain lower scores without any associated decline in their cognitive abilities.

      While the MMSE has been used in many community studies of older people and has proved to be a valuable screening tool for moderate and severe dementia, it is insufficient to diagnose dementia and cannot differentiate between different types of dementia. It is also not used to test for anxiety or diagnose depression, although depression may be mistaken for cognitive impairment in older adults. Furthermore, while the MMSE can identify people who are likely to have dementia by applying a cut-point to their score, it is not a diagnostic test for any type of dementia and must be considered alongside a person’s clinical picture.

      In summary, the MMSE is a useful tool for assessing cognitive impairment, but it has its limitations and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of blurred vision in her right eye and pain on eye movement for the past 6 days. Upon examination, the doctor finds that her acuity is reduced to 6/36, she has impaired colour vision, a relatively afferent pupillary defect, and a swollen, pale optic disc. The doctor diagnoses her with optic neuritis. The patient mentions that she has heard about a connection between optic neuritis and multiple sclerosis (MS) and asks for more information. What is the best advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Most patients will typically develop additional features of MS within two years of diagnosis of optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Demyelinating Optic Neuritis and its Relationship to Multiple Sclerosis

      Acute demyelinating optic neuritis (ADON) is a condition that can be associated with multiple sclerosis (MS). Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a useful tool for predicting the risk of developing MS, as the presence of white matter abnormalities on MRI of the brain increases the risk of MS. The Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT) revealed that the risk of developing MS at 15-year follow-up was approximately 25% for patients with no white matter lesions on MRI compared to 75% for those with lesions.

      Interferon-beta treatment can increase the time interval to relapse in MS, particularly in patients with ADON and white matter lesions on MRI. However, it is important to remember that many patients with ADON will not develop MS. Information about their prognosis can help patients to decide whether to undergo MRI scanning and whether to use interferon-beta or other immunomodulators in their treatment.

      While the risk of recurrence of ADON is approximately 35% over ten years, the prognosis for vision retainment in patients with ADON is usually good. The ONTT found that one year after onset, 93% of individuals had visual acuity greater than 6/12 in the affected eye. However, many patients may continue to experience subjective reductions in vision and other visual impairments.

      In summary, understanding the relationship between ADON and MS, as well as the potential benefits and risks of treatment options, can help patients make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35-year-old teacher is seeking medication for his recurrent headaches. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher is seeking medication for his recurrent headaches. He has been experiencing severe unilateral headaches for the past two years, with attacks occurring daily for a couple of weeks before subsiding for a month or two and then returning again. During one attack, his wife noticed unequal eyes, but they returned to normal the next day. He also experiences a runny nose during attacks and describes the pain as unbearable.

      Upon examination, his blood pressure is normal, and there is no tenderness in his face or temples. His pupils are equal and responsive to light and accommodation, and his fundi and visual fields are normal. Neurological examination of his upper limbs is also normal. He has previously been given paracetamol and codeine 500/30 mg tablets and tramadol tablets by other colleagues, but they have not helped with the intense pain and have made him feel sick.

      Given the most likely diagnosis, which medication would you prescribe to manage this condition?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin tablets

      Correct Answer: Verapamil tablets

      Explanation:

      Cluster Headaches: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Patients often describe a typical pattern of symptoms, including ipsilateral lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, and a partial Horner’s syndrome. While there may be no clinical signs during a routine visit to the GP, evidence of autonomic symptoms and signs may be present during an acute attack.

      Treatment options for cluster headaches include analgesics and anti-epileptics, but these are often of little or no value. Subcutaneous sumatriptan is the preferred treatment for an acute attack, with the nasal spray being a second, less effective option for patients who cannot tolerate the subcutaneous route. Oral triptans are ineffective.

      Verapamil is the treatment of choice for both episodic and chronic cluster headache, although it is unlicensed. Prednisolone may be an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate verapamil. It is important to note that most patients with cluster headache are referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis and exclusion of other causes. While a normal CT scan is reassuring, it doesn’t completely exclude all anatomical lesions, and a specialist may opt to do further imaging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 25-year-old asthmatic woman has a disabling headache syndrome consisting of recurrent, severe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic woman has a disabling headache syndrome consisting of recurrent, severe, unilateral (either right or left) headaches twice a week lasting for 8 hours each. The pain is constant and associated with nausea. It has not responded to ibuprofen or paracetamol. The headaches frequently disturb sleep. She has identified no dietary triggers and there is no family history of migraine. She is very worried about her increasing weight.
      Select the most sensible treatment course.

      Your Answer: Regular daily non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) (for prophylaxis), increased during the acute attacks

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline (for prophylaxis) and a triptan (for the acute attacks)

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Treatment for Common Migraine: A Clinical Scenario

      The history of a patient is consistent with common migraine, which justifies prophylaxis due to the frequency of attacks. Pizotifen, which has been widely used for many years, is no longer recommended due to little clinical trial evidence of efficacy and weight gain side effects. Ergotamine and Methysergide are also not commonly used for acute treatment due to associated side effects. Regular analgesics can lead to chronic daily headache, especially those containing opiates.

      The British Association for the Study of Headache (BASH) guidelines recommend amitriptyline as a first-line prophylactic drug for migraine coexisting with other chronic pain conditions, disturbed sleep, or depression. Topiramate and sodium valproate are second-line prophylactic drugs with significant side effect profiles. NICE (2012) recommends topiramate and propranolol as first-line drugs, but neither are given as an answer to this clinical scenario. Therefore, the best available option should be sought for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 22-year-old medical student comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral leg weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old medical student comes to the clinic complaining of bilateral leg weakness and paraesthesia. She reports that the symptoms started in her feet and have been gradually moving up over the past few days. She also mentions that she had a bout of diarrhoea while on an elective in Zimbabwe about a week ago. Upon examination, her GCS is 15/15, her lower limb sensation is intact, but her strength is 2/5 throughout with reduced tone and reflexes. Her plantars are downgoing. Based on her symptoms and examination findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by an ascending peripheral neuropathy, while multiple sclerosis presents with mixed motor and sensory deficits and lesions affecting both upper and lower motor neurons. Transverse myelitis also involves both upper and lower motor neurons, with the specific deficits depending on the location of the spinal cord lesion. Brain abscess, on the other hand, typically results in upper motor neuron lesions.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.

      The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.

      In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Otitis media

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.

      Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.

      Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man has scheduled an appointment at your clinic. He suffered a traumatic head injury in a car accident six months ago and has been recovering well. However, two months ago, he experienced a generalised tonic clonic seizure and was advised by a neurologist to seek further review if he had any more episodes.

      Recently, he had another seizure at home and was taken to the emergency department. The on-call neurologist recommended starting levetiracetam and arranged an urgent clinic appointment in the coming weeks. He has been given a short supply of medication and would like to add it to his repeat prescriptions.

      During the emergency department visit, he was told by the doctor that he should not drive, but he was not informed for how long. He holds an ordinary car licence and doesn't drive for work.

      What advice should you provide to him?

      Your Answer: Must tell the DVLA and must not drive until 12 months seizure free

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has a set of complex rules that drivers should be aware of, including those related to epilepsy. If an individual with epilepsy has experienced more than one seizure resulting in loss of consciousness while awake, they are not permitted to drive until they have been seizure-free for a year. It is crucial that this information is documented clearly.

      If an individual has only experienced one generalized seizure, they are prohibited from driving for six months, and their license will only be reinstated at the discretion of the DVLA.

      If a known epileptic has a seizure due to a reduction in their medication dosage, they may resume driving once they have been back on their previous dose for six months, provided they have not experienced any further seizures during that time.

      There are specific regulations for partial seizures, nocturnal seizures, and those with bus, coach, or lorry licenses. For complete guidance, individuals should refer to the government’s website.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical...

    Correct

    • Which of the following investigations is the most crucial for diagnosing degenerative cervical myelopathy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: MRI Cervical spine

      Explanation:

      When cervical myelopathy is suspected, the preferred diagnostic test is an MRI of the cervical spine. This test can reveal disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy, as well as any accompanying cord signal change, making it the gold standard for diagnosis.

      In cases where a patient cannot undergo an MRI, a CT myelogram may be used as the first line investigation. Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing cervical myelopathy, although they may reveal osteoarthritic changes such as osteophytes.

      If the clinical picture is unclear, nerve conduction studies and EMG may be performed to rule out other lower motor neuron disorders. However, when there is a strong suspicion of cervical myelopathy, an MRI of the cervical spine should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has been experiencing headaches. What is the most characteristic feature of migraines?

      Your Answer: Phonophobia

      Explanation:

      Phonophobia is present in approximately 75% of patients.

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 32-year-old woman comes to her general practice clinic to discuss contraception. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to her general practice clinic to discuss contraception. Her father recently had a stroke, and she is worried about the risk of stroke associated with hormonal contraception. She has a history of migraine with aura, but she hasn't had one in almost ten years. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day.

      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m2.

      What is the most appropriate advice you can give to this patient?

      Your Answer: Smoking doesn't significantly increase the risk of stroke

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) use is contraindicated when there is a history of migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The Relationship Between Contraceptive Pills, Migraine, and Stroke Risk

      Migraine with aura is a significant risk factor for stroke, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) can further increase this risk. Smoking also triples the risk of stroke, and the triple combination of migraine, COCP use, and smoking can quadruple the risk. Therefore, COCP use is contraindicated for those with a history of migraine with aura. Additionally, COCPs themselves increase the risk of stroke, so other risk factors such as smoking and arterial risk factors must be taken into account before prescribing them. On the other hand, there is no significant increase in stroke risk for smokers alone. However, for those over 35 who smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day, COCP use is also contraindicated. Women under 45 with migraine, especially with aura, have a statistically significant relationship with ischemic stroke. Finally, it is important to note that progesterone-only contraceptive pills (POPs) do not increase the risk of stroke and may be a better option for those with arterial risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory loss. He had become confused three days earlier while out shopping. His wife led him back to the house where he made himself a cup of tea and then wandered around the house. He appeared confused but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his wife, though continued to ask similar questions repeatedly. After three hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol-related amnesia

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest transient global amnesia, which is most common in individuals over 65 years old. This condition causes temporary memory loss, but the patient retains their social skills and ability to perform learned tasks. Repetitive questioning is a common feature, and recovery typically occurs within 24 hours. However, patients are unable to recall the episode once they have recovered. Alcohol-related amnesia is another possibility, but the patient did not exhibit impaired cerebellar function. Chronic subdural haematoma can cause confusion and memory loss, but the patient lacked other symptoms. Complex partial status epilepticus and dissociative fugue state were also ruled out based on the patient’s presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of rapidly progressive paraesthesia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of rapidly progressive paraesthesia and weakness in both of her arms. She denies any fever or any difficulties with her bladder or bowel function. She has been in good health except for a recent bout of the flu.

      During the examination, you notice symmetrical, global weakness in her upper limbs with hypotonia. You are unable to elicit any reflexes in her upper limbs. There is no sensory level demarcation. Her cranial nerve examination and lower limbs examination are unremarkable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by the presence of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This syndrome typically presents as a symmetrical polyneuropathy that develops rapidly and is often preceded by an infection. It initially causes paraesthesia and lower limb weakness, which can quickly spread to involve the upper limb, cranial nerves, autonomic function, and respiratory function. As it is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system, it presents with lower motor neurone signs such as hyporeflexia.

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, on the other hand, is a disorder of the motor neurones and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance such as paraesthesia. It often has a slower onset.

      Multiple sclerosis affects the central nervous system and therefore presents with upper motor neurone signs such as hyperreflexia.

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular junction disorder that is characterized by fatiguability and doesn’t typically cause sensory disturbance.

      Although the features of transverse myelitis and Guillain-Barre can overlap and coexist, the absence of a sensory level on examination makes transverse myelitis less likely in this case.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right...

    Correct

    • You assess a 75-year-old patient who presents with a tremor in their right hand. What are the common symptoms observed in Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Resting tremor + bradykinesia + rigidity

      Explanation:

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
    Select from the list the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is taking co-careldopa for Parkinson’s disease.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about this drug.

      Your Answer: The addition of carbidopa to levodopa makes toxicity more likely

      Correct Answer: While taking the drug there may be large variations in motor function

      Explanation:

      Levodopa: The Most Effective Drug for Parkinson’s Disease

      Levodopa is the most effective drug for treating Parkinson’s disease (PD). It replenishes depleted striatal dopamine, the lack of which causes PD symptoms. Levodopa is given with a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor to limit side-effects such as nausea, vomiting, and cardiovascular effects. Benserazide and carbidopa are the dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors used with levodopa.

      Levodopa therapy should start at a low dose and increase gradually. The final dose should be the lowest possible that controls symptoms. Intervals between doses should suit the patient’s needs. Nausea and vomiting with co-beneldopa or co-careldopa are rarely dose-limiting and can be controlled with domperidone.

      Levodopa treatment can cause motor complications such as response fluctuations and dyskinesias. Response fluctuations involve large variations in motor performance, with normal function during an ‘on’ period, and restricted mobility during an ‘off’ period. End-of-dose deterioration with progressively shorter duration of benefit also occurs. Freezing of gait and falls may be problematic. Modified-release preparations may help with end-of-dose deterioration or immobility or rigidity at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man developed episodes of dizziness, tinnitus and mild left-sided hearing loss. The symptoms presented over several months and were slowly progressive. Neurological examination and otoscopy were normal. Audiometry revealed a mild degree of sensorineural hearing loss on the left side.
      Select the single most appropriate next course of action.

      Your Answer: MRI scan

      Explanation:

      Acoustic Neuroma: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Acoustic neuroma, also known as vestibular schwannoma, is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. The most common symptoms include unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unsteadiness, tinnitus, headache, mastoid pain or otalgia, facial numbness, diplopia, and vertigo. If a patient presents with these symptoms, an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool, as CT scans do not have sufficient resolution.

      In most cases, the initial symptom of vestibular schwannomas is unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, which may have been present for 1-5 years. The loss is gradually progressive in 80-90% of cases and sudden in 10-20%. This sudden loss may be caused by occlusion of the internal auditory artery.

      Many patients with vestibular schwannomas are now observed for any signs of change over time, rather than operated on immediately. Microsurgery or stereotactic radiosurgery are the main treatment methods. These treatments are effective in reducing the size of the tumor and improving symptoms.

      In conclusion, acoustic neuroma is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms, and an MRI scan is the recommended diagnostic tool. Treatment options include observation, microsurgery, and stereotactic radiosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis and intractable spasticity that has not responded to traditional treatment. During her visit with her GP, she expresses interest in obtaining a medical cannabis prescription after reading about its success in treating similar conditions online.

      What should the GP do in response to Samantha's request?

      Your Answer: Decline, explaining this treatment is not available on the NHS but can be purchased online

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient’s consultant to consider initiating medicinal cannabis

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines dictate that cannabis-based products without a license can only be prescribed by doctors who are registered specialists with the General Medical Council. Furthermore, doctors should only prescribe these products for disorders within their area of expertise when there is clear evidence or published guidelines to support it.

      The first prescription of cannabis-based medicinal products must be initiated by a specialist medical practitioner in a hospital setting.

      There is evidence supporting the efficacy of cannabis-based products, which is why the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) supports their prescription.

      The THC:CBD spray is available on the NHS in certain situations. It is inappropriate to advise patients to purchase it online as the safety and quality of the product cannot be guaranteed.

