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  • Question 1 - What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the food with the lowest glycaemic index (GI) rating among the following options?

      Your Answer: Lentils

      Correct Answer: Baked potato

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glycaemic Index and Diabetic Diets

      The glycaemic index (GI) measures the rate at which carbohydrates are absorbed in the body. Low GI foods have been shown to reduce appetite, aid in weight control, and lower cholesterol levels. However, feedback from the last MRCGP examination revealed a lack of knowledge regarding diabetic diets. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a basic understanding of dietary advice to provide their patients with proper guidance. Exam questions may focus on major food groups and principles rather than specific details. To prepare for such questions, it is recommended to read the BDA reference for a broad overview of the main principles, including glycaemic index. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide general advice and answer any related questions that may arise during an exam.

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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the surgery complaining of a productive cough. Upon examination, he has a fever and bronchial breathing in the right lower zone. The working diagnosis is pneumonia and amoxicillin is prescribed with a chest x-ray scheduled for the following day. The patient has a medical history of Addison's disease and takes hydrocortisone (20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon). What is the best course of action regarding his steroid dosage?

      Your Answer: Halve hydrocortisone to 10 mg mornings and 5mg afternoon

      Correct Answer: Double hydrocortisone to 40 mg mornings and 20 mg afternoon

      Explanation:

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 3 - A 64-year-old man is being seen in a diabetes clinic due to poor...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man is being seen in a diabetes clinic due to poor glycaemic control despite weight loss, adherence to a diabetic diet, and current diabetes medications. He has no significant medical history. What medication could be prescribed to increase his insulin sensitivity?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Glitazones act as PPAR-gamma receptor agonists, which helps to decrease insulin resistance in the periphery.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:

      - Urinalysis NAD
      - HbA1c 69 mmol/mol

      The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.

      Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus

      Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.

      HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.

      The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.

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  • Question 5 - A 41-year-old man has come to see you for the results of his...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old man has come to see you for the results of his recent lipid tests. A first cousin recently had a myocardial infarction aged 36 and his aunt has advised the family to get a cholesterol check.

      With a family history of premature coronary artery disease, above what total cholesterol level would you consider and investigate for familial hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer: 7.5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines on Lipid Modification

      According to the NICE guidelines on lipid modification (CG181), it is important to consider the possibility of familial hypercholesterolaemia in patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L and a family history of premature coronary heart disease. In such cases, investigation is necessary to determine the presence of the condition.

      For patients with a total cholesterol concentration of more than 9.0 mmol/L or a non-HDL cholesterol concentration of more than 7.5 mmol/L, specialist assessment is recommended even in the absence of a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease. This is important to ensure appropriate management and treatment of high cholesterol levels, which can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help healthcare professionals identify and manage patients with high cholesterol levels, reducing the risk of serious health complications.

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  • Question 6 - Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting...

    Incorrect

    • Ben is a 56-year-old who has been diagnosed with diabetes and is requesting a 'Medical exemption certificate'. What form should you fill out?

      Your Answer: GMS1

      Correct Answer: FP92A

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the FP92A form, which is a medical exemption certificate that can be claimed to entitle a patient to free prescriptions. This form can be claimed if a patient has certain conditions, such as a permanent fistula or diabetes mellitus.

      The FP57 form is an NHS receipt for payment of a prescription, which can be used to claim money back later. The GMS1 form is completed by new patients when registering with a GP surgery. The DS1500 form is completed by a doctor for patients with a terminal illness, allowing them to apply for certain benefits.

      Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?

      In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.

      Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.

      Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.

      For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.

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  • Question 7 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a patient with erectile dysfunction who has a reduced morning serum total testosterone level?

      Your Answer: Repeat serum total testosterone along with FSH, LH and prolactin

      Correct Answer: No action

      Explanation:

      Testing for Reduced Serum Testosterone

      Patients who exhibit symptoms of reduced serum testosterone should undergo a repeat test, preferably in the morning, along with FSH, LH, and prolactin. This helps determine which part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis is affected. It is crucial to take action as the patient may have an underlying endocrinological cause. If the repeat test shows abnormal results, referral to a secondary care physician is necessary. The physician may then consider treatments such as testogel or nebido.

      In summary, testing for reduced serum testosterone is essential in diagnosing and treating patients with symptoms of low testosterone levels. A repeat test, along with other hormone tests, can help identify the root cause of the problem and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on amiodarone treatment...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with chronic atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on amiodarone treatment develops thyrotoxicosis. What is the most suitable initial management option to alleviate his symptoms? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Anti-thyroid drugs

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Amiodarone-Induced Thyrotoxicosis

      Amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) is a potential complication in patients undergoing amiodarone treatment, with an incidence ranging from 2-12%. There are two types of AIT, type 1 and type 2, each with different underlying causes. While discontinuing amiodarone is necessary, it may not be enough to control the thyrotoxic state quickly. Here are the treatment options for AIT:

      Anti-thyroid drugs: These are the first-line treatment for AIT. High doses of carbimazole or methimazole (40-60 mg/day) or propylthiouracil (100-150 mg qid) are required initially.

      Lugol’s iodine: This solution of potassium iodide and iodine in water is used to treat thyrotoxicosis until surgery can be carried out.

      Corticosteroids: High-dose corticosteroids may be useful if thyrotoxicosis is not controlled or if exacerbation occurs. They inhibit 5′-deiodinase activity and perhaps also affect the gland directly.

      Radioiodine: Radioactive iodine is frequently not effective because the often prevailing high iodide concentration in patients’ thyroids prevents sufficient thyroidal uptake of the radioisotope.

      Surgery: Although it is an effective form of treatment, with euthyroidism being restored within a matter of days, it is not a first-line option.

      In conclusion, AIT requires prompt treatment to control the thyrotoxic state. Anti-thyroid drugs are the first-line treatment, while other options such as Lugol’s iodine, corticosteroids, radioiodine, and surgery may be considered depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Despite regularly...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Despite regularly missing her hospital diabetes appointments, her HbA1c control is currently within target. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Every 3 - 6 months

      Explanation:

      The HbA1c should be assessed every 3-6 months in individuals with type 1 diabetes.

      Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines

      The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.

      One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.

      When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.

      Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman is undergoing a routine health assessment. She admits to consuming...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is undergoing a routine health assessment. She admits to consuming at least 5 standard alcoholic drinks each weekday evening and even more on the weekend. The risks of this intake are discussed with her and a plan is made to reduce her intake.

      Which of the following actions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral thiamine

      Explanation:

      Patients who regularly consume excessive amounts of alcohol should be prescribed thiamine to prevent the onset of Wernicke’s syndrome, which can lead to irreversible Korsakoff psychosis. Admission is not necessary unless the patient is experiencing significant withdrawal symptoms. An intramuscular multivitamin is not appropriate, as oral thiamine is less invasive and effective. Oral multivitamins are also not recommended, as they may not contain enough thiamine. Vitamin B co-strong is no longer recommended for alcohol-consuming patients, as it doesn’t provide sufficient thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s syndrome.

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

    His glycaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is seen at annual review.

      His glycaemic control is suboptimal on diet alone and his most recent HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-46).

      You elect to treat him with metformin 500 mg bd.

      As per NICE NG28 guidance on the management of diabetes, what would be the most suitable interval to re-evaluate his HbA1c after each treatment intensification?

      Your Answer: Three to six months

      Correct Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Understanding HbA1c as a Tool for Glycaemic Control

      The glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the glycosylation of the haemoglobin molecule by glucose. This measurement is widely used in clinical practice to assess glycaemic control, as there is a strong correlation between the glycosylation of HbA1c and average plasma glucose concentrations. Additionally, studies have shown that HbA1c has prognostic significance in both microvascular and macrovascular risk.

      The lifespan of a red blood cell is approximately 120 days, and HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels during the half-life of the red cell, which is about 60 days. According to NICE guidelines, HbA1c should be re-checked at 3/6 monthly intervals with each treatment intensification. Understanding HbA1c as a tool for glycaemic control is crucial for managing diabetes effectively.

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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old woman has developed uniform mild enlargement of the thyroid gland associated...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has developed uniform mild enlargement of the thyroid gland associated with some pain and tenderness. She has high titres of anti-thyroid peroxidase and also anti-thyroglobulin antibodies. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is in the normal range.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: An Autoimmune Disease

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a prevalent autoimmune disease that is the leading cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in non-iodine-deficient areas. This disease is often underdiagnosed and is more common in women, typically occurring between the ages of 30 and 50 years. The immune system attacks and destroys thyroid cells, leading to hypothyroidism symptoms and signs that may develop over several years.

      To diagnose Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, doctors may test for three types of thyroid autoantibodies: thyroid peroxidase antibody, thyroglobulin antibody, and TSH-receptor antibody. The presence of thyroid peroxidase antibody is a strong indicator of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, as it is found in 95% of cases.

      It is essential to differentiate Hashimoto’s thyroiditis from other thyroid conditions, such as idiopathic hypothyroidism, Graves’ disease, non-toxic goitre, and thyroid carcinoma. Idiopathic hypothyroidism is incorrect as it presents no features of hypothyroidism, and the TSH level would be elevated in hypothyroidism. Graves’ disease is incorrect as it presents symptoms of hyperthyroidism, and the TSH level would be reduced. Non-toxic goitre is incorrect as it is usually asymptomatic, and thyroid function is normal. Thyroid carcinoma is incorrect as it presents as a thyroid nodule, and any unexplained thyroid lump should be referred urgently.

      In conclusion, understanding Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. If you suspect you may have this autoimmune disease, consult with your healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man presents to you after being seen at the TIA clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to you after being seen at the TIA clinic and initiated on clopidogrel and atorvastatin. He is currently taking the following repeat medications:
      - Ramipril
      - Metformin
      - Omeprazole
      - Amlodipine
      - Gliclazide

      Are there any of his current medications that you should consider switching to an alternative due to potential drug interactions?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.

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  • Question 14 - You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with...

    Correct

    • You are conducting an annual health review for a 59-year-old male patient with hypertension and diet-controlled diabetes. His blood tests reveal an HbA1c level of 50 mmol/mol. What is the target HbA1c level you are aiming for in this patient?

      Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The recommended HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. To achieve and maintain this target, patients should be provided with diet and lifestyle advice.

      For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managing their condition through lifestyle and diet or a single drug that doesn’t cause hypoglycemia, the goal should be to reach an HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol.

      If HbA1c levels are not adequately controlled by a single drug and rise to 58 mmol/mol or higher, NICE guidelines recommend reinforcing advice on diet, lifestyle, and adherence to drug treatment. The person should aim for an HbA1c level of 53 mmol/mol and drug treatment should be intensified.

      For adults taking a drug that causes hypoglycemia, the target HbA1c level should be 53 mmol/mol.

      If individuals with type 2 diabetes achieve an HbA1c level lower than their target and are not experiencing hypoglycemia, they should be encouraged to maintain it.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
    At annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
      At annual review her blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, pulse 78, fundi reveal background diabetic retinopathy, foot pulses are normal but she has evidence of a peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet.
      Her results show:
      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
      7.2% (3.8-6.4)
      Urea 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      eGFR 29 mL/min/1.73m2 Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following medicines should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Caution with Metformin and Ramipril in Chronic Renal Impairment

      This patient shows signs of chronic renal impairment with elevated creatinine and urea levels. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) advises against the use of metformin if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30mL/min/1.73m2. This is due to the potential risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis, which has a reported prevalence of one to five cases per 100,000 and a mortality rate of up to 50%.

      Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged with decreased renal clearance in proportion to any decrease in creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, and intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents, all of which can alter renal function. Tissue hypoxia also plays a significant role, and acute or chronic conditions that may predispose to this condition, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, may act as triggers.

      In the case of Ramipril, the BNF advises a maximum daily dose of 5 mg if the eGFR is between 30-60 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and a maximum initial dose of 1.25 mg once daily (not exceeding 5 mg daily) if the eGFR is less than 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. There are no such limitations with amlodipine, bisoprolol, or gliclazide. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications in patients with chronic renal impairment and to follow the BNF guidelines to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old male with a ten year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a ten year history of type 2 diabetes is being treated with metformin 1 g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily.

      He is obese, has gained weight over the last year and his HbA1c has deteriorated from 59 to 64 mmol/mol (20-42). He is being considered for treatment with either insulin or pioglitazone.

      The patient wants to know the side effects of pioglitazone.

      What is considered a typical side effect of pioglitazone therapy?

      Your Answer: Fluid retention

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Diabetes Medications

      Pioglitazone, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, may cause fluid retention in up to 10% of patients. This side effect can be worsened when taken with other drugs that also cause fluid retention, such as NSAIDs and calcium antagonists. In addition to fluid retention, pioglitazone can also cause weight gain due to fat accumulation. However, it is important to note that pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with cardiac failure.

      Metformin, another commonly prescribed diabetes medication, can cause lactic acidosis as a side effect. This is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention.

      Some sulphonylureas, a class of medications used to stimulate insulin production, may cause a photosensitivity rash in some patients. This rash can be uncomfortable and may require treatment.

      Finally, statins and fibrates, medications used to lower cholesterol levels, are associated with myositis, a condition that causes muscle inflammation and weakness. This side effect is rare but can be serious.

      It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking diabetes medications and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of thirst and polyuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of thirst and polyuria of recent onset. He is a software engineer with an irregular daily routine.
      On examination, his body mass index (BMI) is 24 kg/m2 and he is not aware of any weight loss. A random blood sugar is 15.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.9–7.1 mmol/l). He has glycosuria but no ketonuria.
      A diagnosis of type I diabetes is suspected. He is referred to the diabetes specialist team for immediate review that day.
      What is the most likely treatment option this patient will be discharged on?

      Your Answer: A basal insulin regimen

      Correct Answer: A basal-bolus insulin regimen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Insulin Regimens for Type I Diabetes

      When a patient is diagnosed with type I diabetes, it is crucial to refer them to a diabetes specialist team for immediate care. One of the recommended treatment regimens is the basal-bolus insulin regimen, which involves taking a longer-acting insulin to stabilize blood glucose levels during fasting periods (basal regimen) and separate injections of shorter-acting insulin to prevent post-meal blood sugar spikes (bolus regimen). This is the preferred treatment according to NICE guidelines.

      A bolus insulin regimen involves monitoring blood sugar levels multiple times a day and administering insulin in response to rises in blood sugar. However, this is not recommended for newly diagnosed type I diabetes. A basal insulin regimen involves taking a long-acting basal insulin injection at regular intervals, but with no additional insulin to compensate for postprandial blood sugar spikes. This may be appropriate for severe insulin resistance in poorly managed type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes.

      Oral hypoglycemic agents are used in the management of type II diabetes, but not for type I diabetes, which requires insulin. A twice-daily mixed insulin regimen may be suitable for those with a regular daily routine that includes three main meals at similar times each day. However, NICE guidance recommends against non-basal-bolus insulin regimens for adults with newly diagnosed type I diabetes. This patient, a student with an irregular daily routine, would not be suitable for a twice-daily mixed insulin regimen.

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  • Question 18 - A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for 2 years and they have undergone clinical evaluation. While his partner's assessment is normal, he has been diagnosed with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.

      What are the possible causes of this condition?

      Your Answer: Mumps Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often nonspecific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

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  • Question 19 - You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.

      The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
      - Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer: DESMOND training

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.

      Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department with complaints of double vision. Upon examination, she displays exophthalmos and conjunctival oedema, leading to a suspicion of thyroid eye disease. What can be inferred about her thyroid condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroid

      Correct Answer: Eu-, hypo- or hyperthyroid

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease is often linked to hyperthyroidism from Graves’ disease, but it can also occur in euthyroid or hypothyroid patients. The severity of the eye disease is not necessarily related to the level of thyrotoxicosis.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.

      What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?

      Your Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose

      Explanation:

      Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports decreased hypoglycemic awareness following his recent hospital discharge. He was started on several new medications during his admission. Which medication is the most probable cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is brought to the clinic by his spouse for exhibiting strange behavior and acute confusion during questioning. He was recently initiated on insulin therapy for his diabetes. Upon assessment, the following vital signs were obtained:

      - Blood pressure: 145/87 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 110 beats per minute
      - Temperature: 37.2ºC
      - Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths per minute
      - Capillary blood sugar level: 2.1 mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular glucagon

      Correct Answer: Oral glucose gel

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycaemia in a conscious patient who is able to swallow is a fast-acting carbohydrate in the form of glucose liquids, tablets, or gels. In this case, the patient is conscious and able to swallow, so an oral glucose gel is the best option to quickly increase their blood glucose level.

      Administering intramuscular glucagon is not necessary in this situation as the patient is conscious and able to take oral glucose. However, if the patient becomes combative and unable to take any oral glucose, intramuscular glucagon may be considered.

      Intravenous administration is not a recommended route for glucagon and is therefore not a suitable option.

      Intravenous glucose is not necessary for this patient as they are conscious and able to take glucose orally. It may be considered in a hospital setting for patients who are unable to take glucose orally.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 24 - A 90-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening....

    Incorrect

    • A 90-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).

      TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L, while free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently asymptomatic and in good health. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Order a thyroid ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.

      The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.

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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is undergoing a routine health check with his family doctor. He reports feeling less active than he used to but has no other specific complaints and is not taking any regular medication. Biochemical tests reveal the following results: serum alkaline phosphatase of 550 U/l (normal range: 44-147 U/l), serum creatinine concentration of 132 µmol/l (normal range: 60-120 µmol/l), calcium of 2.42 mmol/l (normal range: 2.25-2.5 mmol/l), phosphate of 1.21 mmol/l (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), and albumin of 41 g/l (normal range: 35-50 g/l). What is the most likely cause of the high alkaline phosphatase?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Elevated Serum Alkaline Phosphatase Activity in Bone Diseases

      Elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity is a common finding in bone diseases that involve increased osteoblastic activity. One such condition is Paget’s disease of bone, which is often seen in elderly patients and may not always present with symptoms. In contrast, osteomalacia typically presents with symptoms such as pain, proximal muscle weakness, or a general feeling of being unwell, and is characterized by low-normal or low serum calcium levels. Osteoporosis, on the other hand, doesn’t typically result in elevated alkaline phosphatase levels or abnormal serum biochemistry results. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by elevated levels of both alkaline phosphatase and calcium, is unlikely in patients with normal calcium levels. Finally, while renal osteodystrophy may be associated with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, the severity of renal impairment in this patient is not likely to be the cause of such a high level. In addition, serum phosphate levels are usually elevated and calcium levels are low in this condition. Overall, understanding the relationship between serum alkaline phosphatase activity and various bone diseases can help clinicians make accurate diagnoses and develop appropriate treatment plans.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of feeling tired and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to his GP with complaints of feeling tired and thirsty for the past week. He also reports experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain that started earlier today. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 99/71 mmHg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, temperature is 36.4ºC, and oxygen saturation is 98%. His chest is clear, and his abdomen is soft with mild generalised tenderness. What investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood glucose (BM)

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences abdominal pain, it could be an indication of diabetic ketoacidosis. If a young patient is showing signs of lethargy, thirst, vomiting, and abdominal pain, it is important to consider the possibility of DKA. It is crucial to check the patient’s blood glucose level immediately to confirm the diagnosis.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

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  • Question 27 - What is the universally recognized 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood level threshold that indicates vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • What is the universally recognized 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood level threshold that indicates vitamin D deficiency in adult patients, given a result of 37 nmol/L?

      Your Answer: < 50 nmol/L

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Levels

      Vitamin D is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health and overall well-being. A plasma concentration of 10 nmol/L is considered very low, and even levels higher than this may indicate a deficiency. The consensus is that levels below 25 nmol/L are deficient, but there is no standard definition of optimal levels. In the MRCGP exam, you will be tested on consensus opinion.

      Levels of 75 and 100 nmol/L are incorrect as they are higher than the currently defined threshold for deficiency. According to NICE CKS, a diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency is made if serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D (25[OH]D) levels are less than 25 nmol/L. Further investigations may be necessary to aid the diagnosis of vitamin D deficiency and to exclude differential diagnoses.

      Serum 25(OH)D levels in the range of 25-50 nmol/L may be inadequate for some people, while levels greater than 50 nmol/L are sufficient for most people. It is important to maintain adequate levels of vitamin D through a balanced diet and exposure to sunlight, as deficiency can lead to various health problems.

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  • Question 28 - What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the current criteria for diagnosing diabetes in an asymptomatic patient?

      Your Answer: A fasting venous plasma concentration of <6.9 can be ignored

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Diabetes: Understanding the Criteria

      Diagnosing diabetes is a common topic in the AKT exam, and it is important to understand the criteria for diagnosis. In an asymptomatic individual, a single sample alone is not sufficient for diagnosis. Instead, separate fasting samples must show above 7 mmol/L. The gold standard for diagnosis is still the oral glucose tolerance test (OGT), although fasting glucose can be used if an adequate fast is ensured.

      It is important to note that there are new categories of glycaemia, including impaired fasting glycaemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Impaired fasting glycaemia is defined as a fasting glucose level above 6.1 but below 6.9, while impaired glucose tolerance is defined as glucose levels of 7.8-11.1 mmol/L. Understanding these categories and their criteria is essential for accurately diagnosing diabetes.

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  • Question 29 - A 17-year-old boy presents with complaints of breast enlargement. Reviewing his medical history,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with complaints of breast enlargement. Reviewing his medical history, he had mild developmental delay during childhood.

      Upon examination, he is tall and slender, with bilateral gynaecomastia and inadequate secondary sexual development, including small testes.

      What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Testicular tumour

      Correct Answer: Hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects males, characterised by gynaecomastia, typical habitus, developmental delay and hypogonadism. The patient in this scenario is likely to have Klinefelter’s syndrome, as only hypogonadism would account for poor sexual development and undersized testes in combination with gynaecomastia.

      It is important to note that the exact diagnosis may not be immediately obvious, but understanding the symptoms and characteristics of Klinefelter’s syndrome can aid in identifying and treating the condition. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life for individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome.

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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of constant fatigue and muscle weakness for the past 4 months. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a healthy weight. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be consistently high at 160/95 mmHg. However, there are no other significant findings on physical examination. Her blood sugar levels are normal, but her potassium levels are low at 3.4 mmol/L. The GP suspects primary hyperaldosteronism and plans to refer the patient to secondary care. What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this case?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for suspected primary hyperaldosteronism is a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. A CT abdomen may be used to detect an adrenal adenoma, but it is not the first-line investigation. A dexamethasone suppression test is primarily used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome by observing cortisol level responses after dexamethasone injection. A short synacthen test is utilized to identify hypoadrenalism, such as Addison’s disease.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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  • Question 31 - What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: A 66-year-old fit and well asymptomatic gentleman with a fasting glucose of 6.6 mmol/L and a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol. A second HbA1c test a few weeks later also comes back as 48 mmol/mol

      Correct Answer: A 69-year-old asymptomatic gentleman who is otherwise well who has a one-off random glucose of 11.5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus

      In a patient showing symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, nocturia, and blurred vision, diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met: HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol, fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L, OGTT 2 hour value ≥11.1 mmol/L, or random glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L. However, in the absence of classic symptoms or hyperglycaemic crisis, the test(s) should be repeated to confirm the criteria are met before a diagnosis can be made.

      The correct answer to diagnose diabetes mellitus is a gentleman who has a raised fasting glucose. Although the fasting glucose on its own is not diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, it would have to be ≥7.0 mmol/L and confirmed on a repeat test. However, the HbA1c is compatible with the diagnosis, and a second HbA1c test confirms the diagnosis.

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  • Question 32 - A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits the diabetes clinic for his yearly check-up. He possesses a Group 1 driving licence and reports to his specialist that he experienced two episodes of hypoglycaemia, one four months ago and the other one month ago. Both incidents occurred while he was awake after consuming several alcoholic beverages and required assistance from his partner. However, he typically has full hypoglycaemia awareness and practices appropriate glucose monitoring before and during driving. Additionally, he has never experienced hypoglycaemia while driving. What advice should he receive regarding his driving?

      Your Answer: Increase frequency of blood glucose monitoring before and during driving

      Correct Answer: Inform DVLA and will need to surrender driving licence

      Explanation:

      A patient with diabetes who has experienced two severe hypoglycaemic episodes requiring assistance must surrender their driving licence and inform the DVLA. Insulin-treated individuals must meet specific criteria to be licensed, including adequate hypoglycaemia awareness, no more than one severe episode in the past 12 months, appropriate glucose monitoring, not being a risk to the public while driving, meeting visual standards, and undergoing regular review. Increasing blood glucose monitoring before and during driving or informing the DVLA for monitoring purposes will not permit the patient to resume driving. If the patient experiences another hypoglycaemic episode within the next two months, they must notify the DVLA, but they would not meet the criteria for licensing if they have had two severe episodes in the past 12 months.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 33 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
      - Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l

      Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin once every 3 months

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

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  • Question 34 - A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated for exenatide treatment. What is not included in the NICE guidelines for initiating or maintaining this medication?

      Your Answer: Greater than 1.0 percentage point HbA1c reduction after 6 months

      Correct Answer: Has failed with insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      Prior insulin use is not a requirement for patients to use exenatide.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 35 - A 48-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes is...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male with a three year history of type 2 diabetes is diagnosed with ischaemic heart disease and has recently commenced atorvastatin 80 mg daily, as his cholesterol was 6.2 mmol/L.

      He re-attends complaining of various muscle aches and pains and you find that his liver function tests are elevated from baseline. Pre-treatment ALT was 55 IU/L. Now his ALT is 90 IU/L. He asks whether his statin should be changed or stopped.

      What is the most appropriate next strategy to treat his hypercholesterolaemia?

      Your Answer: No change required

      Correct Answer: Bezafibrate

      Explanation:

      Managing Statin Intolerance in Patients with Ischaemic Heart Disease and Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      This patient has both ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus, making him a candidate for statin therapy due to his elevated cholesterol levels. However, he has experienced myalgia and raised liver function tests while taking atorvastatin at its maximum dose, indicating statin intolerance. NICE guidance recommends reducing the dose or trying an alternative statin in such cases. Fibrate and ezetimibe are not recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if statins are not tolerated at all.

      To minimize the risk of side effects, starting at a low dose and gradually titrating up can be helpful. Rosuvastatin and pravastatin may have a lower incidence of myalgia compared to other statins. If another statin is prescribed, cautious monitoring of liver function tests is necessary. Patients with a history of statin-related hepatitis or rhabdomyolysis should generally avoid statins in the future if possible.

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  • Question 36 - A 26-year-old woman with type I diabetes contacts the clinic for telephone guidance....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with type I diabetes contacts the clinic for telephone guidance. She has been a diabetic since the age of 12 and is currently on a basal bolus insulin regimen, taking a total of 55 units per day.

      She reports experiencing a flu-like illness with symptoms such as fever, myalgia, cough, and slightly looser stools. These symptoms began yesterday, and she feels generally unwell. Although she is not vomiting, she is able to drink adequate amounts of fluids and has been snacking on regular carbohydrates as a substitute for meals.

      The reason for her call is that her latest blood glucose reading is 18 mmol/L, which is higher than her usual single-digit readings. Additionally, she has checked her blood ketone level, which is 2.5mmol/L.

      What is the most appropriate advice to provide in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Give an additional 10 units of rapid-acting insulin every 4 hours and continue to retest blood glucose and ketone levels every 4 hours. If blood glucose is greater than 13 mmol/L or blood ketones are greater than 1.5 mmol/L she should recontact the surgery or advice

      Correct Answer: Reduce each insulin dose of rapid-acting insulin by 5 units and continue to retest blood glucose and ketone levels every 4 hours. If blood glucose is greater than 20 mmol/L or blood ketones are greater than 3.0 mmol/L she should recontact the surgery or advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Insulin Use in Unwell Diabetic Patients

      When it comes to managing diabetic patients taking insulin, Diabetes Specialist Nurses (DSNs) play a crucial role. However, as a healthcare professional, you may not always have exposure to this type of clinical problem, which can lead to de-skilling. Additionally, the Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has identified this area as a particular weakness in past AKT exams, making it important to stay up-to-date on the topic.

      One key aspect of counselling diabetic patients who have started insulin is knowing what to do if they become unwell. For type I diabetics, it is essential to check their blood glucose and ketone levels regularly, at least every 4 hours. If the blood glucose level is less than 13 mmol/L and there are no ketones present in the urine (or ketone levels are less than 1.5 mmol/L on blood ketone testing), then insulin should be taken as normal. However, if the blood glucose level is greater than 13 mmol/L and urinary ketones are present (or blood ketone level greater than 1.5mmol/L), then insulin adjustment is necessary. In such cases, the patient requires an additional 10% of their daily insulin dose as rapid-acting insulin every 4 hours, followed by 4-hourly glucose and ketone monitoring to guide ongoing management.

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  • Question 37 - A 72-year-old man takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At his annual...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At his annual check-up he reports that he is feeling well. Among the results of his blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (normal range 2.05-2.60 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.75 mmol/l (normal range 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), alkaline phosphatase 215 IU/l (normal range 30-200 IU/l).
      Select from the list the single most likely explanation of these results.

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism as a Cause of Hypercalcaemia

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common endocrine disorder, particularly in postmenopausal women. It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally through blood tests. The excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is typically caused by a single adenoma, multi-gland adenoma, or hyperplasia. Surgical removal of the adenoma is the most effective cure, but medical management is possible for mild cases. Malignancy, Paget’s disease of bone, and certain medications can also cause hypercalcaemia, but these can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and symptoms. Other endocrine causes, such as thyrotoxicosis and Addison’s disease, would typically present with additional symptoms.

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  • Question 38 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 39 - A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her BMI is 36. She expresses a strong desire to lose weight and has attempted various diets in the past. You decide to prescribe orlistat and advise her on the minimum amount of weight loss she must achieve in the initial three months to continue receiving the medication. What is the minimum weight loss required in the first three months of taking orlistat to maintain the prescription?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Weight Loss Requirement for Prescription Continuation

      To continue prescribing, a weight loss of at least 5% is necessary within the first three months. This means that patients must lose a certain amount of weight within the initial period of treatment to ensure that the medication is effective and safe for long-term use. It is important for patients to adhere to a healthy diet and exercise regimen to achieve this weight loss goal. Failure to meet this requirement may result in the discontinuation of the prescription.