      While the THC:CBD spray is the appropriate treatment, it should not be initiated in primary care.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with burning pains in both feet that have been ongoing for several months. On examination, she has easily palpable pedal pulses but reduced light touch sensation in both feet up to her ankles. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg. Recent blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 76 mmol/mol (9.1%) with normal full blood count, renal and liver function. She is currently taking metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, and simvastatin 40 mg ON. You discuss the importance of tighter glycemic control and potential medications that may help alleviate her symptoms. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for her burning foot pain?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The key points include offering a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment for all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia). If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, one of the remaining three drugs should be offered, with consideration for switching again if necessary. Tramadol should only be considered for acute rescue therapy, and capsaicin cream may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Nortriptyline is no longer recommended as an alternative to amitriptyline, and lamotrigine and venlafaxine are not recommended in non-specialized settings. It is important to note that there are many plausible options for medication, but the test is to select the one listed in the options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with sudden onset of mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with sudden onset of mild right hemiparesis affecting the body. He also shows signs of sensory loss on the right-hand side. There is evidence of Horner syndrome and sensory loss on the face on the left-hand side.
      What is the most probable structure that is affected?

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Brainstem

      Explanation:

      Lesion Localization: Identifying the Affected Brain Structure

      When trying to identify the affected brain structure in a patient with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the specific signs and symptoms present. In the case of a patient with ipsilateral facial numbness, diplopia, nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, Horner syndrome, and ninth and tenth nerve lesions, along with contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss and mild hemiparesis, a lesion in the brainstem is likely. This is often caused by thromboembolic disease affecting the vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar artery.

      It is important to rule out other potential brain structures that could be causing the symptoms. A frontal lobe lesion would account for the hemiplegia and sensory loss, but not the Horner syndrome or cranial nerve involvement. A temporal lobe lesion would most likely present with speech and language difficulties, which are not present in this patient. An occipital lobe lesion would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is not seen in this case. Parietal lobe lesions cause contralateral weakness and sensory loss of the body, but would not result in the Horner syndrome or fifth nerve palsy symptoms.

      Overall, careful consideration of the specific signs and symptoms can help identify the affected brain structure and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a severe, intermittent, daily, right-sided frontotemporal headache over the past 4 weeks. It seems to occur early in the morning, around the same time each day and lasts for approximately 2 hours. The pain makes him feel nauseous although he has not vomited. He has been significantly stressed with personal issues recently. Interestingly, he also reports his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation. He has no loss of visual acuity.

      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are characterized by intermittent severe frontotemporal headaches lasting up to 2 hours at a time, with ipsilateral autonomic disturbance. These clusters typically last from 4 to 12 weeks and are more common in men than women. Glaucoma may cause a change in visual acuity, but headaches related to brain tumors would not exhibit ipsilateral autonomic disturbance and would not be as severe or intermittent. While migraine is a possibility, it would be unusual to experience such frequent episodes over a 4-week period and without ipsilateral autonomic disturbance.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - What is the most common prodromal symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhage that frequently precedes...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common prodromal symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhage that frequently precedes the rupture of a cerebral aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Visual loss

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the Prodromal Signs and Symptoms of a Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be preceded by prodromal signs and symptoms that are often caused by sentinel leaks, an expanding aneurysm, or emboli from an intra-aneurysmal thrombus. These symptoms can occur 10-20 days before the rupture and are present in 10-50% of cases. The most common symptoms are headache, dizziness, orbital pain, diplopia, and visual loss. Physical signs may include sensory and motor changes, fits, ptosis, bruits, and dysphasia.

      A sentinel leak can cause sudden focal or generalized head pain, which may be severe and accompanied by nausea, vomiting, photophobia, malaise, or neck pain. However, these symptoms may be ignored by doctors, so a high index of suspicion is necessary for diagnosis. Sentinel leaks usually do not produce signs of elevated intracranial pressure or meningeal irritation.

      Therefore, recognizing the prodromal signs and symptoms of a subarachnoid haemorrhage is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of these symptoms, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is requested to come to the clinic for a routine check up following a car accident. He claims he did not see a cyclist emerging from a road to his left while driving his car. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to bumping into door frames in his house more frequently than usual, but attributes it to his general clumsiness. His medical history includes hypertension, which is managed with ramipril, and erectile dysfunction, for which he has recently been prescribed sildenafil. During the examination, he displays bilateral peripheral field visual loss. What would be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Correct Answer: Urgent pituitary MRI

      Explanation:

      Pituitary Tumour and Peripheral Vision Loss

      The combination of peripheral visual field loss and erectile dysfunction is a cause for concern as it may indicate the presence of a pituitary tumour. While pituitary function tests are important, the urgent need to protect the patient’s sight requires an immediate pituitary MRI scan to check for possible compression of the optic chiasma. The availability of this scan may vary depending on local arrangements, but it is crucial to understand the necessary steps to take in order to act accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a progressive 'numbness' in her lower legs over...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a progressive 'numbness' in her lower legs over the past 4 months, described as feeling like walking on cotton wool. She has a medical history of hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, depression, and recurrent urinary tract infections, and is currently taking citalopram, ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, methotrexate, and nitrofurantoin. Upon examination, she exhibits bilateral loss of sensation to fine touch up to her knees. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy may be caused by nitrofurantoin.

      Medications that can lead to peripheral neuropathy

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord, causing weakness, numbness, and pain in the hands and feet. While there are many causes of peripheral neuropathy, certain medications have been known to contribute to its development. These drugs include amiodarone, isoniazid, vincristine, nitrofurantoin, and metronidazole.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause nerve damage in some patients. Isoniazid is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, but it can lead to peripheral neuropathy in some individuals. Vincristine is a chemotherapy drug used to treat various types of cancer, but it can also cause nerve damage. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, but it can lead to peripheral neuropathy in some patients. Metronidazole is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial and parasitic infections, but it can also cause nerve damage.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will develop peripheral neuropathy, and the risk may be higher in individuals who take these drugs for an extended period of time or at higher doses

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She experiences 2 or more attacks every month. After maintaining a headache diary, no triggering factors were identified. She has previously tried topiramate and amitriptyline, but her symptoms did not improve. She has a history of severe asthma.

      Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient to take daily aspirin to prevent attacks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response

      Correct Answer: Offer 10-sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response

      Explanation:

      For patients who experience frequent and severe migraines, preventive treatment should be considered if acute treatments are ineffective or not suitable, or if there is a risk of medication-overuse headaches. Propranolol is the first-line prophylactic treatment, but if it is not suitable, alternative treatments such as topiramate or amitriptyline may be considered. Gabapentin should not be used for migraine prophylaxis. Non-pharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, relaxation techniques, or cognitive behavioural therapy can also be used as an alternative or adjunct to pharmacological therapy. Daily riboflavin may also be helpful in reducing migraine frequency and intensity. It is important to advise patients to limit their use of acute medication to a maximum of 2 days per week to avoid medication-overuse headaches. Referral for same-day neurology assessment is not necessary unless there are red-flag features. If the patient doesn’t respond to acupuncture, a neurology referral may be indicated.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his general practice surgery as he has started experiencing diarrhoea, especially at night. He has also noticed that he feels dizzy when he stands up; he collapsed while standing at a bus stop a few days ago. On further questioning, he admits to having erectile problems for several years. He has chronic polyneuropathy.
      On examination, his blood pressure is 160/88 mmHg when lying down and 136/60 mmHg when standing. He demonstrates signs of reduced knee jerks, absent ankle jerks and reduced pinprick and vibration sense to the knees. These are unchanged from his last examination six months ago.
      What is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing symptoms of autonomic neuropathy, such as bowel issues, postural hypotension, and erectile dysfunction. The most common cause of this condition is diabetes mellitus, which can also lead to other types of neuropathy. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy, but it is less likely in this case. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is an inherited peripheral neuropathy that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. Paraneoplastic neuropathy is a rare syndrome that accompanies malignant disease and would be an unusual pattern of peripheral neuropathy. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause peripheral neuropathy and should be checked in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of tingling in her right hand that sometimes disturbs her sleep at night. She usually shakes her hand to alleviate the symptoms, which disappear entirely. She has a history of uncontrolled type 2 diabetes and breast cancer.

      During the examination, there is no evidence of deformity or wasting, and she has good strength throughout her hand. The symptoms are reproduced by performing forced wrist flexion.

      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Wrist splinting

      Explanation:

      For patients with mild-moderate symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome, conservative treatment with a wrist splint, with or without a steroid injection, should be attempted first. In this case, the woman’s symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome and therefore, first-line management should involve conservative treatment before symptoms worsen. While amitriptyline may be useful for neuropathic pain, it is not the appropriate treatment in this case. Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs may be suitable for osteoarthritis involving the hands, but this presentation doesn’t suggest osteoarthritis. Surgical decompression may be necessary if symptoms worsen, but it is not the first-line treatment for mild-moderate symptoms. While a steroid injection may be appropriate when used in conjunction with wrist splinting, it is not typically the first-line treatment.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 33-year-old presents for review after experiencing a 'collapse' while at a concert....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old presents for review after experiencing a 'collapse' while at a concert. She reports feeling overheated and nauseous when she stood up to dance. Shortly after, she felt herself losing consciousness and fell to the ground. Her partner observed some twitching in her arms, but there was no evidence of tongue biting or urinary incontinence. She quickly regained consciousness and continued to enjoy the concert. On examination today, there are no neurological abnormalities. What advice should be given regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Cannot drive until investigations including ECG and neuroimaging have been performed

      Correct Answer: No need to inform DVLA

      Explanation:

      There is no need to inform DVLA in the case of a simple faint, as there are no indications of epilepsy or any other organic cause. This is a common occurrence and doesn’t require any further action.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to you with concerns that he may be losing his mind. He reports experiencing peculiar odors (such as burnt rubber) and frequently feeling jamais vu. No one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. He remains fully conscious and has excellent recall of the events. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Simple partial seizure

      Correct Answer: Schizophreniform attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding Simple Partial Seizures

      A simple partial seizure is a type of seizure where consciousness is usually not lost during the attack. However, other symptoms such as muscle twitching, numbness, or tingling sensations may occur. This type of seizure is considered simple because it only affects a small part of the brain.

      It is important to note that if consciousness is impaired during the seizure, it is then classified as a complex partial seizure. It is crucial to understand the difference between the two types of seizures as they may require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to you with a history of intermittent 'stabbing' headaches.

      He reports experiencing excruciating unilateral headache around his right eye and over the right temporal area. The headaches last anywhere from a couple of minutes to half an hour. He also experiences lacrimation, nasal epiphora, and a slightly red eye on the affected side during a headache episode.

      He reports having about 20 attacks of the headache a day, which tend to occur during the daytime rather than the night. During attacks, he tends to go and 'curl up in bed' to try and let things settle.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this headache?

      Your Answer: Intranasal lidocaine

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline orally

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Episodic Paroxysmal Hemicrania from Cluster Headache

      Episodic paroxysmal hemicrania (EPH) and cluster headache (CH) share similar characteristics, making it difficult to differentiate between the two. However, there are key elements in their history that can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis. EPH is characterized by frequent attacks of unilateral pain focused around the eye or temporal region, lasting from 2-30 minutes and occurring during the day. In contrast, CH attacks typically last between 15 and 180 minutes, start one to two hours after falling asleep, and occur in clusters ranging from one every other day to eight a day.

      Furthermore, EPH is associated with autonomic symptoms and responds well to treatment with indomethacin (25-75 mg TDS), while CH doesn’t. Indomethacin is a useful differentiator, as it is not commonly prescribed in practice but can have a significant impact on the patient’s symptoms if the diagnosis is correct. By understanding the duration, frequency, and timing of the headaches, clinicians can accurately differentiate between EPH and CH and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a headache. He has never experienced significant headaches before but developed this one about a week ago.

      He describes a vague headache on the left side of his head, starting above his left eye and extending to the parietal area. The headache has been fairly constant, and he has taken paracetamol and ibuprofen, which have only provided slight relief and have not significantly reduced the pain.

      There is no history of vomiting, drowsiness, loss of consciousness, seizures, postural related headache, or tinnitus. There are no mental or cognitive changes.

      On clinical examination, all cranial nerves are normal, and there is no focal limb neurological deficit or cerebellar signs. ENT examination is normal, and there is no scalp or temporal tenderness. There is no neck stiffness or restriction of neck movements. Observations, including blood pressure and temperature, are normal, and there is no anxiety, depression, or psychological upset.

      Despite the lack of a clear cause for this new headache, which of the following statements is true regarding papilloedema?

      Your Answer: If papilloedema is found then this should be confirmed by community optician assessment

      Correct Answer: The absence of papilloedema rules out the presence of a brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Importance of Fundal Examination in Headache Assessment

      Fundal examination is a crucial part of headache assessment, particularly in cases of new and unexplained headaches. It helps to check for papilloedema, which may indicate raised intracranial pressure and requires urgent action, even in the absence of other symptoms or normal examination results. However, the absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of a brain tumor, and papilloedema is not always a sign of a brain tumor.

      According to the latest NICE guidelines, the predictive value of symptoms is more important than clinical signs in referring patients for suspected cancer. However, they recommend an urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function. This is to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer and to speed up the diagnostic process for patients with a tumor.

      Some GPs may have direct access to MRI, while others may need to coordinate with secondary care colleagues through locally arranged pathways. Regardless of the means of acquiring an MRI, the finding of papilloedema warrants urgent MRI, regardless of other factors in the history or examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pain over his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pain over his left shoulder blade and axillary region, which radiates down his arm into the fingers, especially the index and middle finger. He has a history of chronic neck pain. He has some tenderness in the triceps region and a reduced range of neck movements, which is painful.
      There is a mild weakness of the forearm extensors and wrist extension. There is a slight loss of pinprick sensation over the index and middle finger. The biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are equal and symmetrical, and the triceps reflex is diminished on the left compared with the right.
      What is the most likely level of disc prolapse?

      Your Answer: C4/C5

      Correct Answer: C6/C7

      Explanation:

      Nerve Root Compression: Symptoms and Signs at Different Levels of the Spine

      C6/C7 Disc Prolapse:
      Compression of the C7 nerve root due to disc prolapse at the C6/C7 level causes weakness in radial-nerve-supplied muscles such as triceps and extensor carpus radialis. The triceps reflex is diminished while the biceps and brachioradialis reflexes are preserved.

      C8/T1 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the T1 nerve root results in weakness of finger abduction and adduction. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the upper and lower arm.

      C4/C5 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C5 nerve root causes weakness in shoulder abduction and flexion, and elbow flexion. The biceps reflex is impaired and sensory changes are found in the lateral arm.

      C5/C6 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C6 nerve root results in weakness of elbow flexion and wrist extension. The biceps and supinator reflexes are impaired, and sensory changes are found in the lateral forearm, thumb, and index finger.

      C7/C8 Nerve Root Compression:
      Compression of the C8 nerve root causes weakness in finger flexion. There are no changes to reflexes, but sensory changes are found on the medial side of the lower forearm and the ring and little fingers.

      Understanding Nerve Root Compression at Different Levels of the Spine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s with Parkinson's disease presents with cognitive symptoms and is diagnosed with mild Parkinson's-related dementia. Is there a licensed medication available to treat their cognitive impairment?

      Your Answer: Memantine

      Correct Answer: Rivastigmine

      Explanation:

      Rivastigmine is the only acetylcholinesterase inhibitor approved for treating mild to moderate Parkinson’s related dementia, while none of the three (donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine) are licensed for use in vascular dementia. However, all three are commonly used to alleviate cognitive symptoms in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s dementia.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man is experiencing sudden attacks of intense sharp pain affecting the right cheek. The pain may last up to a minute before subsiding. He thinks that sometimes shaving or washing his face has precipitated attacks. He had similar trouble 6 months ago but it subsided after a week. It has been going on for over 2 weeks now and he has had up to four attacks per day. There are no other associated symptoms and he has no sensory or motor deficit of his face.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Co-codamol 30/500

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: A Debilitating Condition Resulting in Intense Pain

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a chronic condition that causes extreme episodes of pain in the cheek and lower jaw. These episodes are sudden and sporadic, often described as electric shocks that can last from a few seconds to several minutes. While the episodes themselves are intermittent, they can recur for days, weeks, or even months before disappearing for extended periods. Some patients may experience bilateral pains. Triggers for these episodes include brushing teeth, eating and drinking, exposure to wind, skin contact (such as shaving or washing), and vibration.