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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular periods and abnormal thyroid function tests. All...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular periods and abnormal thyroid function tests. All other blood tests are normal, and she is not pregnant or planning to conceive. Her vital observations and neck examination are unremarkable, and she takes no regular medication. Pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Thyroid tests are repeated 3 months later, revealing a positive result for thyroid peroxidase antibodies. What is the optimal course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Offer a 6-month trial of levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L indicating subclinical hypothyroidism, it is recommended to conduct two separate tests with a 3-month interval. If the TSH level remains at the same level, a 6-month trial of thyroxine should be offered.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men and those with thyroid autoantibodies.

      The management of subclinical hypothyroidism depends on the TSH levels and the presence of symptoms. According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients with a TSH level greater than 10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels should be considered for levothyroxine treatment. For those with a TSH level between 5.5-10mU/L and normal free thyroxine levels, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be offered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms. However, for older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients should have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent it from progressing to overt hypothyroidism. The decision to treat or not depends on the patient’s age, symptoms, and TSH levels.

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  • Question 41 - A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which medication she is taking is most likely to have played a role in causing her osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Reduced bone mineral density is linked to the prolonged use of proton pump inhibitors.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer

      Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.

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  • Question 43 - A 48-year-old woman undergoes fasting blood tests for hypertension evaluation. The results show...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman undergoes fasting blood tests for hypertension evaluation. The results show a fasting glucose level of 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated, and the result is 6.7 mmol/l. She reports feeling constantly fatigued but denies experiencing polyuria or polydipsia. What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Suggestive of diabetes mellitus but not diagnostic

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 44 - A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman registers as a new patient. She says she is well and has no symptoms. As she is approaching 50 and overweight, you arrange for routine blood tests, including HbA1c. The results come back showing a glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) of 49 mmol/mol.
      What is the most appropriate response to this result?

      Your Answer: Diagnose impaired glucose tolerance (pre-diabetes)

      Correct Answer: Repeat the test

      Explanation:

      Understanding HbA1c Test Results for Diabetes Diagnosis

      The HbA1c test is a diagnostic tool for diabetes, with a recommended cut-off point of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%). However, a single abnormal result doesn’t confirm the diagnosis, especially in asymptomatic patients. In such cases, a repeat laboratory venous HbA1c test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis. If the second result is still above 48 mmol/mol, the patient is diagnosed with diabetes. If the result is below 48 mmol/mol, the patient is considered to have a high diabetes risk and should repeat the test in six months or sooner if symptoms develop. HbA1c levels below 42 mmol/mol are normal for non-diabetic adults, while levels from 42 to 47 mmol/mol indicate pre-diabetes. An oral glucose tolerance test is not necessary in the absence of hyperglycaemic symptoms, and more than one test on two separate days is required for a diagnosis. Understanding HbA1c test results is crucial for accurate diabetes diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 45 - A 40-year-old human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive man presents with weight loss and weakness. Upon evaluation, he is diagnosed with disseminated tuberculosis and is found to be hypotensive with hyperpigmentation of the mucosa, elbows, and skin creases. Further investigations reveal a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
      What is the correct biochemical abnormality associated with this condition? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Increased serum chloride

      Correct Answer: Increased serum potassium

      Explanation:

      Adrenal Insufficiency and Electrolyte Imbalances in HIV Patients

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious complication of HIV infections, often associated with opportunistic infections and Kaposi’s sarcoma. One common electrolyte imbalance seen in these patients is hyperkalemia, which is primarily caused by the loss of aldosterone and can also be a result of acidosis and impaired kidney function. However, increased serum bicarbonate is not a typical finding in these patients, as metabolic acidosis occurs due to the loss of aldosterone’s sodium-retaining and potassium- and hydrogen-ion-secreting action. Additionally, while mild to moderate hypercalcemia may occur in some patients, decreased serum calcium is not a common finding. Chloride levels are also typically decreased in adrenal insufficiency. Finally, serum sodium levels are reduced in these patients due to both the loss of sodium in the urine (due to aldosterone deficiency) and movement of sodium into the intracellular compartment.

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  • Question 46 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic with a small ulcer and surrounding erythema on his right great toe.

      You have a specialist chiropodist in the same building who cleans and dresses the wound for you. She takes a swab but feels that although the ulcer is infected, the infection is relatively superficial. The swab results show a heavy growth of gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli.

      What would be the most suitable antibiotic option?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for S. aureus infection

      Around 60% or more of S. aureus infections are resistant to amoxicillin, leaving limited options for treatment. Cefuroxime is administered intravenously, while orally delivered vancomycin has little to no systemic bioavailability. The remaining options are flucloxacillin and co-amoxiclav, with the latter being the preferred choice due to its activity against both gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, including S. aureus. However, it is important to note that co-amoxiclav should not be used for more than two weeks due to the risk of hepatic dysfunction. Proper treatment and management of S. aureus infections are crucial to prevent complications and ensure a successful recovery.

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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and unexplained weight gain. During the physical examination, a diffuse, painless goitre is observed. The following blood tests are conducted:

      TSH 15.1 mU/l
      Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
      ESR 14 mm/hr
      Anti-TSH receptor stimulating antibodies Negative
      Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies Positive

      Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pituitary failure

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.

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  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman had presented with occasional palpitations, sweating and restlessness. An ECG had shown sinus tachycardia.

      Her blood tests had showed:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 23 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      You had started her on a beta-blocker and referred her to secondary care for specialist treatment. However, the patient returns to you stating that her appointment is in 4 months' time and she cannot carry on with her symptoms for that long.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to the emergency department

      Correct Answer: Start carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This young female patient is likely suffering from Graves’ disease, causing hyperthyroidism and symptoms such as sweating, palpitations, and restlessness. A low TSH and high T4 confirm the diagnosis, along with positive TRAbs. While waiting for secondary care, starting carbimazole is the appropriate course of action to alleviate symptoms. Seeking senior or remote specialist advice can help with prescribing. Referring to the emergency department is unnecessary as the palpitations are occasional and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Starting amiodarone is not recommended as it can cause thyroid dysfunction and the ECG shows sinus tachycardia, not atrial fibrillation. Continuing to wait for secondary care review doesn’t address the patient’s symptoms and concerns.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

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  • Question 49 - A man aged 50 wants to attempt weight loss. He has type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A man aged 50 wants to attempt weight loss. He has type 2 diabetes and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.

      Would you prescribe orlistat for him?

      What is the BMI threshold for diabetic patients to begin taking orlistat?

      Your Answer: 35

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Orlistat Treatment Criteria for Diabetes and Non-Diabetic Patients

      According to the British National Formulary (BNF), patients with diabetes must have a Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28 or more to start treatment with orlistat. On the other hand, non-diabetic patients should have a BMI of 30 or more to be eligible for orlistat treatment.

      It is important to note that orlistat is a weight loss medication that works by reducing the absorption of fat in the body. It is usually prescribed alongside a low-calorie diet and exercise program. Patients who meet the BMI criteria and have been assessed by a healthcare professional may be prescribed orlistat to aid in their weight loss journey.

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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. His HbA1c was 83 mmol/mol (9.7%) a year ago despite taking the maximum dose of oral hypoglycaemic medication. He was started on insulin and his latest HbA1c is 66 mmol/mol (8.2%). He is contemplating applying for a commercial driver's license and seeks guidance. What is the best advice to give him?

      Your Answer: He may be able to apply for a HGV licence if he meets strict criteria relating to hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Individuals who are taking insulin can now possess a HGV license as long as they satisfy the rigorous standards set by the DVLA.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 51 - A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with complaints of decreased libido. He has also noticed a decrease in the frequency of needing to shave. During attempts at sexual intercourse, he has been unable to maintain an erection. His visual field testing is normal and he has no history of medication use. Growth hormone studies and thyroid function levels are within normal limits, but his serum prolactin levels are elevated at 1500 mIU/l. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Microprolactinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient has consistently high prolactin levels without a clear cause, it may be due to a prolactinoma, a type of pituitary tumor. In the case of a microprolactinoma, the prolactin levels may be between 1000-5000 mIU/l, but the patient’s hormone profile and visual fields are normal. Hyperprolactinemia can inhibit the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, leading to symptoms such as infertility and decreased libido. Treatment options include surgery or medication with dopamine agonists. Macroprolactinoma, acromegaly, and hypothyroidism are unlikely causes in this case. Psychogenic impotence doesn’t explain the elevated prolactin levels.

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  • Question 52 - A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women

      This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.

      When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 53 - You visit Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman who is suffering from an acute...

    Correct

    • You visit Mrs. Jones, an elderly woman who is suffering from an acute diarrhoeal illness she picked up from her grandchildren. Her past medical history includes: hypertension, type 2 diabetes, hyperlipidemia, and osteoporosis. Her medications are amlodipine 5mg OD, lisinopril 10 mg OD, aspirin 81mg, omeprazole 20 mg OD, metformin 500mg BD, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, and acetaminophen 650mg PRN. Her pulse is 88/min, blood pressure 146/78 mmHg, oxygen saturations 98%, respiratory rate 18/min. Her tongue looks a little dry, abdomen is soft and non-tender, with very active bowel sounds. After examining her, you feel she is well enough to stay at home, and you prescribe some rehydration sachets and arrange telephone review for the following day.

      What immediate changes should you advise regarding her medication?

      Your Answer: Suspend metformin

      Explanation:

      During intercurrent illness such as diarrhoea and vomiting, it is important to suspend the use of metformin as it increases the risk of lactic acidosis. Increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as it may increase the risk of electrolyte disturbance while the patient is unwell. Similarly, there is no indication to double the dose of lansoprazole. Suspending ramipril is also not necessary as there is no evidence of acute electrolyte disturbance. However, reducing the dose of paracetamol to 500mg may be considered for patients with a low body weight.

      The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and cholestatic liver dysfunction. Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.

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      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 54 - You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood tests which were requested by the practice nurse in advance of the annual diabetes review of Mrs. Johnson, a 50-year-old patient. Mrs. Johnson was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about 4 years ago, and after 2 years of attempting to control it with lifestyle measures, she commenced metformin and is now prescribed 1g BD. Her full blood count, renal profile and liver function tests are normal, her total cholesterol is 5.3mmol/L. Her HbA1c is 60mmol/mol.

      As per NICE guidelines, what should be done regarding Mrs. Johnson's blood sugar control?

      Your Answer: Change to modified-release metformin

      Correct Answer: Commence a second blood glucose lowering drug and reinforce lifestyle and diet measures

      Explanation:

      If the HbA1c is > 58 mmol/mol in type 2 diabetes mellitus, a second blood glucose lowering drug should be added while also reinforcing lifestyle and diet measures, according to NICE guidelines. Simply reinforcing lifestyle measures is not enough. It is important to intensify drug treatment and revisit lifestyle and dietary advice with the patient. It is not recommended to stop metformin unless it is contraindicated or not tolerated. Modified-release metformin may be an option for patients experiencing gastrointestinal side effects on standard release metformin, but it will not improve blood sugar control.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 55 - Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Causes of Galactorrhoea: Understanding the Link to Hypothyroidism

      Galactorrhoea, the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast, can be caused by a variety of factors. Physiological causes include postpartum changes, hormonal fluctuations during puberty or menopause, and elevated prolactin levels due to conditions such as prolactinoma. Other medical conditions, such as chronic renal failure, bronchogenic carcinoma, and sarcoidosis, can also lead to galactorrhoea.

      One lesser-known cause of galactorrhoea is primary hypothyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of thyroid-releasing hormone and subsequent secretion of prolactin. The longer the hypothyroidism goes untreated, the more likely it is to cause hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea.

      It’s important to note that breast cancer and schizophrenia are not causes of galactorrhoea. While breast cancer may present with unilateral breast discharge, it is typically not milky. Schizophrenia itself doesn’t cause hyperprolactinaemia, but antipsychotic drugs used to treat the condition can. Other medications, such as antidepressants and spironolactone, can also produce galactorrhoea.

      In summary, galactorrhoea can have a variety of causes, including physiological changes, medical conditions, and certain medications. Primary hypothyroidism is one potential cause that should not be overlooked, as it can lead to hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea if left untreated.

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  • Question 56 - Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Luteinizing hormone levels are usually raised

      Correct Answer: Affects between 2-3% of women of reproductive age

      Explanation:

      Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be related to both hyperinsulinemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone. Symptoms of PCOS include subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a pelvic ultrasound is typically performed to check for multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). A raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature, but it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated, while testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated. However, if testosterone is markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To make a formal diagnosis of PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume greater than 10 cm³.

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  • Question 57 - When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of...

    Incorrect

    • When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?

      Your Answer: Thiazide + calcium channel blocker

      Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide

      Explanation:

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

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  • Question 58 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. Her HbA1c levels were 59 mmol/mol and 61 mmol/mol on repeat testing. She has a medical history of stable angina and essential hypertension. Her renal function results show an eGFR of 72 ml/min/1.73m² and a urine ACR of 2.3 mg/mmol.

      What would be the best initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start an SGLT-2 inhibitor first, add metformin and titrate upwards as tolerated

      Correct Answer: Start metformin first and titrate upwards as tolerated, add an SGLT-2 inhibitor regardless of glycaemic control

      Explanation:

      To properly manage a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who has a history of angina, it is important to start with metformin and titrate upwards as tolerated. Additionally, an SGLT-2 inhibitor should be added regardless of glycaemic control, as it is indicated for organ protection. Once metformin tolerability is confirmed, the SGLT-2 inhibitor can be added. Starting with an SGLT-2 inhibitor first or starting both medications immediately and titrating metformin upwards as tolerated is incorrect. Adding a DPP 4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea only if adequate glycaemic control is not achieved is also not the recommended approach for this patient.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 59 - Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: Anterior pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Causes of Hypopituitarism: Understanding Anterior Pituitary Tumours

      Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by the underproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland. While several factors can cause this condition, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. These tumours, including adenomas and other brain tumours, can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic to acute pituitary failure with acute collapse and coma. The presentation depends on the aetiology, rapidity of onset, and predominant hormones involved.

      In addition to causing hypopituitarism, space-occupying lesions may produce headaches and visual-field defects. Large lesions involving the hypothalamus may produce polydipsia and inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

      While autoimmune disorders, anterior pituitary infarction, head injury, and sarcoidosis can also cause hypopituitarism, they are less common than anterior pituitary tumours. Lymphocytic hypophysitis is a rare autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the pituitary, usually associated with pregnancy. Postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan syndrome) is caused by ischaemic necrosis, due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth. Traumatic brain injury as a cause is being more frequently recognized. The hypothalamus is the most frequently involved of all the endocrine glands in sarcoidosis, and hypothalamic insufficiency is the major cause for hypopituitarism.

      In summary, while several factors can cause hypopituitarism, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. Understanding the symptoms and potential causes of hypopituitarism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 60 - A 25-year-old woman presents after the birth of her second child. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents after the birth of her second child. She complains of persistent fatigue and a hoarse voice that she can't seem to shake off. Despite breastfeeding her child, she is struggling to lose her pregnancy weight. Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies are present and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is normal. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is 12 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l), with a free thyroxine (T4) of 5 pmol/l. There is no thyroid tenderness on examination, but she has a slight goitre. Her pulse is only 52 bpm.
      Which of the following diagnoses best fits with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Iodine deficiency

      Correct Answer: Postpartum thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Postpartum Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Hypothyroidism as a Common Outcome

      Postpartum thyroiditis is a subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis that occurs within the first six months after giving birth. It is characterized by antithyroid peroxidase antibodies that mediate the condition. Symptoms may include slight painless thyroid swelling and hyperthyroidism. However, the condition is self-limiting and hyperthyroidism is commonly followed by hypothyroidism, which may become permanent in 25% of patients. The aetiology of postpartum thyroiditis is obscure, but it is associated with hypothyroidism during pregnancy and the presence of antibodies.