      Diagnosis is typically clinical, and no investigations are necessary unless there is uncertainty. Carbamazepine is the most effective treatment and should be tried initially, with the dose titrated up to achieve pain control, usually to about 200 mg three or four times a day (maximum 1600mg per day). Once in remission, the dose should be gradually reduced and discontinued until further attacks occur.

      If carbamazepine is ineffective, the patient should be referred to a specialist. Normal analgesics are ineffective, and while gabapentin, clonazepam, baclofen, lamotrigine, and amitriptyline have been used, adequate evidence supporting their use is lacking. Abnormal clinical features, such as burning pain between paroxysms, loss of sensation, or any abnormal neurological signs, should also prompt referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Zolmitriptan

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man who was diagnosed with epilepsy around 25 years ago is seeking information about driving regulations for individuals with epilepsy. He is currently on sodium valproate monotherapy and had his last seizure 2 years ago. What is the minimum duration of seizure freedom required before he can drive a car?

      Your Answer: 5 years

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      It is common for people to have questions about the DVLA rules regarding epilepsy, given the high number of individuals affected by this condition and the potential risks associated with having a seizure while driving. In this case, the patient has a history of epilepsy and has not experienced a seizure in the past four years. According to the DVLA guidelines, individuals with epilepsy may be eligible for a driving license if they have been seizure-free for at least one year, including minor seizures and other signs of epilepsy such as limb jerking, auras, and absences. This also includes episodes that do not involve a loss of consciousness.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been experiencing frequent headaches for 6 weeks.
      Select from the list the single red-flag feature that should prompt further referral.

      Your Answer: Patient admits to having a low mood

      Correct Answer: Worsening memory

      Explanation:

      Red Flags for Headaches: When to Consider Further Investigation or Referral

      According to NICE (Headaches, CG 150, September 2012), certain features in patients presenting with headaches should prompt further investigation or referral. These include worsening headache with fever, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes, new-onset neurological deficit or cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, headache triggered by certain activities, symptoms suggestive of certain conditions, compromised immunity, history of malignancy, and vomiting without an obvious cause. Memory loss falls under the category of new-onset cognitive dysfunction, while depression can be managed in general practice. Failure to find relief from simple analgesics may indicate medication-overuse headaches, and neck pain radiating to the neck may be indicative of tension headaches that interfere with sleep. It is important to recognize these red flags and consider further investigation or referral when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 60-year-old man presents with a 2-month to 3-month history of slurred speech...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a 2-month to 3-month history of slurred speech as well as difficulty in chewing and swallowing, to the point where he is no longer eating solid food. On examination he has weakness of jaw closure and difficulty in protruding his tongue. There is some wasting and fasciculation involving both sides of the tongue. He has lost a few kilos in weight over this time. Apart from a generally thin appearance, the rest of the neurological and general examination appears to be normal. In particular, the tendon reflexes are all within physiological limits.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Types, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease (MND) is a progressive neurological disorder that typically affects individuals in their sixth and seventh decades of life, although there is also a familial form that can present at a younger age. The most common form of MND is amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which has three recognized patterns of presentation: limb onset, bulbar onset, and respiratory onset.

      The disease is characterized by degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. While other neurological functions such as oculomotor and sphincter are relatively spared, they may sometimes be involved. In some cases, patients may also develop frontotemporal dementia.

      Less common variants of MND can present with pure upper neuron features (primary lateral sclerosis) or pure lower motor neuron features (progressive muscular atrophy). The first sign of bulbar palsy, which is a common presentation of MND, is usually slurring of speech due to impaired tongue movement, with dysphagia occurring later.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to note that other conditions can produce dysarthria, but the wasting of the tongue excludes a neuromuscular transmission disorder such as myasthenia. Syringobulbia, which is characterized by a syrinx extending into the medulla, can produce several cranial nerve palsies from the seventh nerve upwards, including weakness and atrophy of the tongue due to twelfth nerve palsy. Stroke onset is acute, whereas MND is a progressive disease. Multiple sclerosis can also produce neurological deficits, but they tend to occur episodically over time.

      In conclusion, understanding the types, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of MND is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - You are in a consultation with a 60-year-old man who has just received...

    Incorrect

    • You are in a consultation with a 60-year-old man who has just received a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Despite experiencing mild symptoms, his neurologist has presented him with various treatment options. Which therapy is known to provide the most significant enhancement in symptom management and daily activities?

      Your Answer: Amantadine

      Correct Answer: Levodopa

      Explanation:

      Levodopa is the antiparkinson drug that is linked to the most significant enhancement in symptoms and daily functioning.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 28-year-old female patient presents with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents with complaints of frequent migraine attacks. Despite taking a combination of paracetamol and ibuprofen, she has not experienced significant relief. The patient is currently taking Cerazette along with the aforementioned medications. What would be the most suitable medication to reduce the frequency of her migraine attacks?

      Your Answer: Zolmitriptan

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For women of childbearing age who suffer from migraines, propranolol is a better option than topiramate. This is in line with NICE’s recommendation for migraine prevention. Due to her migraine history, the patient cannot take the combined oral contraceptive pill. Zolmitriptan is effective in stopping attacks but is not suitable for preventing them.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 15-year-old-girl attends with her parents, reporting occasional arm twitches and electric shocks...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old-girl attends with her parents, reporting occasional arm twitches and electric shocks in her arms that come without warning. These symptoms are more common in the morning and have been present for the last month. The girl is otherwise well with no other symptoms, but admits to feeling stressed due to upcoming mock exams at school. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Request an MRI of the brain

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to paediatric neurology

      Explanation:

      When it comes to juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, patients may experience absences and/or myoclonus before eventually progressing to generalised seizures. This type of epilepsy is quite common and typically develops during adolescence. Initially, patients may present with either absences or intermittent myoclonus of the upper limbs. Within a few months of the onset of the myoclonus, they will usually develop generalised tonic clonic seizures. It is important to refer patients promptly to paediatric neurology to confirm the diagnosis and begin treatment. While exam stress guides or CAMHS referral may be necessary in the future, it is important to first investigate the neurological symptoms. Additionally, it is not recommended to start selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like fluoxetine in children in primary care. Finally, arranging an MRI of the brain will likely require secondary care.

      Epilepsy Syndromes in Children

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects people of all ages, including children. There are different types of epilepsy syndromes that affect children, each with its own set of symptoms and treatments. Infantile spasms, also known as West’s syndrome, is a type of epilepsy that begins in the first few months of life. It is characterized by brief spasms that involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and limbs, followed by the extension of the arms. This syndrome is usually secondary to serious neurological abnormalities or may be idiopathic. Typical absence seizures, on the other hand, usually occur in children aged 4-8 years and are characterized by a sudden loss of awareness that lasts for a few seconds. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is a more severe form of epilepsy that may be an extension of infantile spasms. It is characterized by atypical absences, falls, and jerks, and is often associated with moderate to severe mental handicap. Benign rolandic epilepsy is the most common type of epilepsy in childhood and is more common in males. It is characterized by paraesthesia, usually on waking up. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, also known as Janz syndrome, typically begins in the teenage years and is more common in girls. It is characterized by infrequent generalized seizures, daytime absences, and sudden, shock-like myoclonic seizures. Treatment for these epilepsy syndromes varies depending on the type and severity of the symptoms, but may include medications such as sodium valproate, ethosuximide, steroids, or a ketogenic diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative...

    Correct

    • A 25-year old female patient has come to you seeking advice on alternative contraception. She recently received a diagnosis of epilepsy and has been prescribed a new medication by a neurologist. The neurologist informed her that her current method of contraception, the combined oral contraceptive pill, will be less effective with the new medication. Can you identify which medication she may have started taking?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces P450 enzymes.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 5 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

      Correct Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 2 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

      Explanation:

      The 2004 NICE guidelines recommend that the process be carried out with the assistance of a specialist and that benzodiazepine withdrawal should be conducted over an extended period.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.

      Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?

      Your Answer: Stress

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of foot drop and tingling to his hands. Today he has noticed difficulty rising from a chair and climbing stairs. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent respiratory tract infection.

      Upon examination, the patient has normal limb tone, reduced strength in his legs bilaterally (distal muscles worse than proximal), and a loss of his patella and ankle reflexes. Additionally, he has reduced sensation in a glove and stocking distribution.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Lyme disease

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by a progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This condition is characterized by symmetrical demyelination caused by an autoimmune response, often triggered by a respiratory or GI infection.

      Lyme disease, on the other hand, is caused by a tick bite and typically presents with vague neurological symptoms such as headaches and joint pain.

      While multiple sclerosis can cause weakness and sensory loss, these symptoms are usually asymmetrical and accompanied by hyperreflexia.

      Myasthenia gravis may also cause limb-girdle weakness, but it is more commonly associated with periocular symptoms such as eyelid drooping. Additionally, myasthenia gravis causes muscle fatigue rather than a progressive polyneuropathy.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - Samantha Johnson is a 78-year-old retired nurse who has been experiencing increasing forgetfulness...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha Johnson is a 78-year-old retired nurse who has been experiencing increasing forgetfulness and confusion in recent months. She lives with her husband and has a strong support system of local family members to help them manage her declining memory, motor skills, and perception. During a home visit, you suggest to the family that you would like to refer Samantha for further assessment as you suspect she may be suffering from Alzheimer's disease. They have heard about drugs that may be helpful from reading the news. According to the latest NICE guidance, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Stable patients should be reviewed on an annual basis

      Correct Answer: Assessments must be done before initiating treatment

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s Disease: Understanding the Condition and Treatment Options

      Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is a prevalent form of dementia that affects around 500,000 people in the UK. Unfortunately, there is currently no known cure for the disorder, and it is typically terminal within three to seven years. The World Health Organisation international classification of disease criteria requires a duration of more than six months for a diagnosis of AD.

      Cholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine have a good evidence base in patients with mild to moderate AD. However, the proposal to limit cholinesterase inhibitors only to patients with moderate AD is inconsistent with the evidence base. Patients should be reviewed every six months under current guidance, and if GPs are involved in prescribing, a shared care protocol should be in place.

      It’s important to note that diagnosis of AD is made in a specialist clinic and cannot be made by a GP. Understanding the condition and treatment options can help patients and their families make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is experiencing a range of symptoms such as headaches and tingling sensations on her skin. She is worried that she might be suffering from multiple sclerosis. What is the typical way that multiple sclerosis presents itself?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing evening headaches for the past four weeks that start from his neck and extend to the occipital area. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Headaches and Their Clinical Features

      Tension Headache:
      A tension headache can be diagnosed when the headache is featureless, without any accompanying symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement. This differentiates it from migraine, which typically presents with one or more of these features and is the main differential diagnosis. Tension headaches can be either chronic or episodic.

      Cluster Headache:
      Cluster headache is a severe unilateral pain that is localized in or around the eye and is accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features such as lacrimation and rhinorrhea. These attacks occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks, once or twice a year, often at the same time each year. A chronic form of cluster headache also exists.

      Fibromyalgia:
      Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain, unrefreshing sleep, and fatigue. Pain occurs at multiple sites, including headaches, which may be migrainous.

      Migraine:
      Migraine is the main differential diagnosis for tension headache. However, it typically presents with one or more of the following symptoms: nausea/vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement, which are not reported by patients with tension headaches.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that usually affects elderly patients and is characterized by ventricular dilatation in the absence of raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure. It is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality (similar to Parkinson’s), urinary or bowel incontinence, and dementia. The dementia is potentially reversible. About half of the cases are idiopathic, while the remainder may be secondary to meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, tumor, or head injury. Headache is rarely present in normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - A 27-year-old woman on antiepileptic medication presents with nausea, diarrhoea, drowsiness, weight gain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman on antiepileptic medication presents with nausea, diarrhoea, drowsiness, weight gain and thinning of hair.
      Select the medication that is most likely to cause these symptoms.

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs

      Antiepileptic drugs are commonly used to treat epilepsy, but they can also cause a range of side effects. The British National Formulary lists the most common side effects of these drugs, which include ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, pancreatitis, and weight gain.

      Sodium valproate, for example, is associated with ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, and pancreatitis. Long-term use of this drug may also lead to weight gain. Phenytoin can cause gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, folate deficiency, osteomalacia, and neuropathy. Phenobarbital and carbamazepine can also cause folate deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, osteomalacia, and neuropathy.

      Vigabatrin usage may cause aggression, alopecia, retinal atrophy, and reduced peripheral vision. Carbamazepine can also cause ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, thrombocytopenia, and other blood dyscrasias. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking antiepileptic drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling...

    Correct

    • A 55 year old man comes to the clinic with complaints of tingling sensations in his left thumb and first finger. He reports difficulty in gripping objects and unintentionally dropping them. Upon examination, there is noticeable muscle wasting in the thenar eminence. What clinical sign would indicate a diagnosis other than carpal tunnel syndrome?

      Your Answer: Positive Hoffmans sign

      Explanation:

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is often misdiagnosed as carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) in patients who undergo surgery for the former. This highlights the importance of considering DCM as a differential diagnosis in patients suspected to have CTS.

      CTS is a peripheral nervous system disorder that results from compression of the median nerve at the wrist within the carpal tunnel. It affects only the aspects of the hand innervated by the median nerve, including sensation and motor function. Symptoms typically include intermittent pain or parasthesiae, and motor signs are less commonly seen.

      Tests such as Tinels and Phalens can be positive in CTS, but they are not always reliable. In contrast, examination features in focal central nervous system disorders like DCM have low sensitivity but high specificity. DCM affects the sensory, motor, and autonomic nervous systems from the neck downwards, and motor signs are typically upper motor neuron signs such as increased tone, hyper-reflexia, and pyramidal weakness.

      Detecting early DCM can be challenging, as the neurological signs are often subtle initially but likely to worsen over time. Therefore, a high index of suspicion, comprehensive neurological examination, and monitoring for progression are required.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A 32-year-old woman comes to Neurology Outpatients with complaints of experiencing multiple episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to Neurology Outpatients with complaints of experiencing multiple episodes in the past few months where she smells a burning odor followed by twitching in her left arm. These symptoms usually last for a maximum of a few minutes. She remains fully conscious during the episodes and has not experienced any loss of consciousness.
      Which type of seizure do the symptoms of this patient suggest?

      Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      Types of Seizures and Their Characteristics

      Seizures can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. Focal onset seizures start in one part of the brain and can spread to both hemispheres, leading to a generalised tonic-clonic seizure. Focal onset seizures can be either aware or impaired awareness, depending on whether the patient has full consciousness and awareness throughout the seizure. Focal seizures may involve motor symptoms or unusual sensations, and there is often an aura such as an abnormal smell or taste.

      Generalised clonic seizures involve sustained rhythmical jerking of the whole body with loss of consciousness. This type of seizure is less common than tonic-clonic seizures, which involve muscle stiffening along with the clonus.

      Absence seizures are a form of generalised seizure that typically involve a transient loss of consciousness, eyelid fluttering, and a blank stare. This type of seizure is more common in children than adults.

      Focal impaired awareness seizures involve an aura and only one part of the body is affected, but the patient is fully aware and alert during the seizure.

      Generalised atonic seizures are often described as drop attacks, as muscle tone is suddenly and transiently lost, resulting in the person falling over and becoming floppy. Focal atonic seizures present when one part of the body becomes limp during a seizure, such as a drooping eyelid. There is usually no aura prior to this type of seizure, and a quick recovery follows.

      Understanding the Different Types of Seizures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female who is obese visits her GP complaining of headaches and blurred vision. Upon examination, the GP notes bilateral blurring of the optic discs but no other neurological signs. The patient's blood pressure is 130/74 and she has no fever. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal meningitis

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      When presented with a young female who is obese and experiencing headaches and blurred vision, it is important to consider idiopathic intracranial hypertension as a potential diagnosis, especially if there is evidence of papilloedema but no other neurological abnormalities.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 68-year-old man with diabetic neuropathy is being evaluated. He has been dealing...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with diabetic neuropathy is being evaluated. He has been dealing with type 2 diabetes for approximately 25 years and has been experiencing painful diabetic neuropathy in his feet and lower legs for the past year. Initially, he was prescribed duloxetine, but it did not provide relief even at the highest dose of 120 mg/day. He was then switched to amitriptyline three months ago, and the dosage has been increased to 75 mg ON. He has not experienced any significant side effects with amitriptyline, but it has not improved his symptoms significantly. He has come to discuss his options with you today and has been taking amitriptyline 75 mg ON for the last six weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his neuropathic symptoms pharmacologically?

      Your Answer: Add in tramadol 50-100 mg QDS

      Correct Answer: Add in a topical lidocaine patch

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Neuropathic Pain in Non-Specialist Settings

      Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially in non-specialist settings. To help healthcare professionals provide effective treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain.

      The key points of the guidelines are as follows:

      – For all neuropathic pain (except trigeminal neuralgia), offer a choice of amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin as initial treatment.
      – If the initial treatment is not effective or not tolerated, offer one of the remaining three drugs and consider switching again if necessary.
      – Consider tramadol only if acute rescue therapy is needed.
      – Consider capsaicin cream for people with localised neuropathic pain who wish to avoid or cannot tolerate oral treatments.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment for neuropathic pain and improve the quality of life for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A 40-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain and visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pain and visual loss in one eye that has been progressively worsening over the past three days. She reports feeling fine otherwise and has no other symptoms. The patient was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) ten years ago and has experienced four acute relapses since.
      What is the best course of treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Interferon beta

      Correct Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Relapse in Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) patients experiencing sudden increases in symptoms or significant new symptoms should seek medical attention. A course of oral or intravenous methylprednisolone treatment is required to manage acute relapse. However, before steroids are considered, a urinary tract or other infection should be excluded as the cause for the exacerbation.

      Research suggests that a reduced level of vitamin D in the blood is a risk factor for developing MS. Although studies are underway to determine if vitamin D levels influence disease activity, there is not enough evidence to suggest that treatment with vitamin D in the acute phase is warranted.

      Interferon beta and terifluonamide are disease-modifying drugs used to treat relapsing-remitting MS. They are used to reduce the incidence of relapse but have no role in managing acute relapse.

      Natalizumab is a recombinant humanised monoclonal antibody used as a second-line drug to reduce relapse. However, it doesn’t have a role in the management of acute relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and numbness in her left arm and leg while exercising. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. No other risk factors for stroke are identified.
      On examination, she exhibits mild pyramidal weakness on the left side of her face, arm and leg. Left-sided hemisensory loss is also present, as well as left homonymous hemianopia and left-sided inattention.
      She is admitted to hospital for further testing. A brain computed tomography (CT) scan and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) show a recent, single infarction in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery.
      What is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cardioembolic from atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the right carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with total anterior cerebral syndrome

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with total anterior cerebral syndrome, which includes left-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia, may have various underlying causes. One possibility is a spontaneous or minimally provoked cervical vascular dissection, which can affect the internal carotid and its middle cerebral branch. Although two-thirds of patients with this condition experience head or neck pain at onset, some do not, as in this case. Horner syndrome may also occur. Anticoagulation may be necessary, and specialist investigation and management are required.

      Another potential cause is an inherited thromboembolic disorder, which is more likely to manifest as venous thrombosis, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, rather than arterial ischaemic stroke. Women of childbearing age with this condition may also have recurrent miscarriages.

      Cardioembolism from an atrial septal defect is possible, especially if the ischaemic event occurs during exercise and is precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvre. However, if exercise provokes the event, arterial dissection is more likely.

      Dissection of the vertebral artery is less common than that of the right carotid artery but can also cause a posterior circulation infarct.

      Finally, a thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis, which is more prevalent in older patients with other cardiovascular risk factors, can also lead to ischaemic stroke in a similar distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue that has been persisting for 10 months. She is unable to perform even minimal activities due to extreme fatigue and has been absent from work. She reports experiencing difficulty swallowing, frequent headaches, and sore throats with myalgia. She has been researching chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and believes her symptoms are consistent with this condition.
      What is the most pressing investigation to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome: When to Consider Urgent Investigation

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, requiring the presence of unexplained chronic fatigue for more than six months, along with other symptoms such as impaired memory or concentration, sore throats, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, and post-exertion malaise. However, certain symptoms may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

      Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is a red flag symptom that may indicate an underlying oesophageal cancer and should be investigated urgently with an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) under the 2-week wait rule. Thyroid function tests should also be carried out to rule out hypothyroidism, which can present similarly to CFS, but the presence of dysphagia is atypical and prompts urgent investigation for underlying malignancy.

      Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a commonly reported symptom of CFS, but it can also be a feature of rhabdomyolysis, which would cause high creatine kinase levels. However, this is a rarer diagnosis and would usually be associated with a history of trauma or long lie causing muscle damage.

      Headache and chronic pain are recognised associations of CFS, although they are not exclusive. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is not usually indicated unless there are neurological signs or signs that may indicate raised intracranial pressure.

      Flu-like symptoms, including sore throat, tender glands, nausea, chills, or muscle aches, are often reported as a feature of CFS. However, Group A streptococcus can cause an acute sore throat rather than the recurrent symptoms described in this patient, so swabbing should be considered if there is diagnostic uncertainty or if there is a history of immunocompromise putting the patient at increased risk of complications.

      In summary, while CFS is a diagnosis of exclusion, certain symptoms such as dysphagia may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 78-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia. During the consultation she admits to having...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia. During the consultation she admits to having intermittent pins and needles in her hands and feet. She is prescribed an antacid. Some months later her dyspepsia is improved but her mood has become very low. She is reluctant to leave the house because of perceived unsteadiness. On examination she has weakness in her legs involving the hip flexors, knee flexors and dorsiflexors of the ankles, reduced sensation distally, impaired proprioception to her knee joints, absent ankle jerks and equivocal plantars.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tabes dorsalis

      Correct Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the cord

      Explanation:

      Neurological Consequences of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      This patient presents with progressive limb weakness, primarily affecting the legs. The signs suggest dysfunction in both upper and lower motor neurons, as well as central and peripheral sensory disturbance. However, the absence of peripheral nerve signs and sphincter disturbance rules out spinal cord compression or conus/cauda equina lesion. The onset of symptoms is also too rapid for tabes dorsalis.

      The most likely diagnosis is vitamin B12 deficiency, which can cause neurological consequences that resemble the patient’s symptoms. As this is a treatable condition, it should be considered as a top differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of progressive numbness in his feet and weakness in his lower limbs. These symptoms have developed over the past week. He has a broad-based ataxic gait. He has a history of using 'laughing gas' recreationally. His aunt has multiple sclerosis (MS) and he is concerned that he may be experiencing the first signs of the condition. What neurological finding would be most indicative of an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic atrophy

      Correct Answer: Absent ankle jerk

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Multiple Sclerosis: Neurological Manifestations

      Neurological manifestations can help distinguish between vitamin B12 deficiency and multiple sclerosis (MS). Vitamin B12 deficiency causes degeneration of the white matter in the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord, peripheral nerves, optic nerves, and cerebral hemispheres. Chronic inhalation of nitrous oxide is an increasingly common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency. On the other hand, MS is a demyelinating disease that primarily affects the white matter of the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves.

      Sensory peripheral neuropathy, absent distal tendon reflexes, and distal sensory loss are neurological manifestations of vitamin B12 deficiency. In contrast, sensory loss consistent with peripheral neuropathy and absent ankle jerks are not features of MS. Ataxia, which is the lack of muscle coordination, is a feature of both subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and MS.

      Barber’s chair sign, an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs, can be elicited by bending the head forward or lapping on the posterior cervical spine while the neck is flexed. It is caused by the involvement of the posterior columns and is most commonly associated with MS. However, it may also occur in other lesions of the cervical cord, such as cord compression, syringomyelia, and vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Bilateral up-going plantar responses signify advanced subacute combined degeneration of the cord and pyramidal signs associated with MS. Optic atrophy, the degeneration of the optic nerve, is a common feature of MS and subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - A 20-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of loss of consciousness.

    Over the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old girl presents with recurrent episodes of loss of consciousness.

      Over the last two years she has had blackouts which last approximately 30 seconds. They typically occur when she is standing. These have occurred more frequently over the last week.

      The latest episode was witnessed by her boyfriend who noted that she collapsed without any abnormal movements. On coming round she was rather drowsy initially but generally fine and recovered relatively quickly.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Features Suggestive of Vasovagal Syncope

      This young girl exhibits features that suggest she may be experiencing vasovagal syncope. The episodes seem to occur only when she is standing, which differentiates it from cardiac syncope that can happen at any time and may be triggered by exercise without warning. Additionally, there are no abnormal movements during the episodes, making epilepsy less likely. Furthermore, the girl seems to recover fully after each episode, which also makes epilepsy less likely. It is important to note that Addison’s disease would likely present with other autoimmune phenomena and symptoms such as muscle weakness or low mood, which are not mentioned in this case. Overall, the features observed in this young girl point towards vasovagal syncope as the likely cause of her episodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of proximal upper...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of proximal upper limb pain that has been bothering her for 6 months. She reports experiencing headaches on the right side and suddenly experiences visual blurring on the right side. Upon examination, her right optic disk is found to be swollen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Giant cell arteritis (GCA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Headache with Visual Disturbances

      Giant cell arteritis (GCA), carotid artery dissection (CAD), cluster headache, idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), and ophthalmoplegic migraine are all potential causes of headache with visual disturbances. GCA is a systemic vasculitis that primarily affects the aorta and its extracranial branches, presenting with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and fatigue. CAD, which often occurs in the internal carotid artery, can cause headaches and neck and facial pain on the same side as the dissection, followed by signs of stroke. Cluster headaches are characterised by severe, unilateral pain around the eyes, accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features. IIH, which typically affects obese young women, is characterised by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances, but no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. Ophthalmoplegic migraine is a rare condition characterised by transient migraine-like headaches accompanied by long-lasting oculomotor, abducens, or trochlear neuropathy with diplopia. Pupillary abnormalities and ptosis may occur if the oculomotor nerve is involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two months. Her vital capacity is 3 litres when sitting and 1.4 litres when lying. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral ptosis. There are no other abnormal neurological findings.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that affects both eyes and respiratory muscles, causing bilateral ptosis and respiratory muscle weakness. Unlike other disorders, initial weakness is not limited to a single muscle group. Guillain–Barré syndrome, on the other hand, presents with an ascending pattern of progressive symmetrical weakness, starting in the lower extremities and progressing to involve the arms, trunk, cranial nerves, and muscles of respiration. Motor neurone disease typically affects the upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is a chronic, slowly progressive disease that affects muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes, and myotonia. Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower limbs, with involvement of the thighs, trunk, shoulders, hips, and upper arms over time. Ocular muscles are never involved in the generalised type of the disease.

      Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Characteristics

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a same-day appointment. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a same-day appointment. She complains of experiencing a sudden and severe headache during sexual intercourse the night before. The pain lasted for several hours before gradually subsiding. She had a similar episode two weeks ago but did not seek medical attention at the time. The patient reports that the headache has now completely resolved. She denies any history of medical conditions and illicit drug use. She is currently using a nexplanon implant for contraception.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: A trial of sumatriptan as needed

      Correct Answer: Refer to the on-call acute medical team

      Explanation:

      The patient’s thunderclap headache could potentially be caused by various factors, but it is crucial to rule out subarachnoid haemorrhage as a possible cause. Therefore, a CT scan and lumbar puncture are necessary, and the patient should be referred to the acute medical team.

      The International Headache Society recognizes headaches associated with sexual activity (HSA) as a primary headache disorder, and the patient’s symptoms may fit the criteria for orgasmic headache. However, other potential causes must be ruled out before making this diagnosis. Triptans are the first-line treatment for HSA, and a headache diary may be appropriate if there is diagnostic uncertainty.

      Due to the presence of red flag features, outpatient referral is not appropriate, and neuroimaging should be arranged by the acute medical team.

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but certain features in a patient’s history should prompt further action. These red flags were outlined in the 2012 guidelines by NICE. They include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy known to metastasize to the brain, sudden-onset headache reaching maximum intensity within 5 minutes (also known as thunderclap), new-onset neurological deficit, and impaired level of consciousness. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, recent head trauma, headache triggered by cough or exercise, orthostatic headache, symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma, and a substantial change in the characteristics of their headache. It is important to recognize these red flags and take appropriate action to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a headache over his left eye spreading across his forehead. During the headache, he has difficulty speaking. Three minutes later he has developed clumsiness in his right hand, and two minutes after that he describes his right leg as ‘feeling heavy’. His speech and limb symptoms have disappeared after 20 minutes, but his headache persists for six hours. He suffered from migraines as a teenager but has not had an attack in over 15 years. He smokes 25 cigarettes a day.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Berry aneurysm

      Correct Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neurological Symptoms: Differential Diagnosis

      When presented with neurological symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of transient symptoms accompanied by a prolonged headache history, migraine with aura is a likely possibility. The aura may be visual, sensory, motor, or a combination of these and typically lasts less than 60 minutes.

      While a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) could explain the neurological symptoms, it is unlikely to account for the prolonged headache history. A berry aneurysm, on the other hand, would not cause transient symptoms and would more likely result in a sudden-onset severe headache if ruptured.

      Cluster headaches, which are accompanied by autonomic symptoms on the same side of the head as the pain, are more common in smokers but would not explain the transient neurological symptoms.

      Finally, a subarachnoid haemorrhage typically presents as a sudden-onset severe headache, which is not consistent with the rapid resolution of the neurological symptoms in this case.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of neurological symptoms is crucial in determining the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What symptom should raise suspicion for a different diagnosis?

      Your Answer: REM sleep behaviour disorder

      Correct Answer: Diplopia

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of diplopia is rare in Parkinson’s disease and could indicate an alternative reason for parkinsonism, such as progressive supranuclear palsy.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer: Stenting is not an alternative to endarterectomy

      Correct Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis

      Explanation:

      Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis

      Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.

      Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.