      Hyperthyroidism, atrophic thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency are all incorrect diagnosis for postpartum thyroiditis. Hyperthyroidism is a hormonal change that is not present in postpartum thyroiditis. Atrophic thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that occurs in elderly women and is characterized by thyroid autoantibodies, hypothyroidism, and absence of goitre. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease that is the most common cause of goitrous hypothyroidism in non-iodine-deficient areas. Iodine deficiency is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide and results in goitre, but it is still a rare cause of hypothyroidism in the UK.

      In conclusion, postpartum thyroiditis is a self-limiting condition that may result in hypothyroidism as a common outcome. It is important to diagnose and manage this condition to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 61 - A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:

      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l

      What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.

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  • Question 62 - A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has type 2 diabetes. He is a group 1 driver with a valid driving licence.

      He wants to know if he needs to inform the DVLA about his condition.

      Which patients with diabetes must by law inform the DVLA about their condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There are no requirements for patients with diabetes to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Diabetic Drivers

      Drivers with diabetes do not need to inform the DVLA if their condition is managed by tablets or diet and they are free of complications such as visual impairment or hypoglycaemic attacks. However, if they are taking tablets that can induce hypoglycaemia, such as sulphonylureas, they must inform the DVLA. Additionally, if they have experienced more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months or are at high risk of developing it, they must also inform the DVLA.

      In January 2016, the DVLA updated their guidelines, which may be reflected in AKT exam questions. It is important for drivers with diabetes to familiarize themselves with any additions or amendments. One of the changes made was to revise the wording for Group 1 drivers who are managed by tablets that carry a risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, including sulphonylureas and glinides.

      It is important to note that drivers who are treated with insulin must inform the DVLA by law. Some people with diabetes may develop associated problems that could affect their ability to drive safely, and it is important to follow the guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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  • Question 63 - A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus during an outpatient appointment. He is worried about the diagnosis and wants to discuss its implications. What is the correct statement about diabetes insipidus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid deprivation followed by desmopressin differentiates the main causes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating Causes and Symptoms

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified into two major forms: cranial and nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine due to resistance to ADH action in the kidney.

      To differentiate between the two forms, a fluid deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration is conducted. In cranial diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality increases after desmopressin administration, while in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, it remains unchanged.

      Contrary to popular belief, drugs can cause diabetes insipidus, with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus being the most common side effect of lithium. Other drugs such as ofloxacin and orlistat have also been implicated.

      Hypernatremia may become apparent as dehydration develops, and the predominant manifestations of diabetes insipidus are polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Large volumes of dilute urine are produced, with more than 3 liters in 24 hours and less than 300 mOsm/kg.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes and symptoms of diabetes insipidus is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition.

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  • Question 64 - What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 65 - A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year old man visits your clinic with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination that have been present for about a month. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and is currently on prednisolone. You suspect that he may have developed diabetes mellitus due to his corticosteroid treatment. What is the best method to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single fasting glucose sample

      Explanation:

      If a HbA1c test is not suitable for diagnosing T2DM, then a fasting glucose sample should be taken instead.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 66 - Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.

      What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John’s wort

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

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  • Question 67 - One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are...

    Incorrect

    • One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options

      Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.

      For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.

      In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.

      In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.

      For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.

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  • Question 68 - Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into spasm' when using the pedals of her car over the past couple of days. She also reports a slight tingling in her hands and feet. Apart from this, she has been well recently, with no other new symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and dyspepsia. Her regular medications include metformin, sitagliptin, omeprazole, atorvastatin, and she uses sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate after meals and before bed as required. You arrange some urgent blood tests, suspecting an electrolyte disturbance. These come back showing hypomagnesaemia.

      Which of her medications should you stop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is often caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Omeprazole: correct answer. Proton pump inhibitors are recognized as a common cause of hypomagnesaemia. The MHRA recommends considering testing magnesium levels before starting treatment and regularly during long-term use. However, in reality, this is likely to be infrequently carried out.

      Metformin: incorrect answer. Metformin can reduce the absorption of vitamin B12. Sitagliptin, atorvastatin, and sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate do not lead to hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

      Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.

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  • Question 69 - A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage his diabetes he currently takes metformin 500 mg BD and has been doing so for over a year. His latest HbA1c is 63 mol/mol and so it is agreed to add in a second agent to better manage his glycemic control.

      His eGFR is 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2.

      According to the British National Formulary, which of the following should be avoided because it is ineffective as add-on therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Medication Use in Renal and Hepatic Impairment

      Dapagliflozin, canagliflozin, and empagliflozin should not be initiated or continued if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2. Gliclazide can be used in renal impairment with careful blood glucose monitoring. Pioglitazone should be avoided in hepatic impairment but can be used in renal impairment. Repaglinide can be used with caution in renal impairment. Sitagliptin can be used in renal impairment with dose adjustment based on eGFR. It is important to consider renal and hepatic function when prescribing medications for diabetes management.

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  • Question 70 - You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents...

    Incorrect

    • You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting. The patient is currently taking metformin, gliclazide, and empagliflozin. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.4°C, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 100, blood glucose of 13 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 3.3 mmol/L. Urinalysis shows +++ ketones, but is otherwise normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with type 2 diabetes can experience diabetic ketoacidosis, as seen in this case where the patient has a blood glucose level of ≥11mmol/L and blood ketones of ≥3mmol/L. Immediate hospital admission is necessary for treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin. It is important to note that individuals taking SGLT2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are at risk of DKA even with moderate blood glucose levels. DKA is more prevalent in Afro-Caribbean patients with type 2 diabetes. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state (HONK) is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels but less than 2+ ketones in urine or 3mmol/L blood ketones.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

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  • Question 71 - You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a 40-year-old overweight man who has been experiencing fatigue. All his full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and thyroid function tests were normal. The fasting plasma glucose result is provided below:

      Fasting plasma glucose 6.2 mmol/l

      What is the most suitable conclusion to draw from this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prediabetes - high risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      The individual with a fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level ranging from 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is identified as having impaired fasting glycaemia and should be treated as having prediabetes.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 72 - A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted with a six-week history of proximal muscle weakness. He has been having difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a sitting position in a chair. He says his alcohol intake is 40 units per week.
      Which of the following results is most likely to point to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Proximal Myopathy and its Possible Causes

      Proximal myopathy is a condition characterized by weakness in the muscles closest to the body’s core. One possible cause of this condition is alcohol excess, which can lead to abnormal liver function tests and macrocytosis. Patients may underestimate or hide their alcohol consumption levels, making it important for healthcare providers to ask about this history. Chronic myopathy involves a gradual progression, while acute myopathy may follow binge drinking and result in acute renal tubular necrosis.

      Thyrotoxicosis and hypothyroidism can also cause proximal myopathy. An elevated TSH and normal free-thyroxine levels may suggest sub-clinical hypothyroidism. Cushing syndrome, indicated by failure to suppress the 0900 h serum cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test, can also cause proximal myopathy.

      While hypercalcaemia is not a common cause of proximal myopathy, osteomalacia can lead to this condition. Osteomalacia is characterized by low calcium and raised alkaline phosphatase. Rare reports suggest that hyperparathyroidism may also cause proximal myopathy.

      High vitamin B12 levels are not typically associated with proximal myopathy. In fact, low vitamin B12 levels, such as those seen in pernicious anaemia, can cause neurological symptoms like peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Excessive alcohol consumption can deplete B12 levels. Understanding the possible causes of proximal myopathy can help healthcare providers diagnose and treat this condition effectively.

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  • Question 73 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

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  • Question 74 - A 38-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for follow up; he recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for follow up; he recently suffered a myocardial infarction (MI). He is a non-smoker with no past medical history of note; he is not diabetic. His father died of a MI aged 43.
      His total cholesterol is 10.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.10–4.11 mmol/l). His triglycerides are just above the normal range, while his high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is normal. He has a markedly raised non-HDL cholesterol.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s raised cholesterol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      There are several types of genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause high levels of cholesterol and/or triglycerides in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. One such condition is heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, which is caused by mutations in the LDLR gene or the gene for apolipoprotein B. This can result in extremely high levels of cholesterol and VLDL, and may lead to premature coronary heart disease. Familial combined hyperlipidaemia is another common genetic dyslipidaemia that can cause moderate-to-severe mixed hyperlipidaemia and may be polygenic in origin. Familial hypertriglyceridaemia is an autosomal-dominant condition that causes elevated triglyceride levels and is associated with premature coronary disease. Remnant hyperlipidaemia is an autosomal-recessive trait that can cause high levels of both cholesterol and triglycerides, and is often associated with obesity, glucose intolerance, and hyperuricaemia. Finally, there are several secondary causes of hyperlipidaemia, including certain medical conditions, medications, pregnancy, obesity, and alcohol abuse.

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  • Question 75 - A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman who has undergone an extensive thyroid resection comes to see you for follow up some six weeks later. She has recovered well from the operation but reports problems with muscle cramps; these have been so severe on two occasions that she has suffered from cramping and spasm in her hands.

      On examination she is a little hypotensive at 105/60, and her pulse is 45. Her reflexes seem quite brisk, but neurological examination is otherwise normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely finding on blood testing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Post-Surgical Hypoparathyroidism

      Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is a condition that may occur weeks or even months after thyroid surgery. It is characterized by symptoms such as muscle cramps, lethargy, bradycardia, and hypotension that are not responsive to pressors, and carpopedal spasm due to hypocalcaemia. If a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to investigate further through serum electrolytes, LFTs, and PTH assay. These investigations will help to confirm the diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism and guide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 76 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a prescription for orlistat. What is the most probable comorbid condition that would prevent the prescription of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it can cause loose stool or diarrhea if a low-fat diet is not followed strictly. It is crucial to consider the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics or the contraceptive pill. Orlistat can increase gut transit time, leading to reduced absorption and efficacy of critical medications. The BNF lists the combination of antiepileptics and orlistat as a red interaction.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 77 - A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2 diabetic and takes metformin 500mg BD and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His blood results showed cholesterol at 7.2 mmol/L with raised triglycerides. His Hba1c increased from 72 mmol/L three months ago to 81 mmol/L currently. His urea and electrolytes are stable. He reports no significant changes in his diet and is compliant with his medications.

      What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 500mg TDS and repeat bloods in three months

      Explanation:

      To manage hyperlipidaemia, it is important to address any accompanying hyperglycaemia. The patient’s abnormal cholesterol levels could be a result of his deteriorating diabetic condition. Therefore, the best course of action would be to maintain the current statin dosage and adjust the metformin dosage accordingly. By treating the hyperglycaemia, there is a possibility of improving the patient’s cholesterol levels.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

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  • Question 78 - A 68-year-old smoker visits her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue, abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old smoker visits her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss. She reports having a cough for three months and experiencing night sweats in recent weeks. Blood tests reveal anaemia and a corrected calcium level of 3.06 mmol/l (normal value 2.2–2.6 mmol/l).
      What is a recognized cause of hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Calcium Imbalance

      Calcium imbalance can be caused by various factors, including primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, milk-alkali syndrome, and sarcoid. Hypercalcaemia, or high calcium levels, can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal pain, depression, psychosis, bone pain, renal stones, fatigue, cardiac dysrhythmias, and renal tubular damage. On the other hand, hypocalcaemia, or low calcium levels, can be caused by prolonged chronic renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, and vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms of the underlying cause may also be present. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of calcium imbalance to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 79 - You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
    What time of...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect that a 52-year-old man is suffering from Cushing syndrome.
      What time of day is a random cortisol test most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2400 h

      Explanation:

      Cortisol Levels and Cushing Syndrome: Diagnostic Tests and Circadian Rhythms

      Plasma cortisol levels in normal individuals follow a circadian rhythm, with the highest levels in the morning and the lowest levels at night. However, in patients with Cushing syndrome, this rhythm is disrupted, and late-night cortisol levels do not fall as they should. This alteration in cortisol secretion can be used to diagnose Cushing syndrome, with an elevated serum cortisol at 2400 h being an early indicator.

      The 0900 h cortisol level is not a reliable indicator of Cushing syndrome, as it may still be within the normal range. Instead, a low-dose dexamethasone suppression test is used, where a failure to suppress cortisol suggests Cushing syndrome.

      A 24-hour urine collection with cortisol level analysis is a better test for Cushing syndrome than serum cortisol, with two or more samples showing cortisol excretion more than three times the upper limit of normal being a confident diagnosis.

      Late-night cortisol samples should be taken between 2300 h and 0100 h, while melatonin, which regulates sleep and wakefulness, follows a reverse circadian rhythm, with levels highest during periods of sleep. Synthetic melatonin is commonly used to alleviate jet lag.

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  • Question 80 - An individual who is 70 years old comes in for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • An individual who is 70 years old comes in for a check-up. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and gout. During his last visit six months ago, his blood pressure was 144/84 mmHg. You provided him with basic lifestyle advice and requested him to return in six months for a follow-up blood pressure check. Since then, he has had three more blood pressure readings: 144/72 mmHg, 146/78 mmHg, and 148/76 mmHg. The patient is currently taking metformin and allopurinol. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his blood pressure readings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Although his diastolic blood pressure is within the target range of 140/90 mmHg, his systolic blood pressure consistently exceeds it. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, when managing Type 2 diabetes, healthcare providers should prioritize the systolic blood pressure value. Therefore, the target blood pressure for this patient should be less than 140/90 mmHg. Despite attempts to improve his blood pressure through lifestyle changes, they have been unsuccessful. Therefore, he should be offered an ACE inhibitor.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 81 - A 28-year-old female presents with weight loss and irritability.

    Thyroid function tests reveal:

    Free T4...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with weight loss and irritability.

      Thyroid function tests reveal:

      Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)

      Examination reveals a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit and lid lag only without any other eye signs.

      What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hashitoxicosis

      Explanation:

      TFTs and Hyperthyroidism

      Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can reveal hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, and Multinodular goitre. However, the distinguishing feature in this case is the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, specifically in Graves’ disease. It is important to note that eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common features of Graves’ disease but may not always be present. Proper diagnosis and management of hyperthyroidism require careful evaluation and monitoring of thyroid function and associated symptoms.

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  • Question 82 - A 73-year-old male presents with a two month history of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male presents with a two month history of weight loss and weakness. He says that his symptoms started with a severe pain, affecting lower back and anterior thighs. It had a burning quality and was worse at night.

      Examination reveals a BMI of 24.5 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 146/90 mmHg.

      Examination of the lower limbs reveals a bilateral weakness of knee extension. He is unable to rise from the squatting position. There is absence of the knee reflex but the ankle reflexes are preserved and both plantars are flexor. There are no abnormalities on sensory examination.

      Which of the following tests may be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 concentration

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Amyotrophy: A Painful Proximal Motor Neuropathy

      This patient exhibits several symptoms of diabetic amyotrophy, a painful asymmetrical proximal motor neuropathy that primarily affects the lower limbs. While it can occur bilaterally, it typically presents with pain in the thigh that progresses to proximal muscle wasting, loss of knee reflexes, and tender proximal muscles. While the plantars can become extensor, this is not a common occurrence.