      In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with episodic pain in the right side of his face, which has been going on for 2 months. In addition, he complains of a buzzing sound in his right ear and right-sided hearing loss. Two weeks earlier he also complained of numbness in his face, but the doctor who saw him then was unable to find any abnormal signs. When you see him, he is in pain. He does appear to have hearing loss and a reduced corneal reflex on the right, but nothing else.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Trigeminal Neuralgia and Acoustic Neuroma: A Clinical Overview

      When presented with facial numbness and a diminished corneal reflex, a structural lesion is highly suspected, rather than trigeminal neuralgia. While tinnitus and hearing loss may be present in both conditions, the latter favors a structural lesion. Brainstem plaques and acoustic neuromas can mimic trigeminal neuralgia symptoms, but sensorineural hearing loss is more indicative of a structural lesion. Acoustic neuromas are typically benign and slow-growing, but can cause symptoms through mass effect and pressure on local structures. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterized by sudden, unilateral, brief, stabbing, recurrent pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the Vth cranial nerve. Ménière’s disease and viral labyrinthitis may also cause hearing loss, but vertigo is the most prominent symptom. While the age of presentation may slightly favor a diagnosis of acoustic neuroma over multiple sclerosis, the vast majority of cases are never diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent behavior changes. She notes that he used to be reserved, but in the past year, he has become much louder and seeks attention at social events. Additionally, he makes inappropriate comments and lacks empathy towards her. She also mentions that he has been consuming a lot of fatty and carbohydrate-rich foods, despite being health-conscious previously. The patient's neurological exam is normal, and his wife recalls that his mother passed away at 63 due to a neurological condition, but she cannot recall the name of it. What condition is likely affecting this man?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is exhibiting a slow progression of personality changes and social conduct issues at a younger age, while still maintaining their memory and visuospatial abilities. Additionally, their mother passed away at 65 years old due to a comparable neurological condition. This suggests that the individual is likely suffering from Frontotemporal lobar degeneration, specifically Pick’s disease. Other forms of dementia have distinct presentations and can be found in the PassMedicine textbook. Bipolar disorder is an unlikely diagnosis due to its sudden onset and the strong familial connection to Pick’s disease.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.

      FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.

      CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
      Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conventional antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects

      When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.

      Conventional Antipsychotics:
      Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.

      Atypical Antipsychotics:
      Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Lithium:
      Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants:
      Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you...

    Incorrect

    • During your weekly ward round at the local neurological rehabilitation care centre you see a 34-year-old man who has a background of depression, asthma and a traumatic spinal cord injury. The nurses report him being more distressed and agitated over the last two days.

      On examination he is profusely sweating in the upper body and face, his blood pressure is 180/110mmHg, heart rate 60/min, oxygen saturations 99%, chest clear to auscultation and Glasgow coma scale 15, calves soft and non-tender, pupils equal and reactive. He admits to drinking 15 units/week and smokes 10 cigarettes/day. Regular medications include salbutamol, oxycodone, co-codamol 30/500 as required and prophylactic dose low molecular weight heparin.

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Autonomic dysreflexia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia is faecal impaction or urinary retention. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, which in this case is likely faecal impaction. Risk factors for impaction include immobility, certain medications, anatomic conditions, and neuropsychiatric conditions. The patient may have developed impaction due to the use of oxycodone and Co-codamol without laxatives. This is the only answer that would result in localised flushing above the level of the spinal cord injury.

      Alcohol withdrawal is an incorrect answer as the patient’s alcohol consumption is not high enough to cause physical withdrawal symptoms.

      Pulmonary embolism is also an incorrect answer as it would present with different symptoms such as tachycardia and signs of a DVT.

      Serotonin syndrome is an incorrect answer as it would not cause localised sweating and may present with other symptoms such as tachycardia and dilated pupils.

      Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.

      What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute treatment is not required

      Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations

      Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.

      It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.

      When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.

      Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.

      While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of headaches that have been gradually worsening over the past few weeks and are now happening every day, accompanied by vomiting. He has also experienced vision loss, specifically an inability to see things on his left side. During the examination, the doctor observes a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia.
      What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left retina

      Correct Answer: Right temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localizing Neurological Lesions Based on Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can provide valuable information in localizing neurological lesions. In this case, the patient presents with a left superior homonymous quadrantanopia. By analyzing the location of the defect, we can rule out certain areas of the brain that may be affected.

      Defects in the visual field that are restricted to one eye are likely to be in the retina or optic nerve. However, this patient doesn’t have a single eye visual field defect. Parietal or superior bank lesions would cause an inferior quadrantanopia, which is unlikely in this case.

      A bitemporal field defect would indicate a lesion in the optic chiasm, but this patient’s defect is not bitemporal. A lesion to the optic tract would result in a homonymous hemianopia, which is different from the patient’s quadrantanopia.

      Therefore, based on the location of the defect, we can conclude that the lesion is most likely posterior to the optic chiasm, ruling out the right optic tract, left retina, and left parietal lobe. The most probable location of the lesion is the left temporal optic radiations or inferior bank of the calcarine cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A 68-year-old man presents with his wife, reporting that she frequently gets out...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with his wife, reporting that she frequently gets out of bed at night and walks around the bedroom. She describes a sensation of restless legs and a creeping feeling that is unbearable. These symptoms usually occur in the evening and can only be relieved by movement. What is the recommended treatment for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Quinine

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      The management of restless leg syndrome involves the use of dopamine agonists like ropinirole.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 56-year-old man presents with a six day history of paraesthesia in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a six day history of paraesthesia in his hands and feet. He reports that this has been getting steadily worse and he is now finding it difficult to walk. He denies any other symptoms but tells you that a couple of weeks ago he had a two day episode of diarrhoea, since completely resolved. He denies any ongoing bladder or bowel symptoms. He also tells you that he has had a difficult time at home recently as his wife has moved out and asked for a divorce. He denies any excessive alcohol use.

      On examination, he has a slow, unsteady gait, needing to hold onto the furniture as he walks. Examination shows he has 4/5 power in his finger abductors as well as 3/5 in both ankle dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. He reports loss of soft-touch sensation in both feet up to the ankles. Reflexes are normal in the upper limbs but you are unable to elicit either the knee jerk or ankle jerks; plantars are downgoing. Tone is normal throughout.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of rapidly progressive peripheral neuropathy with hyporeflexia in this man strongly suggests Guillain-Barre syndrome. This condition should be suspected in patients who exhibit symmetrical neurological signs following a diarrhoeal illness, with campylobacter being a common cause.

      While symmetrical paraesthesia may be attributed to anxiety or panic attacks, this man’s objective neurological signs require further investigation.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is unlikely to present with symmetrical peripheral symptoms affecting all four limbs, and upper motor neurone signs would be more prominent.

      Cauda equina syndrome typically presents with lower limb symptoms accompanied by back pain, saddle anaesthesia, and sphincter disturbance.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
    Select the single correct...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman requests a prescription for travel sickness medication.
      Select the single correct statement regarding the treatment of motion sickness.

      Your Answer: Cinnarazine should be started before travel

      Explanation:

      Preventing Travel Sickness: Effective Drugs and Side-Effects

      Travel sickness can be prevented by taking medication before experiencing nausea or vomiting. The most effective drug is hyoscine, which can be administered through a transdermal patch for prolonged activity. However, hyoscine may cause side-effects such as dry mouth, drowsiness, and blurred vision. Sedating antihistamines are slightly less effective but are generally better tolerated. Promethazine is useful for its sedative effect, but a less sedating antihistamine like cyclizine or cinnarizine is preferred. Domperidone, metoclopramide, 5HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron), and phenothiazines (e.g. prochlorperazine) except for promethazine are ineffective in preventing travel sickness. Prochlorperazine is commonly used to relieve nausea and vomiting but has not been proven to prevent motion sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke her up from sleep this morning and blurred vision. She reports experiencing similar headaches with nausea and vomiting for the past two years, which have not responded to over-the-counter medications. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication.

      During the examination, her vital signs are stable, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      If a young, obese female complains of headaches, blurred vision, and nausea/vomiting, it is likely that she is suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This condition may cause symptoms to improve during the day when the patient is upright, but worsen when they bend down.

      While acute angle glaucoma can also cause headaches and blurred vision, it typically presents with unilateral eye pain and abnormal pupillary reflexes on neurological examination.

      Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is less likely as a cause of the patient’s symptoms, as it typically presents with headache as the primary symptom, along with focal or generalized neurological features such as seizures. Risk factors for clot formation should be considered in the patient’s history.

      Although migraines are a common cause of recurrent headaches, the patient’s high BMI and generalized nature of the headache, along with the positional element, suggest idiopathic intracranial hypertension as the most likely cause.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A 25-year-old woman presents with headaches. She suffered headaches occasionally in her early...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with headaches. She suffered headaches occasionally in her early twenties but has had them more frequently over the past 2 months.
      Select from the list of options the single feature that would suggest a diagnosis of tension type headache rather than migraine.

      Your Answer: Pain is severe

      Correct Answer: Generalised headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tension-Type Headaches: Symptoms and Differences from Migraines

      Tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common type of headache that can interfere with daily activities. Diagnosis of TTH is based on the presence of at least two of the following symptoms in at least ten previous headaches: a mild-to-moderate bilateral or generalised headache, a frontal-occipital headache, a non-pulsatile pressing or tightening quality, and no aggravation by routine physical activity.

      Compared to migraines, tension-type headaches have a more gradual onset, variable duration, and are usually shorter in duration. They are also more constant in quality, less severe, and respond better to over-the-counter medication when they are episodic. Understanding the symptoms and differences between TTH and migraines can help individuals manage their headaches more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman presents with sudden onset weakness and numbness in her legs. She has a history of treated hypertension and occasional cigarette smoking. Her mother passed away in her early forties due to a heart problem. On examination, her cranial nerves and upper limbs appear normal. However, there is increased tone in her legs bilaterally, with brisk reflexes and up-going plantars. She has reduced power to 3/5 in all modalities below the hips and has lost pain and light touch sensation to the waist. Vibration and joint-position sense are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anterior Cord Syndrome: Causes and Effects

      Anterior cord syndrome occurs when the blood supply to the anterior portion of the spinal cord is interrupted. This portion of the spinal cord is supplied by the anterior spinal artery, which receives branches from the aorta. Therefore, lesions within the aorta, such as aneurysm or atherosclerosis, are the most common causes of anterior cord syndrome. Other causes include vasculitis, polycythemia, sickle cell disease, decompression sickness, cocaine use, and collagen and elastin disorders.

      Anterior spinal artery thrombosis affects the corticospinal tracts and spinothalamic tracts, which are responsible for motor neurons and pain/temperature sensation. These tracts are located at the front of the spine. Posterior columns, which carry vibration and joint-position sense, are not affected. As a spinal lesion, anterior cord syndrome is purely upper motor neuronal, resulting in brisk reflexes and up-going plantars.

      In contrast, other conditions that affect both upper and lower motor neurons will produce a combination of up-going plantars with absent knee jerks. Understanding the causes and effects of anterior cord syndrome can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is being seen in clinic. His most recent MMSE score is 18 out of 30, indicating 'moderate' dementia. As per NICE guidelines, what additional steps should be taken?

      Your Answer: Supportive care + donepezil

      Explanation:

      Management of Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. There are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological management options available for patients with Alzheimer’s disease.

      Non-pharmacological management involves offering activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy, group reminiscence therapy, and cognitive rehabilitation are some of the options that can be considered.

      Pharmacological management options include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is a second-line treatment option that can be used for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.

      When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.

      It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. Proper management of Alzheimer’s disease can improve the quality of life for patients and their caregivers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to pulmonary embolism. During the course...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to pulmonary embolism. During the course of her treatment, she has experienced pain, numbness, and tingling sensations in her left anterior thigh that extend to her medial leg. Additionally, she has developed weakness in her knee extension and hip flexion, and her left knee jerk is absent. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left superior gluteal nerve

      Correct Answer: Left femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      Abnormalities in Various Nerves and Their Symptoms

      Left Femoral Nerve:
      The patient shows signs of left femoral neuropathy, including weakness in knee extension and hip flexion, as well as decreased sensation in the anterior thigh and medial distal leg. This may be due to retroperitoneal hemorrhage caused by anticoagulation therapy.

      Left Obturator Nerve:
      The obturator nerve provides sensory innervation to the medial thigh and motor innervation to the adductor muscles of the leg. Symptoms of damage include sensory loss, pain, and paraesthesiae in the medial thigh, as well as adductor muscle dysfunction and wasting.

      Left Common Peroneal Nerve:
      The common peroneal nerve supplies the motor function to the muscles of the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg. Damage can result in foot drop and sensory loss to the dorsal surface of the foot and portions of the anterior lower lateral leg.

      Left Sciatic Nerve:
      The sciatic nerve supplies the hamstrings and posterior muscles of the thigh, as well as indirectly innervating all the muscles of the leg and foot. Signs of damage include foot drop, loss of power below the knee, loss of knee flexion, loss of ankle jerk and plantar response, and loss of sensation below the knee on the lateral side.

      Left Superior Gluteal Nerve:
      The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae muscles. Damage can result in weak abduction of the affected hip joint due to weakness or paralysis of the small gluteal muscles.

      Understanding Abnormalities in Various Nerves and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids drooping. She reports that her family has commented on this for several months and she has also been experiencing double vision and fatigue. Upon further questioning, she mentions difficulty lifting her arms above her head. On examination, there is slight ptosis but no ophthalmoplegia. Power in her arms is slightly reduced for extension, but tone, coordination, and reflexes are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myalgic encephalomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis is a condition caused by autoantibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, resulting in symptoms such as double vision, drooping eyelids, and muscle weakness. It is important to review medication use as certain drugs can worsen symptoms. Testing for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies is the first step in diagnosis. Thymoma should be ruled out in newly diagnosed patients. Treatment typically involves oral pyridostigmine and, if necessary, surgery for thymoma. Immunomodulatory agents may be used as the disease progresses.

      Motor neurone disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is characterized by the degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones, leading to progressive muscle weakness without sensory symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis often presents with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs, including motor, sensory, and autonomic issues. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of typical lesions and the exclusion of other possible explanations.

      Myalgic encephalomyelitis, also known as chronic fatigue syndrome, causes long-term fatigue and other symptoms such as cognitive difficulties, sleep disturbance, and muscle and joint pains.

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition with an unknown cause that presents with severe pain and stiffness in the shoulder, neck, and pelvic girdle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man with a history of hypertension controlled with bendroflumethiazide presents with 3 months of weakness in his hands, which has deteriorated to the point where he has to hold a cup of tea with two hands. On examination he has wasting and fasciculation of his hands but no sensory symptoms. His tongue appears wasted and fasciculates. He chokes on occasions when swallowing fluids.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Symptoms and Presentations

      Motor Neurone Disease, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, Myasthenia Gravis, and Parkinson’s Disease are all neurological disorders that present with different symptoms and modes of onset.

      Motor Neurone Disease typically presents with minor symptoms in the hands and limbs, with no sensory symptoms and unaffected eyes. Upper and motor neurone signs are seen, and bulbar signs are present in 20% of patients.

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome presents acutely with symmetrical weakness that starts in the lower extremities and ascends progressively. Sensory symptoms also start in the lower extremities.

      Multiple Sclerosis can follow a relapsing remitting or progressive course, with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs. Objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of multiple sclerosis is necessary for diagnosis, as is the exclusion of other explanations for the clinical features.

      Myasthenia Gravis presents with varying degrees of weakness in muscle groups, with muscles tending to fatigue after exercise. Ptosis and diplopia are often the first symptoms.

      Parkinson’s Disease is a movement disorder characterised by tremor at rest, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      In summary, each neurological disorder has its own unique symptoms and presentations, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man presented to his GP with wasting and weakness of the muscles in his left hand.

      He had noticed severely impaired hand grip and had noticed problems with writing. He had also developed a tingling sensation over the palm of his hand extending up the forearm.

      On examination he appeared alert and orientated. Fundoscopy and cranial nerve examination were all normal and neck movements were full.

      On examination of the upper limb, there was significant wasting over the left thenar eminence and fasciculations with a small burn over the left thumb. No other fasciculations could be detected in the proximal limb or other hand. Tone appeared normal and reflexes were intact. There was weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, with loss of pinprick and light touch sensation over the thumb, index and middle finger.