      The condition is believed to be caused by the occlusion of the vasa nervorum of the proximal lumbar plexus and/or femoral nerve. It is often associated with poor diabetic control, but it may improve with good control or resolve on its own over time.

      Other conditions, such as osteomalacia, hyperthyroidism, and Cushing’s, are unlikely to cause a proximal myopathy involving the quadriceps and hamstrings, with preserved knee reflexes and pain not being a predominant feature. Vitamin B12 deficiency, on the other hand, initially causes peripheral neuropathy, with loss of vibration sense and position, followed by areflexia and weakness. If left untreated, it can lead to spasticity, Babinski plantars, and ataxia.

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  • Question 83 - The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which...

    Incorrect

    • The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is commonly associated with which type of tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung

      Explanation:

      Small-Cell Carcinoma of the Lung and SIADH

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung is a type of lung cancer that has been found to cause SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion) in 18.9% of cases. SIADH is a condition where there is an abnormal release of ADH, leading to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This condition can cause symptoms such as headaches, weakness, confusion, drowsiness, and seizures. While SIADH can also occur in other types of cancer, it is reported as a rare event in breast cancer and occurs in pancreatic cancer, duodenal cancer, and colon cancer. Patients with malignancy-associated SIADH have poor outcomes, making early detection and treatment crucial.

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  • Question 84 - Samantha is a 50-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 50-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She presents to you with a 3-week history of constipation and nausea. Samantha has been struggling to cope and has been feeling increasingly sad and depressed. She has also noticed that her arms and legs have been aching more than usual. You order a routine set of blood tests:

      Hemoglobin (Hb): 110 g/L
      Platelets: 320 * 109/L
      White blood cells (WBC): 3.8 * 109/L

      Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L
      Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/L
      Urea: 5.9 mmol/L
      Creatinine: 75 µmol/L
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+): 3.1 mmol/L
      Albumin: 32 g/L
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 95 U/L
      Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for Samantha's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit immediately

      Explanation:

      Fred is experiencing symptomatic metastatic hypercalcaemia, which requires immediate admission for intravenous fluids and bisphosphonate therapy according to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS). The symptoms of hypercalcaemia can be nonspecific and include bone pain, fractures, drowsiness, muscle weakness, impaired concentration, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, constipation, renal colic, hypertension, and itching, among others. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can lead to serious complications such as renal impairment, cardiac arrhythmias, and even coma. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential to prevent further harm.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia can be managed through various methods. The first step is to rehydrate the patient with normal saline, usually at a rate of 3-4 litres per day. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates can be administered. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximum effect seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option that can be used for quicker effect than bisphosphonates. In cases of sarcoidosis, steroids may also be used. However, loop diuretics such as furosemide should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion. They are typically reserved for patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates, calcitonin, or steroids in certain cases. Loop diuretics may also be used, but with caution. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly.

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  • Question 85 - During his 3-month check-up, a 50-year-old patient with a BMI of 33 reports...

    Incorrect

    • During his 3-month check-up, a 50-year-old patient with a BMI of 33 reports that he has been unable to adhere to his orlistat prescription due to the side effects he has experienced. The patient has a medical history of psoriasis, hyperlipidaemia, and hypertension. According to NICE, what alternative treatment may be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      The first three options listed above are not recommended for treating obesity at present. However, exenatide may have the unintended effect of promoting weight loss when prescribed for type 2 diabetes. Silbutramine is no longer available for prescription in the UK (see notes below). Additionally, the patient doesn’t currently meet the eligibility criteria for bariatric surgery, which were somewhat expanded in the 2014 guidelines.

      If the patient experienced gastrointestinal side effects such as abdominal distention and loose stool while taking orlistat, it may be possible to reduce these side effects by providing further education on a low-fat diet.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 86 - A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old Muslim man with a history of type 2 diabetes seeks guidance on managing his diabetes medications during Ramadan. He is currently taking metformin 500mg three times a day. What advice should be given to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      To adjust for Ramadan, it is recommended to take one-third of the usual metformin dose before sunrise and the remaining two-thirds after sunset. For further information, please refer to the Diabetes Care source.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus During Ramadan

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus is more prevalent in people of Asian ethnicity, including a significant number of Muslim patients in the UK. With Ramadan falling in the long days of summer, it is crucial to provide appropriate advice to Muslim patients to ensure they can safely observe their fast. While it is a personal decision whether to fast, it is worth noting that people with chronic conditions are exempt from fasting or may delay it to shorter days in winter. However, many Muslim patients with diabetes do not consider themselves exempt from fasting. Around 79% of Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast during Ramadan.

      To help patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus fast safely, they should consume a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise (Suhoor). Patients should also be given a blood glucose monitor to check their glucose levels, especially if they feel unwell. For patients taking metformin, the dose should be split one-third before sunrise (Suhoor) and two-thirds after sunset (Iftar). For those taking sulfonylureas, the expert consensus is to switch to once-daily preparations after sunset. For patients taking twice-daily preparations such as gliclazide, a larger proportion of the dose should be taken after sunset. No adjustment is necessary for patients taking pioglitazone. Diabetes UK and the Muslim Council of Britain have an excellent patient information leaflet that explores these options in more detail.

      Managing diabetes mellitus during Ramadan is crucial to ensure Muslim patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus can safely observe their fast. It is important to provide appropriate advice to patients, including consuming a meal containing long-acting carbohydrates before sunrise, checking glucose levels regularly, and adjusting medication doses accordingly.

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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total...

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    • A 55-year-old woman undergoes routine blood testing and her results show a total cholesterol level of 6.3 mmol/l (desirable < 5.2 mmol/l), a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.8 μU/l (normal range 0.17–3.2 μU/l), a thyroxine (T4) level of 13 pmol/l (normal range 11–22 pmol/l). Further testing reveals a triiodothyronine (T3) level of 4.5 pmol/l (normal range 3.5–5.0 pmol/l) and negative thyroid peroxidase antibodies. The patient doesn't report any symptoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat thyroid function tests in three to six months

      Explanation:

      Management of Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a common condition in middle-aged and older women, characterized by normal serum T4 and T3 levels but raised TSH concentration without specific symptoms or signs of thyroid dysfunction. The condition may result from previous hyperthyroidism or nonspecific symptoms such as tiredness or weight gain. In cases where patients have detectable levels of microsomal thyroid peroxidase antibodies, they are more likely to develop overt hypothyroidism.

      Treatment with thyroxine is recommended for patients with a TSH > 10 μU/l and those with clinical features. The aim of therapy is to restore TSH concentration to within the reference range. However, a serum TSH concentration of less than 10 μU/l in patients who are antibody negative warrants observation rather than immediate treatment, as it may be a transient phenomenon.

      It is not clear whether subclinical hypothyroidism contributes to the development of ischaemic heart disease. Therefore, prescribing simvastatin is not recommended without further information on the patient’s QRISK. Similarly, referring for a thyroid ultrasound scan and fine needle biopsy is not necessary unless there is an unexplained thyroid lump.

      The National Institute of Health and Care Excellence lists the indications for referral in people with subclinical hypothyroidism, including cases of suspected subacute thyroiditis, people planning a pregnancy, those with cardiac disease, and amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism. Therefore, referring to an endocrinologist is not necessary in most cases of subclinical hypothyroidism.

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  • Question 88 - You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient...

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    • You are a pediatrician who is visiting a children's hospital. A new patient is admitted and the nurse is looking through his medications which he has brought with him from home. The patient is a 10-year-old with type 1 diabetes and on his insulin box it says 'insulin lispro (Rapid-acting analogue)', unfortunately the instructions for administration have rubbed out.

      The nurse asks you how insulin lispro is usually administered:

      Given just prior to meal
      46%

      Given just after meal
      9%

      Given 30 minutes before meal
      31%

      Given 30 minutes after meal
      6%

      Given only if blood sugar is found to be greater than 10mmol/L
      7%

      Insulin lispro is a fast acting insulin analogue. Its levels peak 0-3 hours after injection and last 2-5 hours. It should therefore be given just prior to meals.

      The April 2015 AKT feedback report stated:

      Diabetes and prediabetes are increasingly common, and we frequently feed back concerning lack of knowledge in these areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Given just prior to meal

      Explanation:

      Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin analog that reaches its peak levels within 0-3 hours of injection and remains effective for 2-5 hours. As a result, it should be administered immediately before meals.

      Understanding Insulin Therapy

      Insulin therapy has been a game-changer in the management of diabetes mellitus since its development in the 1920s. It remains the only available treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) and is widely used in type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) when oral hypoglycemic agents fail to provide adequate control. However, understanding the different types of insulin can be overwhelming, and it is crucial to have a basic grasp to avoid potential harm to patients.

      Insulin can be classified by manufacturing process, duration of action, and type of insulin analogues. Patients often require a combination of preparations to ensure stable glycemic control throughout the day. Rapid-acting insulin analogues act faster and have a shorter duration of action than soluble insulin and may be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Short-acting insulins, such as Actrapid and Humulin S, may also be used as the bolus dose in ‘basal-bolus’ regimens. Intermediate-acting insulins, like isophane insulin, are often used in a premixed formulation with long-acting insulins, such as insulin determir and insulin glargine, given once or twice daily. Premixed preparations combine intermediate-acting insulin with either a rapid-acting insulin analogue or soluble insulin.

      The vast majority of patients administer insulin subcutaneously, and it is essential to rotate injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy. Insulin pumps are available, which delivers a continuous basal infusion and a patient-activated bolus dose at meal times. Intravenous insulin is used for patients who are acutely unwell, such as those with diabetic ketoacidosis. Inhaled insulin is available but not widely used, and oral insulin analogues are in development but have considerable technical hurdles to clear. Overall, understanding insulin therapy is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective care for patients with diabetes mellitus.

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  • Question 89 - What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations

      The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.

      It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.

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  • Question 90 - A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following...

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    • A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.

      Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.

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  • Question 91 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:

      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.

      Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.

      On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.

      It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.

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  • Question 92 - You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a 54-year-old man who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. As part of his diabetic evaluation, he was instructed to perform home blood pressure monitoring. The average daytime reading has returned as 152/84 mmHg.

      The patient migrated to the UK from Sudan approximately two years ago and has no significant medical history other than a vitamin D deficiency, which is believed to be due to his dark skin.

      Based on the current NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start losartan

      Explanation:

      For black patients with type 2 diabetes and hypertension, the recommended first-line treatment is an angiotensin II receptor blocker, specifically losartan. This is based on evidence that ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, may be less effective in patients of African or African-Caribbean ethnicity. For non-diabetic patients of this ethnicity, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled, a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide may be added as a second or third line of treatment. While lifestyle changes are important, this patient’s stage 2 hypertension and diabetes put him at high risk for complications, making prompt and effective treatment essential.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 93 - A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.

      What is the most suitable test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.

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  • Question 94 - A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and...

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    • A 42-year-old woman presents with difficult-to-treat hypertension. She is on two agents and currently has a BP of 155/95 mmHg. She has noted that her face has become more rounded over the years and she is having increasing trouble with both acne and hirsutism. Fasting blood glucose testing has revealed impaired glucose tolerance. There has also been increasing trouble with abdominal obesity and she has noticed some purple stretch marks appearing around her abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing Syndrome: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a rare disorder characterized by hypercortisolaemia, which leads to a variety of symptoms and signs. The most common features include a round, plethoric facial appearance, weight gain (especially truncal obesity, buffalo hump, and supraclavicular fat pads), skin fragility, proximal muscle weakness, mood disturbance, menstrual disturbance, and reduced libido. Hypertension is present in more than 50% of patients, impaired glucose tolerance in 30%, and osteopenia, osteoporosis, and premature vascular disease are common consequences if left untreated.

      The annual incidence of Cushing syndrome is approximately two per million, and it is more common in women. The cause of the disease is hypercortisolaemia, and in 68% of cases, it is due to a pituitary adenoma producing adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Ectopic ACTH production is the cause in 12% of cases (most commonly small-cell carcinoma of the lung and bronchial carcinoid tumours), adrenal adenoma in 10%, and adrenal carcinoma in 8%.

      Diagnosis of Cushing syndrome is made based on the results of the 24-hour urinary free-cortisol assay or the 1 mg (low-dose) overnight dexamethasone suppression test.

      Differential diagnosis includes multiple endocrine neoplasia, essential hypertension, phaeochromocytoma, and simple obesity. However, multiple endocrine neoplasia is less likely due to the rarity of the syndrome and lack of other features. Essential hypertension may respond to two agents but cannot explain the other symptoms and signs. Phaeochromocytoma is a rare tumour that secretes catecholamines and presents with headache, sweating, palpitations, tremor, and hypertension. Simple obesity is a differential diagnosis but cannot explain the other features.

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  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

    His family history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

      His family history reveals that his mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg, his BMI is 30.2 kg/m2.

      His investigations reveal:

      Fasting cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2) 200 mg/dL (<200)

      Triglycerides 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69) 124 mg/dL (40-150)

      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) 42 mg/dL (>60)

      Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) 111 mg/dL (54-108)

      In addition to his waist measurement which one of this man's observations is a criterion for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triglyceride concentration of 1.4 mmol/L (124 mg/dL)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Metabolic Syndrome

      The metabolic syndrome is a group of features that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. The latest definition by the IDF includes central obesity (waist circumference of ≥94 cm for men and ≥80 cm for women) plus any two of the following: hypertriglyceridemia (>1.7 mmol/L), low HDL concentration (<1.03 mmol/L for males and <1.29 mmol/L for females), high blood pressure (≥130/85 mmHg or on treatment for hypertension), and fasting glucose (≥5.6 mmol/L or known to have type 2 diabetes). In our patient's case, the elevated fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L fulfills this diagnostic criterion. It is important to note that BMI is not a factor in the diagnostic criteria, as waist circumference is a more significant predictor of risk. Understanding the metabolic syndrome and its diagnostic criteria is crucial in identifying and managing individuals at risk for cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

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  • Question 96 - A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a sodium level...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a sodium level of 127 mmol/l. She doesn't smoke. Which medication is the most probable cause of this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glimepiride

      Explanation:

      SIADH is a well-known side effect of sulfonylureas like glimepiride.

      SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.

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  • Question 97 - A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with type 2 diabetic attends annual review at the GP practice.

      His current treatment consists of: aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 10 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, metformin 1g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OD and glibenclamide 15 mg OD.

      He complains of episodes of blurred vision and feeling lightheaded. He has taken his blood sugar during one of these episodes and it was 2.3.

      Which one of his medicines is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glibenclamide

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypoglycaemic Episodes and Sulphonylureas

      This gentleman is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea he is taking. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can cause significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with pioglitazone, and metformin doesn’t cause it.

      Glibenclamide is a long-acting sulphonylurea that is associated with a greater risk of hypoglycaemia. It should be avoided in the elderly, and shorter-acting alternatives, such as gliclazide, are more appropriate. The above patient is also on the maximum dose, which increases the risk of hypoglycaemia further. Therefore, glibenclamide is the correct answer. Understanding the relationship between hypoglycaemic episodes and sulphonylureas is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications.

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  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:

      TSH <0.05 mU/l
      Free T4 25 pmol/l

      What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

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  • Question 99 - You are discussing the results of a fasting blood sugar with a 50-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing the results of a fasting blood sugar with a 50-year-old patient. It was done after the patient was found to be hypertensive:

      Glucose (fasting) 6.5 mmol/l

      This patient therefore has impaired fasting glycaemia. Following recent Diabetes UK guidelines, what is the most appropriate way to communicate this result with the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 'Prediabetes'

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation

      Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.