      On examination of the lower limb, no abnormalities could be found.

      Given the above history and clinical findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition that occurs when there is pressure on the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. This can result in severe wasting of the muscles in the thenar eminence, abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis, as well as the lateral two lumbricals. Nerve conduction studies can confirm denervation and absent sensory potentials within the median nerve territory.

      It is important to note that CTS is not indicative of motor neurone disease, which presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone abnormalities without sensory disturbance. Syringomyelia within the cervical cord would cause lower motor neurone signs at the level of the syrinx, with dissociated pain and temperature loss and upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Thoracic inlet syndrome affecting C8, T1 of the brachial plexus would cause additional weakness of hand muscles. An ulnar nerve palsy would cause weakness of small muscles of the hand with preserved thenar muscle function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - For which one of the following indications is carbamazepine least likely to be...

    Incorrect

    • For which one of the following indications is carbamazepine least likely to be a useful management option?

      Your Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Correct Answer: Absence seizures

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are typically not responsive to carbamazepine.

      Understanding Carbamazepine: Uses, Mechanism of Action, and Adverse Effects

      Carbamazepine is a medication that is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, particularly partial seizures. It is also used to treat trigeminal neuralgia and bipolar disorder. Chemically similar to tricyclic antidepressant drugs, carbamazepine works by binding to sodium channels and increasing their refractory period.

      However, there are some adverse effects associated with carbamazepine use. It is known to be a P450 enzyme inducer, which can affect the metabolism of other medications. Patients may also experience dizziness, ataxia, drowsiness, headache, and visual disturbances, especially diplopia. In rare cases, carbamazepine can cause Steven-Johnson syndrome, leucopenia, agranulocytosis, and hyponatremia secondary to syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion.

      It is important to note that carbamazepine exhibits autoinduction, which means that when patients start taking the medication, they may experience a return of seizures after 3-4 weeks of treatment. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to be closely monitored by their healthcare provider when starting carbamazepine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a neurology clinic after experiencing a sudden episode of falling to the ground and becoming unresponsive. She describes becoming stiff and blue before shaking for approximately two minutes, followed by drowsiness for 30 minutes. She has no significant medical history and both an MRI and EEG were normal. What recommendations should be made regarding her ability to drive?

      Your Answer: She must stop driving for 6 months and inform the DVLA in the event of any further seizures

      Correct Answer: Stop driving for 6 months and inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      After experiencing a first unprovoked or isolated seizure with normal brain imaging and EEG, patients are not allowed to drive for a period of 6 months. It is their responsibility to inform the DVLA and they may reapply for a license after the 6-month period if no further seizures occur. The incorrect options include stopping driving for one year and informing the DVLA, stopping driving until established on anti-epileptic medication, and stopping driving for 6 months and informing the DVLA only in the event of any further seizures.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of persistent fatigue over the past six months. She used to be quite active and had no other medical issues, but now she is unable to maintain her previous exercise routine. It takes her several days to recover from fatigue after exercising. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS).
      What is the most likely additional feature that would support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal sleep pattern

      Correct Answer: Cognitive dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a condition characterized by persistent and unexplained fatigue that significantly reduces activity levels and is accompanied by post-exertional malaise. In addition to fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, such as difficulty thinking, concentrating, and remembering, is a common symptom. Low mood may also indicate depression or another mood disorder, which can cause chronic fatigue. Painful lymph nodes without pathological enlargement may occur, but further investigation is needed to rule out other causes of fatigue. Sleep disturbance is also common, and weight loss may suggest an underlying pathology that requires further investigation. It is important to understand these symptoms to properly diagnose and manage CFS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was previously seen by a neurologist three months ago due to regular and debilitating headaches. The pain was short-lasting (lasting only a few minutes) and located behind her right eye. She experienced right-sided tearing and nasal congestion, but no sensitivity to light. The attacks occurred over thirty times and could happen up to eight times a day. The neurologist prescribed indomethacin, which has successfully stopped the attacks. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxysmal hemicrania

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal hemicrania can be effectively treated with indomethacin, with complete responsiveness.

      The symptoms of paroxysmal hemicrania are typical, and it is more prevalent in women. However, idiopathic intracranial hypertension is more common in overweight women and usually causes bilateral symptoms that worsen when lying flat. Treatment for this condition typically involves lumbar puncture or acetazolamide, rather than indomethacin.

      Migraines typically last for several hours and are accompanied by photophobia and nausea.

      Sinus-related headaches cause pain around the sinuses and are usually associated with a history of sinusitis. These headaches tend to persist while the sinusitis is present, rather than occurring as multiple discrete episodes throughout the day.

      Tension headaches cause pressure symptoms on both sides of the forehead and are often triggered by stress, fatigue, and dehydration.

      Understanding Paroxysmal Hemicrania

      Paroxysmal hemicrania (PH) is a type of headache that is characterized by severe, one-sided pain in the orbital, supraorbital, or temporal region. These attacks are often accompanied by autonomic symptoms and typically last for less than 30 minutes. PH can occur multiple times a day and is classified as a trigeminal autonomic cephalgia, a group of disorders that also includes cluster headaches. However, unlike cluster headaches, PH can be effectively treated with indomethacin.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PH is important for individuals who experience frequent headaches. By seeking medical attention and receiving a proper diagnosis, individuals with PH can receive the appropriate treatment and find relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 45-year-old patient presents with symptoms of allodynia, swelling, and motor dysfunction in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with symptoms of allodynia, swelling, and motor dysfunction in their right foot, which developed after a severe ankle sprain four months ago. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline + compression bandaging

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline + physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

      Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that cause neurological and related symptoms following surgery or minor injury. It is more common in women, and there are two types: type I, where there is no visible nerve lesion, and type II, where there is a lesion to a major nerve.

      Symptoms of CRPS include progressive and disproportionate pain to the original injury or surgery, allodynia, changes in skin color and temperature, swelling, sweating, and motor dysfunction. The Budapest Diagnostic Criteria are commonly used in the UK to diagnose CRPS.

      Early physiotherapy is important in managing CRPS, along with neuropathic analgesia in line with NICE guidelines. Specialist management from a pain team is also required. Understanding CRPS and its symptoms can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a complaint of lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner with a complaint of lower back pain that has been gradually worsening over six weeks. He reports a burning sensation that extends into his buttock and down his right leg, along with paraesthesia in the same region. He believes that his right leg is weaker.
      What is the one characteristic that indicates a sciatic nerve lesion?

      Your Answer: Absent knee tendon jerk

      Correct Answer: Foot drop

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Lesions: Symptoms and Signs

      Nerve lesions can cause a variety of symptoms and signs depending on the affected nerve. Here are some common examples:

      Foot Drop
      A sciatic nerve lesion can lead to foot drop, as the nerve supplies all the muscles of the leg and is responsible for all foot movements and the ankle jerk.

      Absent Knee Tendon Jerk
      Loss of the knee jerk signifies an L3-4 nerve root lesion or femoral nerve involvement.

      Decreased Sensation on Anterior Thigh and Medial Leg
      Femoral nerve lesions typically cause anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss.

      Inability to Flex the Hip
      The femoral nerve, rather than the sciatic nerve, mediates flexion of the hip.

      Reduced Anal Tone
      Reduced anal tone, often accompanied by faecal incontinence, is a sign of cauda equina syndrome and would not be a feature of a sciatic nerve lesion.

      Understanding these symptoms and signs can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat nerve lesions effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presented with episodic impairment of consciousness.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Depressive stupor

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Fluctuating Level of Consciousness in Elderly Patients

      When presented with an elderly patient exhibiting fluctuating levels of consciousness, it is important to consider various potential causes. Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, Creutzfeldt-Jacob, and depression can all lead to dementia or apparent dementia, but typically do not result in fluctuating levels of consciousness. However, chronic subdural hematoma is a condition that can be associated with such fluctuations. In the absence of neurological signs, this diagnosis may be the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. It is important to carefully consider all potential causes and conduct appropriate diagnostic tests to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to the movement disorders outpatient clinic with a history of Parkinson's disease. He is currently on co-beneldopa 650mg five times daily. The patient reports excessive drooling of saliva, which has not improved with speech and language therapy. What would be the best initial management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Increase co-beneldopa to six times daily

      Correct Answer: Start glycopyrronium bromide

      Explanation:

      To manage drooling of saliva in people with Parkinson’s disease, the recommended first line of medical treatment is glycopyrronium bromide. If this medication is not effective, not well-tolerated, or contraindicated, it may be necessary to refer the patient to a specialist service for botulinum toxin A. While scopolamine is also an antimuscarinic that can be used for drooling in Parkinson’s disease, it carries a higher risk of adverse cognitive effects. Increasing co-beneldopa will not have any impact on non-motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease, including drooling. Atropine can be used, but sublingual atropine ophthalmic solution is preferred over inhalers.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 45-year-old man who presents with weakness and numbness of his hand. The symptoms worsen when he raises his hands above his head. The numbness is not specific to any particular dermatome. He also complains of a painful neck and generalised headache. John is an avid golfer and is frustrated as he cannot grip his club properly. He also notices his fingers turning white in the cold. On examination, there is wasting in his thenar eminence. No other focal neurology is detected.

      What is the most probable cause of John's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Correct Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome is characterized by muscle atrophy in the hands, as well as numbness, tingling, and potential autonomic symptoms. The narrowing of the thoracic outlet can lead to both neurological and arterial symptoms, which may be exacerbated by raising the arm above the head. The specific symptoms experienced will depend on the underlying cause and whether the condition is primarily neurogenic or vascular in nature. Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist and typically results in numbness and tingling in the hand, without any associated neck pain or headaches. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes a change in the color of the fingers or toes in response to cold temperatures and can be either primary or secondary.

      Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.

      TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.

      The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.

      To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with menstrual migraines presents for evaluation. She experiences a severe headache every month just before the onset of her period. According to NICE, what is recommended to prevent the development of these headaches?

      Your Answer: Mefanamic acid (500mg tds) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Correct Answer: Frovatriptan (2.5 mg twice a day) on the days around the start of menstruation

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a tremor...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a tremor in her left hand. The tremor is more noticeable when her hand is at rest. She has also observed that her fingers are becoming slightly stiff. During the examination, you observe a resting tremor in her left hand. There are no signs of tremors when she moves her hands. Her neurology is otherwise normal, and she has a history of hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine.

      What should be the next step in managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Start him on levodopa

      Correct Answer: Refer to neurology

      Explanation:

      It is important that only a specialist with expertise in movement disorders should diagnose Parkinson’s disease and initiate its management.

      Parkinsonism is characterized by a combination of resting tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity.

      As per the NICE guidelines, individuals suspected of having Parkinson’s disease should be urgently referred to a specialist with appropriate expertise in movement disorders for treatment. Therefore, referral is the correct course of action, and a watch-and-wait approach is not recommended.

      It is not advisable to start a patient on any medication for Parkinson’s disease without a specialist assessment.

      Nerve conduction studies are suitable for patients who are suspected of having neuropathy.

      Benign essential tremor can be managed using propranolol.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.

      Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.

      It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.

      Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history of diabetes and cervical spondylosis that required surgical decompression seven years ago. He drinks 30 units of alcohol a week. On examination, there is fasciculation, wasting and weakness of the left deltoid and biceps. There is also bilateral upper limb-girdle weakness. There is fasciculation and wasting of the gluteals and quadriceps, with weakness of the hip flexors. Reflexes are brisk in the upper and lower limbs. Plantars are up-going. There is no sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic amyotrophy

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this case is motor neurone disease, which is characterized by the degeneration of neurones in the motor cortex, motor cranial nuclei, and anterior horn cells. This condition presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs, such as weakness, spasticity, hyper-reflexia, up-going plantars, wasting, and fasciculation. However, there are no sensory changes.

      Alcohol can cause an acute alcoholic myopathy after binge drinking, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis due to the precipitation of myoglobin in the renal tubules. Chronic myopathy associated with gradual progressive weakness and atrophy, usually involving the hip and shoulder girdle without myoglobinuria, can also occur.

      Diabetic amyotrophy is a diabetic proximal neuropathy that causes weakness, wasting, and pain, typically in the quadriceps, and progresses distally.

      Cervical spondylosis can result in nerve root compression (radiculopathy) or cord compression (myelopathy). Radiculopathy presents with unilateral neck, shoulder, or arm pain, possibly with changes in sensation or weakness in related muscles. Myelopathy results in progressive spastic quadriparesis and sensory loss with decreased position and vibration sense, and a sensory level develops.

      Syringomyelia is characterized by a fluid-filled tubular cyst (syrinx) within the central spinal cord, usually in the cervical region. The syrinx enlarges, compressing the corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts and the anterior horn cells. This condition typically presents in the 20s and 30s, and progress is slow. Symptoms depend on the site of the lesion, but early signs often include wasting and weakness of the hands, with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the trunk and arms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He recalls waking from sleep, standing up, feeling light-headed and nauseated, lying back on the bed and losing consciousness. He recovered on the floor. He did not bite his tongue, but his head was badly bruised. His wife was woken by him falling to the ground and mentions that he was pale and sweaty before giving a loud moan followed by ‘spasms’ of his arms and legs lasting about 20 seconds. He was rousable after a minute.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cardiac arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Collapse: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with a history of collapse, it is important to consider various possible causes. One potential cause is vasovagal syncope, which is characterized by a prodrome of nausea and light-headedness, often associated with postural change, and a rapid recovery. Jerking movements may occur but do not necessarily indicate epilepsy. Another possibility is cardiac arrhythmia, which may be associated with chest pain or palpitations and can occur during exercise or while lying down. Epileptic seizures are less likely to be triggered by postural change and may involve tongue biting or incontinence. Hypoglycaemia typically presents with trembling, sweating, palpitations, and paraesthesiae before progressing to confusion and coma. Finally, psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may have a gradual onset, fluctuating course, and violent thrashing movements with side-to-side head movement. It is important to consider these and other potential causes when evaluating a patient with a history of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - A 25-year-old obese woman presents with a history of worsening headaches for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old obese woman presents with a history of worsening headaches for 3 months. The headaches are worse on waking in the morning and improve when standing. She has papilloedema but no obvious neurological deficit.
      Select the most important feature to discover in the history.

      Your Answer: A history of vitamin A excess

      Correct Answer: Worsening visual fields

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, without any apparent cause such as a tumor or blockage. It is most commonly seen in young women who are overweight, and can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. The condition is thought to be caused by a problem with the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, which can lead to swelling of the optic nerve and other symptoms.

      The main symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension are headaches and gradual loss of vision, which is often accompanied by swelling of the optic nerve. Treatment typically involves weight loss, diuretic therapy, and medication to relieve symptoms. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to relieve pressure on the brain and prevent further damage to the optic nerve.

      If you are experiencing symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension, it is important to seek medical attention right away. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, it is possible to manage the condition and prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split...

    Correct

    • What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?

      Your Answer: Daily living component and mobility component

      Explanation:

      The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 65-year-old man with a history of lumbar spondylosis and chronic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of lumbar spondylosis and chronic back pain complains of progressive bilateral upper limb tingling and stiffness in his legs. Which of the following tests is confirmatory for his probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT C-spine

      Correct Answer: MRI Cervical spine

      Explanation:

      Upper limb neurological symptoms suggest that there is a problem in the cervical spinal cord or brain, with brain disease more likely to cause unilateral issues. Therefore, an MRI of the lumbar spine would not provide a conclusive diagnosis in this case. When degenerative cervical myelopathy is suspected, an MRI of the cervical spine is the preferred test, as it can reveal disc degeneration, ligament hypertrophy, and cord signal change. CT imaging is only used when MRI is not possible, and radiographs are not useful in this context. Additional investigations, such as nerve conduction studies and EMG, may be performed if the diagnosis is unclear, but an MRI of the cervical spine should be the primary investigation when cervical myelopathy is suspected.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of worsening headaches. She mentions experiencing blurred vision and that her headaches intensify when she bends forward. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) as her only medication. During fundi examination, papilloedema is suspected. Her prolactin level is mildly elevated at 800 mU/l (normal range: < 400 mU/l). She is also obese. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Macroprolactinoma

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)

      Explanation:

      Neurological Conditions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatments

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)
      IIH is a condition that primarily affects obese young women. It is characterized by papilloedema, headaches, and visual disturbances. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may worsen the condition. Lumbar puncture reveals elevated cerebrospinal fluid pressure, but there is no associated intracranial mass or ventricular enlargement. If left untreated, IIH can lead to irreversible optic neuropathy. Treatment options include serial lumbar punctures, prednisolone, thiazide diuretics, acetazolamide, weight loss, and surgical decompression or shunting.

      Microprolactinoma and Macroprolactinoma
      Microprolactinoma is a pituitary tumor that is less than 10 mm in size. It can cause amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and galactorrhea, accompanied by high prolactin levels. Macroprolactinoma, on the other hand, is larger than 10 mm and can cause headaches and visual field defects. Persistent high prolactin levels may indicate a pathological cause and require further investigation.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus
      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure. It mainly affects the elderly and is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality, urinary incontinence, and dementia. It may be caused by meningitis, head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or a tumor. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a potentially reversible cause of dementia.

      Superior Sagittal Sinus Thrombosis
      Thrombosis of the cerebral veins or venous sinuses can cause cerebral infarction or hemorrhage. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis can cause headache, seizures, paralysis, visual disturbances, and neck stiffness. Symptoms are related to the area of thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?...

    Incorrect

    • Which option from the list includes the common initial symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Personality change and extrapyramidal signs

      Correct Answer: Progressive memory impairment, apraxia and aphasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alzheimer’s Disease: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Alzheimer’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by a range of cognitive deficits, including memory impairment, language disturbance, and difficulty with motor activities. In addition to these cognitive symptoms, individuals with Alzheimer’s disease may also experience personality changes and behavioral problems.

      While some symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease are common, others are less so. For example, extrapyramidal signs and myoclonus are uncommon, as are pyramidal signs and seizures, especially in the early stages of the illness.

      To diagnose Alzheimer’s disease, doctors typically use the DSM-IV criteria for dementia of the Alzheimer’s type. These criteria include the development of multiple cognitive defects, significant impairment in social or occupational functioning, and a gradual onset and continuing cognitive decline. Additionally, the cognitive deficits must not be due to any other central nervous system conditions, systemic conditions, or substance-induced conditions.

      By understanding the common features and diagnostic criteria of Alzheimer’s disease, individuals and their loved ones can better recognize the signs of this debilitating illness and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - You have been requested to visit a 42-year-old woman who has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • You have been requested to visit a 42-year-old woman who has a medical history of multiple sclerosis and is experiencing painful spasticity in both arms. Despite trying various medications such as baclofen, gabapentin, and amitriptyline, none have been successful in managing her symptoms. Recently, it has been suggested by the multiple sclerosis society that cannabis extract spray can effectively treat spasticity and pain. The patient is interested in starting this treatment.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: It is illegal in the UK to use cannabis-based products for medicinal use

      Correct Answer: Discuss with the neurologist as you are unable to prescribe this as a GP

      Explanation:

      To prescribe unlicensed cannabis-based products, doctors must be on the General Medical Council Specialist Register and should only do so for disorders within their specialty with clear evidence or published guidelines. As a GP, you are unable to prescribe this for spasticity in multiple sclerosis. It is recommended to discuss with a neurology consultant who would be an appropriate doctor to prescribe this.

      Cannabis-Based Medicinal Products: Guidelines and Available Products

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can now be prescribed for therapeutic use under specialist supervision, following a Department of Health review in 2018. These products are defined as medicinal preparations or products that contain cannabis, cannabis resin, cannabinol, or a cannabinol derivative, and are produced for use in humans. Initial prescriptions must be made by a specialist medical practitioner with experience in the condition being treated, and subsequent prescriptions can be issued by another practitioner under a shared care agreement.

      Cannabis-based medicinal products can be used to manage various conditions, including chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, chronic pain, spasticity in adults with multiple sclerosis, and severe-treatment resistant epilepsy. However, current NICE guidance advises against using cannabis-based medicines for chronic pain, except if already initiated and under specialist supervision until appropriate to stop.

      Several cannabis-based products and cannabinoids are available, including Bedrocan, Tilray, Sativex, Epidiolex, Dronabinol, and Nabilone. However, unlicensed cannabis-based products can only be prescribed by doctors on the General Medical Council Specialist Register, and doctors should prescribe products only for disorders within their specialty when there is clear evidence or published guidelines.

      It is important to consider current available evidence, interactions with other prescribed or non-prescribed medication, and the potential for patients to seek or use non-medicinal products lacking safety and quality assurance when considering prescribing cannabis-based products. Patients should also be advised of the risks of impaired driving, as cannabis-based products may impair a patient’s ability to drive safely.

      Common side effects associated with cannabis-based medicines include disorientation, dizziness, euphoria, confusion, dry mouth, nausea, somnolence, fatigue, vomiting, drowsiness, loss of balance, and hallucination. Rare adverse events include psychosis and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old male patient who reports frequent episodes of tripping. During your examination, you observe that he has a gait pattern characterized by high-stepping, where he excessively flexes his knees to ensure his feet clear the ground while walking. What is the probable reason for this clinical observation?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      When a person develops a high-stepping gait, it is often a compensatory mechanism for foot drop. If foot drop is found on only one side, it is likely that there is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve. However, if foot drop is present on both sides, it is more probable that the cause is peripheral neuropathy.

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that can be categorized based on whether it predominantly causes a motor or sensory loss. When the motor function is affected, conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) like Charcot-Marie-Tooth, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria may be the cause. On the other hand, when the sensory function is affected, conditions such as diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis may be the cause.

      Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. Typically, sensory symptoms present before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, where the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of peripheral neuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired carpenter visits his GP complaining of an increasingly debilitating tremor in his hands. He first noticed the tremor about a year ago, but it has worsened over the past few months and he is now having difficulty keeping his hands steady when working with wood. Additionally, he reports changes in his voice with the appearance of a mild vibrato.

      During the neurological examination, a high-frequency tremor is observed, most pronounced on the right, when the patient holds up his arms in front of him. The tremor disappears when the patient relaxes his arms and hands, and there is no evidence of ataxia or hypotonia.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multiple system atrophy

      Correct Answer: Essential tremor

      Explanation:

      Essential tremor is commonly associated with a sustained muscle tone tremor in the hands, but it can also affect the vocal cords. It is unlikely to be caused by cerebellar disease or Parkinson’s disease, and orthostatic tremor is rare and affects the legs.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, previously known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. Its main feature is a postural tremor that worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the most common cause of titubation, which is a head tremor.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 27-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, back pain, anxiety and depression presents to your clinic as an emergency appointment. She has been booking emergency appointments with the clinic almost every week with mild and vague generalised symptoms. A few weeks ago, you diagnosed her with self-limiting gastroenteritis.

      Today, she complains of weakness in both her legs that has been worsening and moving up her legs from her feet over the last few days. She also reports some shooting pains and increased back pain. However, she denies any new incontinence or saddle anaesthesia.

      Upon examination, her observations are normal, and she has good power in her upper limbs. However, there appears to be some numbness in both hands. She also has reduced sensation and power in both lower legs symmetrically up to just below her knees. Additionally, she has absent plantar reflexes and reduced ankle reflexes.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange for some non-urgent blood tests including HbA1c to look for a possible cause

      Correct Answer: Admit her to hospital for further investigations and treatment

      Explanation:

      The patient’s worsening lower limb weakness following gastroenteritis is concerning for Guillain-Barre syndrome, as indicated by abnormal neurological findings, timing of illness, and age. Immediate admission to hospital for further investigation and treatment is necessary.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a mild, resting tremor in his arms and legs. Upon examination, it is slightly more pronounced on his left side. There is also a slight stiffness and slowness of movement in his arms. His blood pressure measures 150/85 mmHg.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD)

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson's disease (IPD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Stiffness and Tremor

      When presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of this patient, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD), as the tremor is asymmetric and worsens at rest, and the patient displays slowness of movement and rigidity.

      Cervical myelopathy is less likely, as it is characterized by neck pain with upper motor neuron signs in the legs and lower motor neuron signs in the arms, which are not present in this patient. Essential tremor, which is worse on movement, is also less likely, as the tremor described here is a resting tremor.

      Hyperthyroidism could cause fine tremor and proximal muscle weakness, but no other specific features are seen in this patient. Ischaemic small-vessel disease (ISVD) can be associated with Parkinsonism, but the unilateral symptoms and lack of other neurological signs make IPD a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, when presented with a patient exhibiting stiffness and tremor, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses, but in this case, IPD is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a tremor, accompanied by his wife. He reports that the tremor has been present for a long time but has become more noticeable over the past year. The tremor began in his left hand and has always been more severe on that side.

      Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a mask-like facial expression and a coarse, rhythmic tremor affecting both hands, which is most prominent at rest. The left hand is more affected than the right.

      As the patient walks, you note that he is stooped over and moves with short, shuffling steps. What other clinical signs would you expect to find in this patient?

      Your Answer: Rigidity

      Correct Answer: Fasciculation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parkinson’s Disease

      Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that presents with a range of symptoms. The core clinical features of PD are bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor. Bradykinesia is characterized by a slowing of movements, resulting in a shuffling gait and a stooped posture. Patients may also experience a loss of facial expression, known as masked facies. Tremors in PD are typically worse at rest and are rhythmic and repetitive, occurring at a frequency of two to five movements per second. This tremor is often described as pill-rolling if the thumb and index finger are involved. Rigidity, which worsens over time, is also more prominent on one side and can lead to the classic description of cog wheel rigidity in PD. These symptoms can be asymmetrical, with one side of the body being more affected than the other. Understanding these core features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding migraine is true?

      Your Answer: The prevalence in men is around 3%

      Correct Answer: It is 3 times more common in women

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Diagnostic Criteria

      Migraine is a primary headache that affects a significant portion of the population. It is characterized by a severe, throbbing headache that is usually felt on one side of the head. Other symptoms include nausea, sensitivity to light and sound, and a duration of up to 72 hours. During an attack, patients often seek a quiet, dark room to alleviate their symptoms. Some patients may experience an aura before the onset of a migraine attack, which is a visual disturbance that can last up to an hour.

      Migraine is more common in women, with a prevalence of 18% compared to 6% in men. There are several triggers that can precipitate a migraine attack, including stress, lack of sleep, certain foods, and hormonal changes. The diagnosis of migraine is based on specific criteria established by the International Headache Society, which includes the frequency and duration of attacks, the location and quality of pain, and the presence of associated symptoms.

      There are also variants of migraine, such as hemiplegic migraine, which is characterized by motor weakness as a manifestation of aura. This type of migraine is rare, affecting only around 1 in 1,000 migraine patients, and is more common in adolescent females.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and diagnostic criteria of migraine can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - A slightly overweight 44-year-old man and his spouse visit the GP with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A slightly overweight 44-year-old man and his spouse visit the GP with concerns about his recent behavior. The wife reports that he has been acting strangely for the past 2 months, becoming easily irritated and frequently criticizing her and their children. Initially, the changes were subtle, but now arguments occur every other day. The husband doesn't acknowledge any issues, and you observe that he struggles to initiate conversations and often pauses mid-sentence. There is no significant family history, and the husband is not on any regular medications.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Pick’s disease, also known as frontotemporal dementia, is a type of dementia that typically affects individuals under the age of 65. This condition can manifest in various forms, with some patients experiencing changes in personality and behavior. In some cases, patients may also struggle with speech production and literacy skills, a condition known as primary progressive aphasia.

      It is highly unlikely for a 40-year-old to develop Alzheimer’s disease or vascular dementia. Huntington’s disease, which is associated with dementia and personality changes, typically presents with motor dysfunction and tends to have a strong genetic component. While B12 deficiency can cause symptoms of dementia, it is often accompanied by other neurological changes, fatigue, and bowel issues.

      Understanding Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a type of cortical dementia that is the third most common after Alzheimer’s and Lewy body dementia. There are three recognized types of FTLD: Frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Progressive non-fluent aphasia (chronic progressive aphasia, CPA), and Semantic dementia.

      FTLD is characterized by an onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. Pick’s disease is the most common type of FTLD and is characterized by personality change and impaired social conduct. Other common features include hyperorality, disinhibition, increased appetite, and perseveration behaviors. Focal gyral atrophy with a knife-blade appearance is characteristic of Pick’s disease.

      CPA is characterized by non-fluent speech, where the patient makes short utterances that are agrammatic. Comprehension is relatively preserved. Semantic dementia, on the other hand, is characterized by fluent progressive aphasia. The speech is fluent but empty and conveys little meaning. Unlike in Alzheimer’s, memory is better for recent rather than remote events.

      In terms of management, NICE doesn’t recommend the use of AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia. Understanding the different types of FTLD and their characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - A 50-year-old man visits the clinic to discuss altering his medication. He experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the clinic to discuss altering his medication. He experiences focal onset impaired awareness (complex partial) seizures and is currently taking carbamazepine. However, his seizure control is inadequate and he needs a medication change.
      What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications for Focal Seizures: Options and Considerations

      When it comes to treating focal seizures, there are several antiepileptic medications available. Carbamazepine and lamotrigine are the first-line treatments, while levetiracetam, oxcarbazepine, and sodium valproate can be considered if the first-line options are unsuitable or not tolerated. If the initial medication is ineffective, an alternative from these five should be offered.

      Clobazam can be used as an adjunctive treatment for focal seizures, but only when poor control persists despite the use of first-line medications. Gabapentin can also be offered as an adjunctive treatment, but only after all first-line medications have been tried. Phenytoin and topiramate are second-line adjunctive agents that should only be considered if the first-line medications are ineffective or not tolerated.

      It’s important to note that each patient’s situation is unique, and the choice of medication should be based on individual factors such as age, comorbidities, and potential side effects. Close monitoring and regular follow-up with a healthcare provider are essential to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

    His temperature is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old schoolteacher is admitted with headache, photophobia and neck stiffness.

      His temperature is 39.0°C, pulse rate 120 beats/min and he has no skin rash or focal neurological signs. His Glasgow coma scale is 15/15.

      A CT scan shows no contraindication to lumbar puncture. CSF is obtained and Gram stain shows Gram-positive cocci, subsequent culture confirms a pneumococcal meningitis.

      What chemoprophylaxis should be offered to his pupils?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Chemoprophylaxis for Meningitis Close Contacts

      Chemoprophylaxis is not typically recommended for individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has pneumococcal meningitis. However, for those who have been in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis, chemoprophylaxis with rifampicin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, or azithromycin is often used. For individuals who have been in close contact with someone who has Haemophilus influenza meningitis, rifampicin is recommended. Additionally, children under the age of two should receive a vaccination for Haemophilus influenza meningitis. Proper chemoprophylaxis and vaccination can help prevent the spread of meningitis and protect individuals who have been in close contact with those who have the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who comes to see you with her husband...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who comes to see you with her husband John.

      John has noticed that Samantha's left hand shakes, particularly when she is relaxed. This has been gradually worsening over the past few months and he has also noticed that she appears to be less steady when she is walking. On further questioning, you find that Samantha is also having trouble with her sleep.