      To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.

      Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. Patients should have at least yearly follow-up with blood tests. NICE recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite participating in an intensive lifestyle-change program.

      There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.

      To diagnose IFG, a fasting glucose level of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l is required. IGT is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8-11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person has IGT but not diabetes.

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  • Question 100 - Which of the following statements about dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors for managing type 2...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors for managing type 2 diabetes mellitus is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not cause weight gain

      Explanation:

      Patients taking dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitors rarely experience hypoglycaemia.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 101 - A 35-year-old man who has recently started a new relationship complains of low...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has recently started a new relationship complains of low libido. On further questioning, he admits to feeling lethargic and weak and has noticed that he has less stubble than previously. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise well, and doesn't suffer from headaches.
      What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), LH (luteinising hormone) and testosterone levels

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hypogonadism: Appropriate Tests and Procedures

      Hypogonadism is a condition that can be caused by primary or secondary factors. To determine the presence and type of hypogonadism, appropriate investigations should be conducted. In cases of primary hypogonadism, gonadotrophin levels are elevated while testosterone levels are low. Secondary hypogonadism, on the other hand, is characterized by low to normal gonadotrophin levels and low testosterone levels.

      While investigating hypogonadism, it is important to conduct the appropriate tests and procedures. An MRI scan of the brain is not always necessary, but it may be appropriate in cases of hypopituitarism or hyperprolactinaemia to investigate a pituitary tumour. Depression screening may be appropriate as depression often co-exists with physical illness, but objective evidence of hypogonadism should not be ignored. Semen analysis is not necessary unless investigating infertility, as oligospermia is a consequence of hypogonadism. The Short Synacthen test is used to investigate adrenocortical insufficiency and is not relevant to investigating hypogonadism.

      In summary, appropriate investigations for hypogonadism include determining whether it is primary or secondary through gonadotrophin and testosterone level testing. Other tests and procedures may be appropriate depending on the individual case, but should be carefully considered.

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  • Question 102 - A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a body mass index of 28 kg/m2, an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and he has 1+ protein on urinalysis. He has a past history of heart failure.
      What is the most appropriate initial medication to be prescribed for this patient? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanisms and Considerations

      Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea medication commonly used for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It works by increasing insulin release from the pancreas and can be used in mild to moderate renal failure. Acarbose, on the other hand, is an intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, resulting in lower blood glucose levels. Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated with a higher risk of hypoglycemia and should be avoided in the elderly. Metformin, a biguanide, reduces insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production but can cause lactic acidosis in certain circumstances and is contraindicated in patients with renal or hepatic impairment. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, promotes insulin sensitivity but is contraindicated in heart failure due to its association with fluid retention. When prescribing these medications, it is important to consider their mechanisms of action and potential risks in patients with comorbidities.

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  • Question 103 - A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old asthmatic woman presents with a history of amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She is eager to get pregnant and has been attempting to conceive for six months, but has not been successful. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pituitary microadenoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea: differential diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea are two related conditions that can have various underlying causes. One common cause is a prolactin-secreting pituitary tumour, which can be either a microadenoma (more common) or a macroadenoma (less common). Another possible cause is the use of certain drugs, such as dopamine receptor antagonists and some antidepressants. Hyperthyroidism is not a likely cause, but hypothyroidism can sometimes lead to hyperprolactinaemia. Finally, while hepatic impairment can cause hyperprolactinaemia, it is not a frequent finding in patients with liver cirrhosis. Therefore, a careful differential diagnosis is needed to identify the specific cause of hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea in each patient.

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  • Question 104 - A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a history of thirst, polyuria and a recent 3.2 kg (7 lb) weight loss. His urine contains a small amount of ketones.
      Which of the following features would suggest this patient is most likely to have type II rather than type I diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High circulating insulin level

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Diabetes Mellitus: Clarifying the Symptoms and Diagnostic Criteria

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. However, there are still misconceptions about the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of this disease. In particular, there are several incorrect statements that need to be clarified.

      Firstly, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance and high insulin levels, not low insulin levels as in type I diabetes. Insulin resistance is a precursor to type II diabetes and is linked to a higher risk of developing heart disease. The causes of insulin resistance are both genetic and lifestyle-related.

      Secondly, HLA DR-3 is not associated with type I diabetes mellitus. Instead, this disease is linked to HLA DR-3 or DR-4.

      Thirdly, patients with type II diabetes typically have a high BMI (>25 kg/m2), not a BMI of 23 kg/m2.

      Fourthly, a plasma bicarbonate level of 8 mmol/l (normal range 24–30 mmol/l) is not commonly seen in patients with type II diabetes. While these patients may have + or ++ ketones in their urine, severe acidosis is more common in type I diabetes, with diabetic ketoacidosis being a potentially fatal complication.

      Finally, positive islet-cell antibodies are not associated with type II diabetes. Instead, type I diabetes is an autoimmune disorder characterised by the presence of autoantibodies to the islet cell, insulin or glutamic acid dehydrogenase.

      In conclusion, it is important to clarify the symptoms and diagnostic criteria of diabetes mellitus to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 105 - A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.

      On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder

      This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.

      Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.

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  • Question 106 - A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy complains of a burning pain in his feet that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Despite taking duloxetine, he has not experienced any relief. Upon clinical examination, the only notable finding is reduced sensitivity to fine touch on both soles. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Although amitriptyline is typically the preferred option, it is advisable to steer clear of it in this case due to the patient’s history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, which increases the risk of urinary retention.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

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  • Question 107 - A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly diabetes check-up. He was diagnosed with type two diabetes 3 years ago and is currently taking metformin 500mg tds. He reports no adverse effects and is compliant with medication instructions. There is no notable medical history.

      His latest HbA1c reading was 53 mmol/mol. You contemplate modifying his current medication.

      What is the desired HbA1c level for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The HbA1c target for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus who are taking a single drug not linked to hypoglycemia, such as metformin, is 48 mmol/mol. However, if they are taking multiple medications or a single medication that is associated with hypoglycemia, the target may differ.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 108 - A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment, which she takes at a dose of 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. However, she often forgets to take the evening dose. She would like to switch to daily prednisolone to avoid this issue. What dose of prednisolone would be equivalent to her current daily dose of hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mg

      Explanation:

      Ratios and Activities of Corticosteroids

      The ratios of prednisolone to hydrocortisone and dexamethasone to hydrocortisone are approximately 1:4 and 1:24, respectively. While prednisolone mainly exhibits glucocorticoid activity, hydrocortisone has some mineralocorticoid activity, making it suitable for adrenal replacement therapy on its own. However, fludrocortisone is often required for its mineralocorticoid activity. The split dose of hydrocortisone is intended to mimic normal diurnal variation.

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  • Question 109 - A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has type II diabetes. Her HbA1c is 69 mmol/mol. Her body mass index is 25 kg/m². You want to start treatment with a sulfonylurea drug but the patient is hesitant because she has heard about the risk of hypoglycaemia.
      Which of the following statements regarding hypoglycaemia and sulfonylureas is accurate? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk is greatest if there is co-existing hepatic impairment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk of Hypoglycaemia with Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, but they come with a risk of hypoglycaemia, which can be dangerous. This risk is greatest in patients with co-existing hepatic impairment, as the drugs are metabolised in the liver and excreted in urine or faeces. Short-acting sulfonylureas are not necessarily riskier than longer-acting ones, but they should be used with caution in patients with renal disease. Hypoglycaemia may persist for many hours and should be treated in the hospital. Excessive dosage is a common cause of hypoglycaemia, so careful monitoring is essential. Combining sulfonylureas with bedtime isophane insulin may be an option when other treatments fail, but it doesn’t reduce the risk of hypoglycaemia. Patients and healthcare providers should be aware of the risks associated with sulfonylureas and take steps to minimise them.

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  • Question 110 - You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a middle-aged diabetic woman who is experiencing painful neuropathic symptoms in her feet.

      The patient has been receiving routine monitoring at the clinic due to her poorly controlled diabetes, high blood pressure, and renal dysfunction.

      She reports that she was prescribed amitriptyline a few weeks ago, which provided significant relief for her symptoms. However, she had to discontinue its use due to bothersome adverse effects.

      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Neuropathic Pain Management

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain in non-specialist settings. The recommended drugs for painful neuropathy are amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. If one of these drugs fails due to poor tolerance or effectiveness, then one of the other three should be tried. Phenytoin and valproate were previously used but are not currently recommended. Carbamazepine is only used for trigeminal neuralgia. Nortriptyline is not included in the latest guidelines. These guidelines aim to provide healthcare professionals with evidence-based recommendations for the management of neuropathic pain.

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  • Question 111 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in by her mother regarding her growth. She has always been one of the shorter children in her class, but recently has been the subject of bullying and has become very unhappy. Her parents are convinced there is something wrong and would like something to be done. She was born at term without any antenatal complications and her length at birth was on the 50th centile. She has only been seen for vaccinations and minor childhood ailments and takes no regular medications. Her height today is on the 9th centile and her weight on the 75th. Cardiovascular and abdominal examination is normal, with no signs of precocious puberty.
      Select from the list the most appropriate initial management.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check thyroid function

      Explanation:

      Investigating a Drop in Centiles for Height: Possible Causes and Referral to an Endocrinologist

      When a child’s height drops in centiles without an obvious cause, it is important to investigate the underlying reason. One possible cause that should be excluded is hypothyroidism, which can be determined through testing. X-rays can also be helpful in determining bone age. If there is a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, a renal ultrasound may be recommended.

      If a child’s growth persists along one of the lower centiles, constitutional short stature may be suggested, but if there has been a drop in centiles, this is unlikely. In such cases, referral to an endocrinologist is likely necessary.

      Congenital hypothyroidism is screened for at birth, but acquired hypothyroidism in childhood and adolescence is often caused by lymphocytic (Hashimoto’s) thyroiditis. The first signs are often a slowing of growth, which may go unnoticed, followed by other typical signs of hypothyroidism such as skin changes, cold intolerance, sleepiness, and low energy. Delayed puberty is common in adolescence, but younger children may experience galactorrhea or precocious puberty.

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  • Question 112 - Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is a type 2 diabetic who is scheduled to see the Community Diabetes Nurse because of poorly controlled HbA1c despite taking three different oral medications for her diabetes. The nurse discusses the options of starting either a GLP-1 mimetic like exenatide or starting insulin therapy. As she is an active senior citizen, she chooses to start a GLP-1 mimetic. The nurse advises her that this class of drug may cause some gastrointestinal side effects, but if she experiences severe abdominal pain, she should seek immediate medical attention.

      What acute abdominal issue can arise from taking a GLP-1 mimetic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      GLP-1 mimetics have been linked with an increased risk of severe pancreatitis, according to an alert issued by the MHRA in 2014. It is important to suspend GLP-1 mimetics immediately if pancreatitis is suspected. However, they do not cause appendicitis, drug-induced hepatitis, or acute mesenteric ischaemia.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 113 - A 49-year-old Pakistani man schedules an appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old Pakistani man schedules an appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes 2 weeks ago and began taking metformin. Unfortunately, he experienced a skin reaction shortly after starting and has since discontinued use.

      The patient has a history of hypertension and angina and currently takes ramipril 10 mg OD, aspirin 75 mg OD, bisoprolol 10 mg OD, and atorvastatin 80 mg ON. His most recent test results are as follows:

      - HbA1c 64 mmol/mol
      - eGFR 67 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
      - Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2.4 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)

      Considering his adverse reaction to metformin, what is the most suitable initial treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      If a patient with T2DM cannot take metformin due to contraindications and has a risk of CVD, established CVD, or chronic heart failure, the recommended initial therapy is SGLT-2 monotherapy.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 114 - A 43-year-old man with diabetes presents with a request for infertility investigations. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man with diabetes presents with a request for infertility investigations. On examination, you observe that he has a tan complexion despite minimal sun exposure. He also has an enlarged liver and reports experiencing palpitations and dyspnoea during physical activity. His full blood count and liver biochemistry are within normal limits. What is the most suitable investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum iron studies

      Explanation:

      Investigating Haemochromatosis: Serum Iron Studies and Diagnostic Tests

      Haemochromatosis is an autosomal-recessive disorder characterized by excess iron deposition in the endocrine glands, heart, and skin. Middle-aged men are more commonly affected, and symptoms include diabetes mellitus, probable hypogonadism, hepatomegaly, and skin pigmentation. Serum iron studies are crucial in the diagnosis of haemochromatosis, with raised serum ferritin levels and reduced total iron-binding capacity being indicative of the condition. However, elevated ferritin levels can also be seen in other conditions, such as alcoholic liver disease and porphyria cutanea tarda, so genetic testing for HFE mutations (C282Y, H63D) is necessary for a definitive diagnosis. Serum α-fetoprotein levels and cardiac echocardiography are not useful in identifying haemochromatosis, while liver biopsy is rarely required due to the reliability of genetic testing. Ultrasound of the liver may show abnormalities secondary to cirrhosis but is not as useful as serum iron measurements in this situation.

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  • Question 115 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, sweating, increased appetite and palpitations. She also reports that her periods have become irregular but has no previous history of note. On examination, you note a fine tremor and a resting pulse rate of 110 bpm.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

      Hyperthyroidism is a common condition that presents with a variety of symptoms, including weight loss, heat intolerance, and muscle weakness. It is typically caused by Graves’ disease or multinodular goitre. In contrast, carcinoid syndrome is a rare condition associated with carcinoid tumours that primarily affect the midgut. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, results in weight gain, dry skin, and a slow resting pulse. New-onset type 1 diabetes mellitus typically presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, while polycystic ovarian syndrome is characterized by obesity, oligomenorrhoea, and signs of hyperandrogenism. By understanding the unique symptoms of each condition, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat patients with hyperthyroidism.

      Distinguishing Hyperthyroidism from Other Conditions

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  • Question 116 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you clerk her in she admits to you that she has not felt herself for the past few weeks with polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.

      Blood tests show:

      Estimated glomerular filtration rate >60 ml/min
      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l)
      Parathyroid hormone 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l)

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      In cases of primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia, the PTH level may appear normal despite the presence of high serum calcium and low phosphate levels. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically caused by chronic hypocalcemia, resulting in high PTH levels and either low or normal serum calcium levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism, which is a result of autonomous parathyroid production, is commonly observed in patients with end-stage renal disease who previously had secondary hyperparathyroidism. While hypercalcemia can also be caused by sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis, these conditions are relatively rare.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

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  • Question 117 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests:

      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      Platelets 155 * 109/l
      WBC 5.2 * 109/l

      Free T4 8.1 pmol/l
      TSH 8.2 mu/l

      The patient's TSH had been within range for the past two years prior to his recent admission. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the elevated TSH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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  • Question 118 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after starting metformin for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after starting metformin for his type 2 diabetes. He has a BMI of 27.5 kg/m^2. Despite gradually increasing the dose to 500mg three times a day, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea. He attempted to lower the dose to 500mg twice a day, but his symptoms persisted. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start modified release metformin 500mg od with evening meal

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to gradually increase the dosage of metformin and wait for at least a week before making any further adjustments. In case a patient experiences intolerance to regular metformin, it is advisable to switch to modified-release formulations as they have been found to cause fewer gastrointestinal side effects in such patients.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 119 - Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Valid for patients aged 40-90 years

      Explanation:

      Patients between the ages of 40 and 90 are eligible to use FRAX.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

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  • Question 120 - A 40-year-old woman has poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. She is unable...

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    • A 40-year-old woman has poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. She is unable to tolerate metformin and so takes sitagliptin. Given her poor control, pioglitazone is added. She has read some information online about pioglitazone and would like some more information.
      What is the best advice you can provide her about the potential effects of pioglitazone use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitoring of liver function advisable

      Explanation:

      Important Considerations for the Use of Pioglitazone in Diabetes Management

      Pioglitazone is a medication approved for the treatment of poorly controlled type II diabetes mellitus. It can be used alone or in combination with other medications, including metformin or sulphonylurea, or with insulin. However, there are several important considerations to keep in mind when using pioglitazone.

      Liver function monitoring is advisable before starting treatment and periodically thereafter due to rare reports of liver dysfunction. Pioglitazone should not be used during pregnancy due to demonstrated toxicity in animal studies. Additionally, it is associated with a small increased risk of bladder cancer and should not be used in those with active bladder cancer, a history of bladder cancer, or those under investigation for haematuria.

      While pioglitazone can be prescribed together with metformin as second-line management for diabetes, it should not be used in patients with heart failure or a history of heart failure. The incidence of heart failure is increased when pioglitazone is combined with insulin, especially in patients with predisposing illness such as myocardial infarction.

      In summary, pioglitazone can be a useful medication for diabetes management, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits and monitor patients appropriately.

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  • Question 121 - Mrs. Smith is a 70-year-old widow who presents with easy bruising. There is...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith is a 70-year-old widow who presents with easy bruising. There is no history of abnormal bleeding apart from some gum bleeding when brushing teeth, and no family history of bleeding problems. She rarely drinks alcohol. General examination including examination of the liver and of lymph nodes is normal; there are multiple small bruises on the limbs - no purpura or petechiae. You check her medication list and find no item that might be the cause. You arrange some blood tests including full blood count, blood film, renal profile, bone profile, liver function, and clotting screen, which are all unremarkable. You suspect the cause might be due to a 'tea and toast' diet after her husband passed away.

      What dietary supplement could you consider as the next step for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Easy bruising may be caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet. Calcium, magnesium, and thiamine deficiencies are not likely to be the cause of easy bruising. Scurvy, a condition caused by vitamin C deficiency, can also lead to bleeding gums. To address this issue, it may be helpful to try increasing vitamin C and/or K intake through dietary changes or supplements. Citrus fruits and tomatoes are good sources of vitamin C.

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.

      The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.

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  • Question 122 - Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest HbA1c result. It has gone up to 66 mmol/mol since the last check. She is already taking metformin and gliclazide. You advise adding in a third blood glucose lowering drug, and agree on trying canagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. You counsel her that it will cause a slight increase in urine volume and risk of urinary and genital infections, including rare reports of Fournier's gangrene, but that it can have beneficial side effects of weight loss and possibly improves cardiovascular outcomes. You also mention that the MHRA have issued an alert about an uncommon but important possible hazard of treatment with SGLT2 inhibitors.

      What specific aspect of routine diabetes care is crucial in preventing or detecting this potential side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foot check

      Explanation:

      Patients taking canagliflozin should have their legs and feet closely monitored for ulcers or infection due to the possible increased risk of amputation. It is important for these patients to attend regular foot checks and practice good foot care. Eye screening, influenza vaccination, and shingles vaccination are not affected by SGLT2 inhibitors and should be attended as normal.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 123 - A 30-year-old overweight woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. She has been unable...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old overweight woman presents with hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea. She has been unable to conceive for 2 years. The adrenals appear normal on ultrasound scanning, but an ovarian ultrasound scan reveals numerous small cysts in both ovaries.
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's condition is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sex hormone-binding globulin is often low in sufferers with this condition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS)

      Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder affecting 8 to 22% of women. Diagnosis requires the presence of at least two of the following: polycystic ovaries, oligo-ovulation or anovulation, and clinical or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism. One of the key features of PCOS is low levels of sex hormone-binding globulin, which is a marker for insulin resistance. This can lead to hyperandrogenism and endometrial cancer. While DHEAS levels are usually normal or low, up to 50% of women with PCOS may have elevated levels. Fertility can be affected, with 75% of anovulatory infertility cases being caused by PCOS. Testosterone levels may also be slightly raised, but levels exceeding 5.0 nmol/l should be investigated for other potential causes. The LH/FSH ratio is usually elevated in PCOS, with a normal FSH level. Understanding these key features can aid in the diagnosis and management of PCOS.

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  • Question 124 - Which drug, prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, has been...

    Incorrect

    • Which drug, prescribed for the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus, has been cautioned by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency for its potential to cause severe pancreatitis and renal impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exenatide

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 125 - Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.

      What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

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  • Question 126 - Which one of the following statements regarding bendroflumethiazide is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding bendroflumethiazide is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May cause hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria may be caused by thiazide diuretics.

      The onset of action of bendroflumethiazide is 1 to 2 hours, and its effect lasts for 12 to 24 hours. According to the BNF, the quantity of bendroflumethiazide present in breast milk is insignificant and poses no harm.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

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  • Question 127 - A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily,...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has a BMI of 32.6 kg/m2, smokes thirty cigarettes daily, and drinks four pints of beer in his local pub every week. He is on the pub darts team and claims it is the only exercise he wants or needs.

      He has recently been diagnosed with diabetes by his GP and has been commenced on a diet. He has been told to see you for information regarding foot care.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Types of Diabetes

      There are two major types of diabetes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 diabetes is characterized by a deficiency of insulin and typically affects children. Patients with type 1 diabetes are thin, lose weight, and are treated with insulin. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes affects an older age group and is associated with weight gain (obesity). It is usually treated with diet and/or drugs. Although not inherited in any mendelian fashion, type 2 diabetes has a familial occurrence due to the body type of the family. Iatrogenic diabetes is caused by medical treatments, while mitochondrial diabetes is a very rare form of diabetes resulting from damage to mitochondrial DNA. Finally, secondary diabetes occurs as a consequence of another disease.

      It is important to differentiate between the types of diabetes as this guides treatment. Patients with type 1 diabetes require insulin, while those with type 2 diabetes may initially be treated with diet and/or drugs but may eventually require insulin. Understanding the cause of diabetes is also important in determining the appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 128 - A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman comes in for her annual medication review. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism a few years ago and is taking thyroxine. She recently had her thyroid function tested and her results show a free T4 level of 29 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-25) and a TSH level of 12 mU/L (0.5-6.0). What is the reason for her abnormal results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Under-replacement of thyroxine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Thyroid Function Tests

      In this case, a patient with hypothyroidism is prescribed thyroxine replacement, but her latest blood tests show elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4). Abnormal hormone binding due to pregnancy or drugs like amiodarone can cause raised T4 with normal TSH. Sick euthyroidism can cause low T4, T3, and TSH, but it should revert to normal after recovery from non-thyroidal illness. Subacute thyroiditis causes hyperthyroidism, painful goitre, and high ESR, but it is self-limiting. Under-replacement of thyroxine causes high TSH and low T4.

      The correct answer in this case is medication non-compliance, which is the only option that can account for the test results. Patients may start taking their thyroxine again before testing to avoid showing irregular dosing. Erratic thyroxine dosing causes elevated TSH due to under-replacement, but recent use of thyroxine causes normal to high T4. Understanding the various causes of abnormal thyroid function tests can help diagnose and manage thyroid disorders effectively.

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  • Question 129 - You advise a 50-year-old man that he needs to have a colonoscopy because...

    Incorrect

    • You advise a 50-year-old man that he needs to have a colonoscopy because of persistent abdominal discomfort. He has a history of ulcerative colitis.

      What advice do you give regarding his mesalamine dosage on the day of the colonoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double the oral dose after the procedure

      Explanation:

      Management of Addison’s Disease

      For minor surgeries like barium enema, endoscopy, and cataract surgery, the standard approach is to administer 50-100 mg of hydrocortisone orally or parenterally just before the procedure. There should be no change in dosage, but acute management doses should be used for major surgeries. After the surgery, patients should return to their normal daily medication.

      However, questions about the management of Addison’s disease are often poorly answered. It is essential to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to know when to double the dose of hydrocortisone, when to administer IM hydrocortisone, and how much to give. It is also important to note that some formulations are not suitable, and it is usually the hydrocortisone that is increased. Additionally, knowing what to do if a patient with Addison’s starts vomiting is crucial. These are all important learning points that fall under the less common but potentially catastrophic if missed in primary care category.

      In summary, managing Addison’s disease requires a thorough understanding of the sick day rules and the appropriate administration of hydrocortisone. Being prepared for potential complications is crucial for providing optimal care to patients with Addison’s disease.

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  • Question 130 - A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo fertility treatment currently. What is the most suitable course of treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular testosterone injections

      Explanation:

      Options for Testosterone Replacement Therapy

      Testosterone replacement therapy is a common treatment for men with low testosterone levels. There are several options available, including testosterone undecanoate for oral use, injections, implants, patches, and gels. However, intramuscular depot preparations of testosterone esters are preferred for replacement therapy, according to the British National Formulary. One long-acting injectable formulation of testosterone undecanoate needs to be used only every 10–14 weeks.

      Regular injections of human chorionic gonadotrophin and pulsatile subcutaneous administration of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) are not recommended for testosterone replacement therapy. While chorionic gonadotrophin has been used in delayed puberty in males, it has little advantage over testosterone. GnRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary in normal subjects and is used to check whether the pituitary gland can produce LH and FSH in the correct levels.

      Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen and is not used for testosterone replacement therapy. Regular injections of human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG) have been replaced by recombinant gonadotrophins in fertility treatments.

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  • Question 131 - A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the diabetic clinic for a check-up. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes a decade ago. Although his control has not always been optimal, he has no cardiovascular risk factors except for his diabetes. His blood pressure has consistently been within the normal range, and he is not taking any medication for it. However, his most recent yearly urine albumin: creatinine ratio was elevated, and microalbuminuria has been verified with two additional samples. What course of action should be advised now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diuretic

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Microalbuminuria

      In cases of confirmed microalbuminuria, even if the patient is normotensive, it is recommended by NICE guidance to start an ACE inhibitor. The dose should be gradually increased until the full dose is reached. If the patient experiences poor tolerance, an Angiotensin receptor blocker can be used as an alternative. It is important to maintain blood pressure below 130/80 mmHg (140/80 if there is no kidney involvement).

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  • Question 132 - A 27-year-old Muslim woman who works night shifts visits your clinic. What vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Muslim woman who works night shifts visits your clinic. What vitamin or mineral deficiencies should she be cautious of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D Deficiency and Risk Factors

      People who have limited exposure to sunlight, such as those who cover their skin for cultural reasons, are at risk of vitamin D deficiency. This is also true for individuals who work night shifts and sleep during the day, as well as those who are housebound or have darker skin. Pregnant women in these groups are especially vulnerable and should be offered supplements.

      While a varied diet can help prevent deficiencies in other vitamins and minerals, it may not be enough to prevent vitamin D deficiency. This is because only a small percentage of vitamin D is obtained from diet, with the majority coming from sunlight exposure on the skin. Therefore, it is important for individuals in at-risk groups to consider taking supplements to ensure adequate vitamin D levels.

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  • Question 133 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and iron-deficiency anaemia after complaining of feeling very tired. She was started on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate and has been taking these for the last six months. Three months ago her blood tests showed:

      Haemoglobin 120 g/L (115-160 g/L)
      Ferritin 60 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 6.9 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)

      She was continued on levothyroxine and ferrous sulphate tablets for a further 3 months. Her blood tests were repeated today which show:

      Haemoglobin 130 g/L (115-160 g/L)
      Ferritin 110 ng/mL (20-230 ng/ml)
      TSH 7 mu/L (0.5-5.5 mu/L)

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the iron supplementation and continue levothyroxine at the current dose

      Explanation:

      To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be given four hours apart. The patient’s blood results indicate that her iron levels have been replenished and her blood count is now normal, but her thyroid-stimulating hormone level remains elevated. According to NICE guidelines, iron treatment should be continued for three more months after normalizing haemoglobin concentrations and blood counts before being discontinued. Since the patient’s iron levels are now normal, continuing ferrous sulphate is unnecessary and may hinder the absorption of levothyroxine. Therefore, it is advisable to discontinue iron and observe if her thyroid hormone levels normalize before adjusting her levothyroxine dosage.

      If a patient with hypothyroidism has a structural change in the thyroid gland or is suspected of having an underlying endocrine disease such as Addison’s disease, they should be referred to endocrinology. However, this patient doesn’t appear to have any of these conditions, but it is essential to conduct a neck examination to ensure that there are no palpable masses.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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  • Question 134 - A 67-year-old woman smoker comes to the clinic for evaluation. She is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman smoker comes to the clinic for evaluation. She is concerned about the possibility of osteoporosis after experiencing a fall while out in town. Her BMI is 20 and she went through menopause at age 50. She maintains a healthy diet and exercises regularly. A DEXA scan shows a T score of −1.8. What is the appropriate management plan to decrease her risk of future fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should be started on PTH injections

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteopaenia

      Osteopaenia doesn’t require specific treatment. If the patient’s diet includes enough dairy products and calcium, and their renal function is normal, calcium and vitamin D replacement may not be necessary. Treatments for osteoporosis, such as bisphosphonates or PTH, may also not be needed. However, smoking is linked to increased loss of bone mineral density, so quitting smoking is crucial for maintaining bone health.

      In summary, managing osteopaenia involves ensuring a balanced diet and avoiding smoking. While medication may not be necessary, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for individual cases.

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  • Question 135 - A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old wrestler presents with complaints of increased thirst and frequent urination. A urine dip reveals low specific gravity and no other abnormalities, and cultures come back negative. The recent venous blood gas results are as follows:

      - Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Glucose 3.9 mmol/L (3.6 - 5.3)
      - Creatinine 60 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Bicarbonate 27 mmol/L (22 - 29)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Consider diabetes insipidus as the possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with polyuria and polydipsia, along with low potassium levels and no evidence of diabetes mellitus. The patient being a boxer may suggest head trauma, which is one of the potential causes of cranial diabetes insipidus. In this condition, urine cannot be effectively concentrated due to damage to the cranial source of ADH. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, occurs when the kidneys do not respond to ADH appropriately.

      Addison’s disease is less likely as it would not cause increased urination, and the patient would try to preserve water to compensate for dehydration. Additionally, Addison’s disease would cause elevated potassium levels and is unlikely without abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.

      Cushing’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis as the patient doesn’t present with the classical signs and symptoms such as central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, psychological problems, and glucose intolerance.

      Type I diabetes is unlikely as there is no glucose in the urine and normal glucose on VBG. Onset of type I diabetes at the age of 42 is also uncommon.

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

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  • Question 136 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:

      - Sodium: 146 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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  • Question 137 - You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes...

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    • You assess a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus in the diabetes clinic. His current blood pressure is 150/86 mmHg. His diabetes is well managed and there is no indication of end-organ damage. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For individuals with type 2 diabetes, NICE suggests the following target for blood pressure:

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

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  • Question 138 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell...

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    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.

      On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.