      On examination, Samantha has a resting tremor of her left hand and cogwheel rigidity is present. Her gait demonstrates a reduced arm swing and is slow.

      What is the next best management step?

      Your Answer: Organise an urgent Positron emission tomography (PET) brain scan

      Correct Answer: Refer Michael urgently to a specialist with expertise in movement disorders

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines, only a specialist with expertise in movement disorders, such as a neurologist or elderly care physician, should diagnose Parkinson’s disease and initiate management. Therefore, further investigations such as an MRI or PET scan should not be carried out in primary care, as this will be decided upon by the specialist. Treatment should also not be initiated in primary care, including the use of levodopa or a dopamine agonist. However, if Parkinson’s disease is suspected but the person is taking a drug known to induce parkinsonism, it may be appropriate to reduce or stop the drug in primary care. It is important to refer all people with suspected Parkinson’s disease urgently and untreated to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and exclusion of alternative diagnoses, without delaying assessment of the response.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with sudden monocular visual loss on the right, associated with pain behind the eye and alteration of colour vision. Examination the following day reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Optic Nerve Lesions: A Guide

      When a patient presents with impaired colour appreciation and a relative afferent pupillary defect, an acute optic nerve lesion is likely. In younger patients, optic neuritis due to demyelination is the most common cause. Fundoscopy may reveal a swollen optic nerve head in the acute stage. Hemianopic visual disturbance is more commonly seen in cerebral infarction, while optic nerve glioma typically presents over a longer period with proptosis. Migraine can cause transient monocular visual disturbances, often accompanied by headache. Temporal arteritis is rare in patients under 50.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A 25-year-old female presents to the outpatient department's first seizure clinic. Her EEG...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the outpatient department's first seizure clinic. Her EEG and MRI brain results are normal, and it is decided not to initiate anti-epileptic medication. What driving limitations should she be advised of?

      Your Answer: No restrictions, no need to inform DVLA if not on medication

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 6 months from date of seizure

      Explanation:

      If a patient has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure and their brain imaging and EEG results are normal, they are not allowed to drive for a period of 6 months.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room with a high fever. He has a history of febrile seizures. During the examination, he begins to have a seizure. The medical team quickly moves him to the treatment room and administers oxygen. However, after 5 minutes, the seizure persists. Unfortunately, there is no buccal midazolam available. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Check a blood sugar whilst she is fitting

      Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Acute Management of Seizures

      Seizures can be a frightening experience for both the patient and those around them. While most seizures will stop on their own, prolonged seizures can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage seizures in an acute setting.

      The first step in managing a seizure is to check the patient’s airway and provide oxygen if necessary. It is also important to place the patient in the recovery position to prevent choking or aspiration. If the seizure is prolonged, benzodiazepines may be necessary.

      Rectal diazepam is a recommended option for managing prolonged seizures. The dose will vary depending on the patient’s age and weight. The BNF recommends repeating the dose once after 10-15 minutes if necessary.

      Another option is midazolam oromucosal solution, which can be administered based on the patient’s age and weight. It is important to note that this medication is unlicensed for use in neonates and for some age groups.

      In summary, the acute management of seizures involves ensuring the patient’s airway is clear, placing them in the recovery position, and administering benzodiazepines if necessary. Rectal diazepam and midazolam oromucosal solution are two options for managing prolonged seizures, but dosages will vary based on the patient’s age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. She had a right mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computed tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging brain (MRI) and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis are normal.
      What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s ataxia?

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Correct Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, cerebellum metastasis, malignant meningitis, and multiple sclerosis are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with ataxia and no classical risk factors for Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is a rare complication of a carcinoma, mediated by antibodies that attack similar proteins on Purkinje cells in the cerebellum. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, usually associated with chronic alcoholism, and has the classic triad of symptoms of mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellum metastasis and malignant meningitis are more likely if there are positive radiological and cytological findings, respectively. Multiple sclerosis is also in the differential diagnosis, but typically shows MRI lesions and CSF abnormalities. A comprehensive evaluation, including a detailed history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies, is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - You assess a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and epilepsy. The patient's seizure control has deteriorated lately. Which of the following medications is most likely to exacerbate seizure control?

      Your Answer: Carbocisteine

      Correct Answer: Aminophylline

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Epilepsy

      Prescribing medications to patients with epilepsy requires careful consideration as some drugs may worsen seizure control. Alcohol, cocaine, and amphetamines are known to have negative effects on seizure control. Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, as well as aminophylline and theophylline, should also be avoided. Bupropion, methylphenidate (used in ADHD), and mefenamic acid are other medications that may worsen seizure control.

      It is important to note that some medications, such as benzodiazepines, baclofen, and hydroxyzine, may provoke seizures during withdrawal. Additionally, certain medications may interfere with the metabolism of anti-epileptic drugs, which can worsen seizure control. These medications are known as P450 inducers/inhibitors.

      Prescribers should carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with epilepsy. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team is essential to ensure optimal seizure control and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. Symptoms have appeared over 18 months. He also reports urinary incontinence. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Progressive supranuclear palsy

      Correct Answer: Multi system atrophy

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative Disorders: Differentiating Multiple System Atrophy, Progressive Supranuclear Palsy, Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration, Multiple Sclerosis, and Parkinson’s Disease

      Neurodegenerative disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. Here are some key features to distinguish between multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal ganglionic degeneration, multiple sclerosis, and Parkinson’s disease.

      Multiple System Atrophy: This rapidly progressive disease affects multiple systems and presents with akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs, urinary dysfunction, and autonomic features. No treatment can halt progression, and the mean survival is 6-9 years.

      Progressive Supranuclear Palsy: This disorder affects cognition, eye movements, and posture, resembling multi-system atrophy. However, cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction is not a feature.

      Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration: This rare disease involves the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, causing movement and cognitive dysfunction. Signs of apraxia, alien-limb phenomena, cortical sensory loss, and cortical reflex myoclonus can help distinguish it from multi-system atrophy.

      Multiple Sclerosis: This disease presents with symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.

      Parkinson’s Disease: Parkinsonian symptoms can occur in multi-system atrophy, but rapid progression, autonomic features, rigidity, and poor response to levodopa can help differentiate it from Parkinson’s disease.

      In summary, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical features can aid in distinguishing between these neurodegenerative disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.

      Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?

      Your Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient has been attending a nurse-led epilepsy clinic to monitor the withdrawal of her epilepsy medication. She is a group 1 driver and has been free from seizures for over a year whilst taking medication and investigations have not revealed any underlying causes for ongoing seizures.
      During the process of withdrawal, for how long should she avoid driving?

      Your Answer: Until 6 months have elapsed since last seizure, irrespective of medication status

      Correct Answer: Whilst anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for 12 months after the last dose

      Explanation:

      Driving and Epilepsy Medication

      Individuals who are taking anti-epilepsy medication should not drive while the medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose. If a seizure occurs due to a physician-directed reduction or change in medication, the epilepsy regulations require that the driver’s license be revoked for 12 months. However, if the previously effective medication is reinstated for at least six months and the driver remains seizure-free for at least six months, earlier relicensing may be considered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue analgesics + start propranolol

      Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pins and needles in his feet, along with back pain, three weeks after experiencing gastroenteritis. He has also noticed a gradual increase in weakness in his legs over the past three days. During the examination, the doctor observes absent ankle tendon and patellar tendon reflexes, while bicep tendon reflexes are normal. The plantar response flexor is reduced, but sensation in his feet is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)

      Explanation:

      Neurological Disorders: Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Spinal Cord Compression, CIDP, MS, and MG

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a group of syndromes that cause acute inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathies, resulting in muscle weakness, diminished reflexes, and paraesthesia. It is often preceded by a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection. GBS can cause ascending paralysis, which may involve the cranial nerves and lead to respiratory failure. While most patients recover, some may experience persistent motor sequelae.

      Spinal cord compression is characterized by upper motor neuron signs below the level of the compression. However, the absence of reflexes and flexor plantar response in a patient doesn’t support this diagnosis.

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP) is an immune-mediated inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nervous system. Patients with CIDP present with muscle weakness, numbness, tingling, pain, and difficulty walking. They may also experience fainting while standing or burning pain in the extremities.

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that commonly follows a relapsing, remitting course. It can cause a variety of symptoms and signs of motor, sensory, and autonomic origin. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of lesions typical of MS, as well as the exclusion of other possible explanations for clinical features.

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder that causes muscle weakness, which typically fluctuates in severity and is characterized by fatigue. Unlike GBS, it doesn’t present in an acute manner, and no sensory signs are seen in MG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old teacher suddenly lost her memory after walking her dog. Her husband noticed that she still knew the names of close friends, but she was disorientated in time and place, and seemed perplexed. She could follow complex commands, but was unable to recall something she had been told 5 minutes before. The episode resolved after 10 hours, although she did not remember the event. She has a history of migraine, but the episode of memory loss was not associated with headache.
      What is the most probable clinical diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Global hypoxia after arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient Global Amnesia: Symptoms, Causes, and Differential Diagnosis

      Transient Global Amnesia (TGA) is a sudden onset condition that profoundly impairs anterograde memory. Patients are disoriented in time and place, but not in person. Retrograde memory is variably disturbed, lasting for hours to years. Patients recognize their memory deficits and repeatedly ask questions to orient themselves. Immediate and procedural memory are preserved, and patients can perform complex tasks. The attack resolves gradually, with subjective recovery occurring in two-thirds of patients within 2-12 hours. Precipitating events include strenuous exercise, intense emotion, and medical procedures. Differential diagnosis includes migraine, transient epileptic amnesia, and transient ischemic attack (TIA).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 28-year-old woman, who works as a croupier and is typically in good...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman, who works as a croupier and is typically in good health, woke up 3 weeks ago with weakness in her left hand. She experienced numbness at the base of the thumb on the dorsum of the hand. She takes the oral contraceptive pill. She drinks alcohol in binges, one of which occurred the night before her symptoms started, and smokes 15 cigarettes per day. She has a normal general examination, normal cranial nerves and normal muscle tone, but mild weakness of the left brachioradialis and moderate weakness of wrist and finger extension. She has full power in her other arm muscles, including elbow extension. Reflexes are normal.
      What is the most likely lesion causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve at the spiral groove

      Explanation:

      Understanding Saturday Night Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Differential Diagnosis

      Saturday night palsy is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is compressed at the spiral groove of the humerus, usually due to falling asleep with one’s arm hanging over the armrest of a chair. This compression causes weakness in radial-innervated muscles distal to the site of the lesion and sensory loss due to conduction block in the radial nerve. While not all radial-innervated muscles may be affected, a history of abnormal sleeping or stupor the night before is often reported.

      When diagnosing Saturday night palsy, it’s important to consider other potential causes of weakness and sensory disturbance. A cerebral infarction is a possible differential, but the focal pattern of weakness and sensory disturbance and normal reflex pattern make this less likely. The ulnar nerve supplies different muscles and sensory territory, while a posterior interosseous nerve lesion is unlikely due to involvement of muscles outside its territory. A C7 radiculopathy is also unlikely because the triceps was not involved and the brachioradialis (C5, 6) was affected.

      In summary, understanding the causes, symptoms, and differential diagnosis of Saturday night palsy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who is presenting with migraine-like headaches but no accompanying aura. What is the estimated percentage of individuals with migraine who experience aura?

      Your Answer: 40%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a left-sided foot drop...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a left-sided foot drop that has been there for the last four weeks. He has noted slight tingling on the dorsum of his foot. Recently, his knee has been bandaged for support after a fall led to recurrent knee pain on walking. The foot drop has substantially improved over the last two weeks since the removal of the bandage.
      He has mild weakness of his left ankle dorsiflexors and evertors and moderate weakness of the extensor hallucis and extensor digitorum; other movements, including ankle inversion and hip abduction, are normal. Reflexes are normal. There is sensory loss on the dorsum of the foot from the base of the hallux to the ankle.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sciatic nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal palsy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Common Peroneal Palsy

      A left-sided common peroneal nerve lesion is likely in a patient who has experienced external compression of the nerve at the fibular head from a tight knee bandage. This condition is characterized by weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, with normal plantar flexion and inversion, which distinguishes it from an L5 lesion. The degree of weakness and the onset of recovery suggest that the common peroneal palsy will improve in the coming weeks and months.

      Motor neurone disease can be ruled out in this patient due to the absence of sensory disturbance. Ischaemic stroke is a possibility, but the lack of upper motor neurone signs makes it less likely. L5 radiculopathy is unlikely as ankle inversion and hip abduction are preserved, and there may be back pain radiating down the leg. Sciatic nerve palsy is also possible, but there is no history of nerve damage or entrapment, and the tibial nerve is not affected. The patient’s history of compression at the fibular head supports the diagnosis of common peroneal palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.4
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of numbness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of numbness and tingling in his left hand. He is a right-handed construction site manager and denies any history of trauma. This is the first time he has experienced such symptoms.

      The patient reports that the numbness and tingling wake him up at night and are primarily felt in his 4th and 5th fingers. Upon examination, there are no observable neurological deficits, but Tinel's sign is positive.

      The GP suggests a splint and refers the patient to physiotherapy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medial epicondyle fracture

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is the correct answer as it is caused by compression of the ulnar nerve and can result in tingling or numbness of the 4th and 5th fingers. Tinel’s sign, which involves tapping on the affected nerve to reproduce symptoms, is often positive. Brachial plexus injury is not a likely cause as the question specifies that the issue is atraumatic and the neurological examination is normal. Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, which provides sensation to the first, second, and part of the third digit, but Tinel’s sign can also be used to check the ulnar nerve. Medial epicondyle fracture may cause similar symptoms due to the path of the ulnar nerve, but it is unlikely as there is no history of trauma.

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off as intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, but nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In resistant cases, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents following a fall. She reports pain and weakness in her hands for several months, stiff legs and slurred speech and has bilateral wasting of the small muscles of her hands. Reflexes in the upper limbs are absent. Tongue atrophy and fasciculations are present and both legs show increased tone, pyramidal weakness and hyper-reflexia with extensor plantars. Pain and temperature sensation is impaired in the upper limbs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Syringobulbia

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing signs of a spinal cord lesion, with LMN signs in the arms and UMN signs in the legs. There is also a loss of thermal and pain sensation, indicating involvement of the spinothalamic tracts but not the posterior columns. This is typical of a syrinx, which is a fluid-filled hole in the spinal cord. The patient is experiencing dysesthetic pain in the hands, which is a common symptom of syringomyelia/syringobulbia. The presence of twelfth nerve atrophy and slurred speech indicates that the lesion extends into the brainstem, ruling out syringomyelia. Cervical spondylosis can produce similar symptoms, but there should also be neck pain. Motor neurone disease is unlikely due to the sensory involvement, and multiple sclerosis is not a likely explanation given the other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.5
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - You assess a 28-year-old female patient who reports experiencing frequent migranous headaches that...

    Correct

    • You assess a 28-year-old female patient who reports experiencing frequent migranous headaches that occur only during her menstrual cycle. She has previously attempted propranolol prophylaxis but discontinued it due to adverse effects. Additionally, mefenamic acid and naproxen have not provided relief. Which preventative approach should be considered?

      Your Answer: Zolmitriptan bd during menstruation

      Explanation:

      Triptans can serve as a form of preventive treatment for menstrual migraines, known as mini-prophylaxis.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.6
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Which one of the following statements regarding absence seizures is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding absence seizures is incorrect?

      Your Answer: There is a good prognosis

      Correct Answer: Seizures may be provoked by a child holding their breath

      Explanation:

      Hyperventilation is a typical trigger for seizures.

      Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.

      The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      1.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (35/200) 18%
Passmed