      How would you manage her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review next day

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.

      The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.

      It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 139 - A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole...

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    • A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

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  • Question 140 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent...

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    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent microalbuminuria.
      She is taking twice daily premixed insulin.
      On examination:
      Blood pressure 128/80 mmHg -
      HbA1c <48 mmol/mol (20-46)
      <6.5% (3.8-6.4)
      What would be the next most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid excessive exercise

      Explanation:

      Management of Microalbuminuria in Type 1 Diabetes

      This patient with Type 1 diabetes has persistent microalbuminuria, putting them at risk of developing albuminuria and end-stage renal disease. Studies have shown that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can reduce the progression to albuminuria in hypertensive patients and also decrease microalbuminuria in normotensive Type 1 diabetics. However, since the patient’s HbA1c is satisfactory, there is no need to alter their current therapy. Metformin is not recommended for this type of patient, and there is no known benefit to dietary restriction or avoiding exercise in those with microalbuminuria. By managing microalbuminuria in Type 1 diabetes, patients can reduce their risk of developing more severe kidney disease.

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  • Question 141 - What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding the management of thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical treatment should be considered for patients with large goitres

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism: Medications, Radio-Iodine, and Surgery

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, tremors, and tachycardia. Carbimazole and propylthiouracil are medications used to treat hyperthyroidism, but they require monitoring and should be initiated under specialist advice. A β-blocker may also be used to relieve adrenergic symptoms. Treatment is typically on a titration-block or block-and-replace regime, with a remission rate of about 50% after 6-18 months of treatment.

      Radio-iodine is another treatment option for hyperthyroidism, particularly for toxic nodular hyperthyroidism or when medical treatment is not effective. However, it is contraindicated in thyroid eye disease and pregnancy, and can lead to hypothyroidism in 80% of patients. There is no increased risk of cancer from radio-iodine treatment.

      Surgical treatment by total or near-total thyroidectomy may be necessary for recurrent hyperthyroidism after drug treatment, compression symptoms from a large toxic multinodular goitre, potentially malignant thyroid nodules, or in certain cases of pregnancy or active eye disease.

      Overall, treatment options for hyperthyroidism should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist to determine the best course of action.

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  • Question 142 - A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss...

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    • A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of low libido, erectile dysfunction and loss of early-morning erections. His testes appear normal but his serum testosterone is 10 nmol/l (reference range 11–36 nmol/l).
      Which of the following statements regarding this patient's presentation is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A recent acute illness such as pneumonia could explain a low testosterone result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypogonadism: Interpreting Testosterone Results and Treatment Considerations

      Hypogonadism, or low testosterone, can present with a variety of symptoms including low libido, erectile dysfunction, and loss of early morning erections. When low testosterone is detected, further testing with follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin measurements can help distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism.

      There are several factors that can contribute to reversible hypogonadism, including concurrent illness, certain medications, and lifestyle factors such as excessive alcohol consumption and stress. However, it is important to note that hypogonadism should be treated with testosterone replacement therapy, regardless of age, but only after confirming the diagnosis with repeat testing.

      It is also important to consider age-related declines in testosterone levels, which typically occur after the age of 30. However, this decline may be a result of deteriorating general health rather than the cause. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret testosterone results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and overall health status.

      In cases where hypogonadism is suspected, referral to an endocrinologist may be necessary if there are suggestive clinical symptoms and chronic androgen deficiency. However, it is important to note that testosterone replacement therapy should not be initiated solely based on age or a single low testosterone result.

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  • Question 143 - A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules

      When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.

      Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).

      Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.

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  • Question 144 - A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man takes antihypertensive drugs and in addition, a statin for the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is otherwise well and takes no other medication. He has some bloods taken at his annual review, including for thyroid function. His thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 0.1 mU/L, free thyroxine (T4) 21 pmol/l and triiodothyronine (T3) 4.3 pmol/l. Repeat testing shows similar results. His thyroid gland is not enlarged or tender.
      Which of the following conditions is this patient most at risk from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Subclinical Hyperthyroidism: Risks and Treatment Recommendations

      Subclinical hyperthyroidism is characterized by persistently low TSH levels of less than 0.4 mU/L with normal T4 and T3 levels. This condition has been associated with an increased risk of atrial fibrillation, particularly in elderly populations. Studies have reported a 13% incidence of atrial fibrillation in subclinical hyperthyroidism compared to 2% in controls. Additionally, there is evidence of decreased bone mineral density, especially in postmenopausal women. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends referral to an endocrinologist for persistent subclinical hyperthyroidism. Treatment is usually offered to those with a TSH level persistently equal to or less than 0.1 mU/L, aged 65 years or older, postmenopausal, at risk of osteoporosis, have cardiac risk factors, or have any symptoms of hyperthyroidism. However, there is no evidence of changes in mood or cognitive function in patients with subclinical hyperthyroidism. It is important to note that subclinical hyperthyroidism doesn’t lead to hypothyroidism or thyroid cancer.

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  • Question 145 - A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with extreme lethargy at two weeks after the birth of her third child by emergency Caesarean section. After the birth, she needed a blood transfusion. She complained to the health visitor of increasing problems some seven days earlier but was told that this was to be expected after the birth of her child. She has a sodium concentration of 120 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l), a potassium concentration of 5.6 mmol/l (3.5–5.0 mmol/l) and a urea of 7.5 mmol/l (2.5–6.5 mmol/l.)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sheehan Syndrome: A Rare Cause of Hypopituitarism

      Sheehan syndrome is a rare condition that occurs as a result of severe hypotension caused by massive hemorrhage during or after childbirth, leading to necrosis of the pituitary gland. This condition is more common in underdeveloped and developing countries. Patients with Sheehan syndrome have varying degrees of anterior pituitary hormone deficiency, which can present progressively with symptoms such as failure to lactate, breast involution, and amenorrhea.

      In this case, the patient suffered from hypotension and blood loss during an emergency Caesarean section, leading to pituitary infarction and symptoms of hypoadrenalism. Treatment includes fluid rehydration and emergency steroid replacement with intravenous hydrocortisone, as well as thyroxine replacement for pituitary-dependent hypothyroidism. Restoration of fertility may require pulsed delivery of pituitary sex-axis hormones.

      Other potential causes of the patient’s symptoms, such as dehydration, hypothyroidism, and postnatal depression, were ruled out based on the lack of relevant history and electrolyte abnormalities. While primary adrenal failure can also cause hypoadrenalism, the preceding events make Sheehan syndrome a more likely diagnosis.

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  • Question 146 - As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man...

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, you receive a lab report for a 75-year-old man who has undergone routine blood tests to monitor his Antihypertensive medication.

      The blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      eGFR 85 ml/min/1.73m2

      Upon calling the patient, he reports no symptoms and confirms that he is taking his regular lisinopril and amlodipine.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital

      Explanation:

      Patients who have acute severe hyponatraemia, which is defined as having a serum sodium concentration of less than 125 mmol/L, must be urgently hospitalized, as per the current NICE CKS guidelines. Therefore, referring the patient to a routine endocrinology clinic is not appropriate, as immediate action is necessary. Although diuretics like bendroflumethiazide can cause low sodium, it would be inappropriate to wait for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium levels. Similarly, ramipril can also cause low sodium, but waiting for 2 weeks before repeating the sodium level would be inappropriate, and urgent measures must be taken. Waiting for 2 weeks for repeat blood tests is not appropriate, and the patient should be admitted to the hospital due to the low level of serum sodium.

      Understanding Hyponatraemia: Causes and Diagnosis

      Hyponatraemia is a condition that can be caused by either an excess of water or a depletion of sodium in the body. However, it is important to note that there are also cases of pseudohyponatraemia, which can be caused by factors such as hyperlipidaemia or taking blood from a drip arm. To diagnose hyponatraemia, doctors often look at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity.

      If the urinary sodium level is above 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to renal loss or the use of diuretics such as thiazides or loop diuretics. Other possible causes include Addison’s disease or the diuretic stage of renal failure. On the other hand, if the patient is euvolaemic, it may be due to conditions such as SIADH (urine osmolality > 500 mmol/kg) or hypothyroidism.

      If the urinary sodium level is below 20 mmol/l, it may indicate sodium depletion due to extra-renal loss caused by conditions such as diarrhoea, vomiting, sweating, burns, or adenoma of rectum. Alternatively, it may be due to water excess, which can cause the patient to be hypervolaemic and oedematous. This can be caused by conditions such as secondary hyperaldosteronism, nephrotic syndrome, IV dextrose, or psychogenic polydipsia.

      In summary, hyponatraemia can be caused by a variety of factors, and it is important to diagnose the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. By looking at the levels of urinary sodium and osmolarity, doctors can determine the cause of hyponatraemia and provide the necessary interventions.

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  • Question 147 - You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously saw for erectile dysfunction (ED) two weeks ago. You ordered some blood tests, and the results have come back with abnormal findings. The patient's HbA1c and lipid profile are both within normal limits, but his total testosterone level is low at 9 nmol/l (normal is >12 nmol/l).

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the testosterone level and check follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

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  • Question 148 - A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes attends annual review at the GP practice. She currently takes lisinopril 10 mg OM, atorvastatin 20 mg ON, metformin 1 g BD, pioglitazone 45 mg OM and gliclazide 80 mg OM.

      You discuss her progress and she tells you that she has episodes in the late morning where she feels generally out of sorts with lightheadedness and has had some blurred vision. She has checked her blood sugar during one of these episodes and it is 2.5 mmol/L (3-6).

      Which one of her medicines is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cause of Hypoglycaemic Episodes

      This patient is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes that are causing symptoms of blurred vision and lightheadedness. The most likely cause of these episodes is the sulphonylurea medication. Sulphonylureas stimulate insulin secretion, which can lead to significant problems with hypoglycaemia. On the other hand, metformin increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis, while pioglitazone reduces insulin resistance. Hypoglycaemia is uncommon with these medications. The ACE inhibitor or statin would not be a factor in this presentation.

      Gliclazide is a good choice of sulphonylurea as it is often the longer acting agents such as glibenclamide that cause more profound and severe problems with hypoglycaemia. However, it is important to note that all sulphonylureas carry the risk of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the cause of hypoglycaemic episodes is crucial in managing diabetes and ensuring the safety of patients.

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  • Question 149 - During a routine postnatal check, a 29 year old woman presents with no...

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    • During a routine postnatal check, a 29 year old woman presents with no underlying medical comorbidities and is currently breastfeeding her baby. She maintains a normal, varied diet. What daily supplements, if any, would you recommend for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D

      Explanation:

      To promote the bone health of both the mother and child, the NHS recommends that pregnant and breastfeeding women take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10mcg. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may be able to receive free supplements, which can be discussed with their Health Visitor.

      For women who are trying to conceive up until 12 weeks of gestation, it is recommended to take a daily supplement of folic acid 400mcg. Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may need to take a B12 supplement. It is important for pregnant women to check that any multivitamin tablets they take do not contain high doses of vitamin A, as this can be harmful to the developing fetus.

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

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  • Question 150 - A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m²...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient on your practice list has a BMI of 52 kg/m² and is interested in bariatric surgery. They have no co-morbidities or contraindications for surgery.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      For adults with a BMI greater than 50 kg/m², bariatric surgery can be considered as the first-line option without any restrictions on referral. However, if the patient has medical conditions that are affected by weight, referral for surgery can be considered at a BMI greater than 35 kg/m². The decision to undergo surgery will involve an anaesthetic risk assessment based on various factors. Patients with a BMI greater than 40 kg/m² can be referred for bariatric surgery without the need for a medical condition affected by weight. While a dietary management plan may be beneficial, it is not necessary to delay the request for surgical consideration by another 6 months. Orlistat can be tried while waiting for surgical assessment, but it doesn’t need to delay the referral.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

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  • Question 151 - A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with type 1 diabetes has been diagnosed with microalbuminuria during his yearly check-up. He is aware of other patients with type 1 diabetes who have developed renal failure and required dialysis a few years after being diagnosed with nephropathy. When examining his vascular risk profile, which parameter is most likely to decrease the risk of future renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Nephropathy Progression

      Tight control of blood pressure and glucose levels is crucial in managing the progression of nephropathy. The recommended target for systolic blood pressure is 130 or less, while the HbA1c target should be less than 53 mmol/mol. Although BMI, diastolic blood pressure, and cholesterol are relevant factors, they are less significant compared to blood pressure and glucose control.

      Among all antihypertensives, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) have the strongest evidence for reducing nephropathy progression. Therefore, it is important to prioritize these medications in the management of nephropathy. Proper management of blood pressure and glucose levels, along with the use of ACE inhibitors and ARBs, can significantly slow down the progression of nephropathy.

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  • Question 152 - A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s...

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    • A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.

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  • Question 153 - A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. Initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. The physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most beneficial tumour marker investigation for this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumour Markers and their Clinical Applications

      Monoclonal antibodies are utilized to detect serum antigens associated with specific malignancies. These tumour markers are most useful for monitoring response to therapy and detecting early relapse. However, with the exception of PSA, tumour markers do not have sufficient sensitivity or specificity for use in screening.

      PSA, or prostate specific antigen, is a useful marker for screening for prostate cancer, although population screening is controversial. It can also be used to detect recurrence of the malignancy and is useful in the investigation of adenocarcinoma of unknown primary. Hypercalcaemia and bone pain may suggest metastatic carcinoma, which is common in prostate cancer.

      CA 19-9, AFP, beta-HCG, and CEA are other tumour markers that are used for different types of cancer. CA 19-9 is helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses, AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma, beta-HCG is used in the diagnosis and management of gestational trophoblastic disease and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours of the testes, and CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, tumour markers have various clinical applications in the diagnosis, treatment, and monitoring of cancer. However, their sensitivity and specificity may vary, and they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tools for accurate diagnosis and management of cancer.

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  • Question 154 - A 49-year-old lady has obesity with a BMI of 37 kg/m2 and her...

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    • A 49-year-old lady has obesity with a BMI of 37 kg/m2 and her waist measurement is 115 cm (which is very high). She gained most of the weight about 10 years ago and since that time she has tried many different forms of diets and weight-loss clubs. Although she enjoys swimming she is finding it harder to keep up her exercise and walking is restricted to a few hundred metres because of foot pain.

      On further questioning, it is evident that her diet is quite reasonable consisting of about 1800 KCal per day. She eats breakfast, bases her meals on starchy foods, eats plenty of fibre and at eats at least five portions of vegetables or fruit per day.

      According to NICE guidance on Obesity (CG43), which of the following management strategies would be advisable for this lady?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diet and physical activity, consider drugs

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommendations for Managing Obesity

      According to the NICE Obesity (CG189) guidelines, the first step in managing obesity is to classify the level of obesity. This can be done by referring to the BMI classification table, which ranges from healthy weight to Obesity III (BMI of 40 or more). In addition, waist circumference is also taken into consideration.

      For a patient with a high waist circumference (>88 cm) and no co-morbidities, the initial management should involve diet and exercise, with the possibility of drug treatment. If the patient’s condition persists for more than 12 weeks, low-calorie diets and bariatric surgery may be considered, but only after specialist referral.

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  • Question 155 - A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

    Her body mass index has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female attends the diabetic annual review clinic.

      Her body mass index has increased over the year to 33.3 kg/m2.

      How do you calculate body mass index?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight/(Height)2

      Explanation:

      Understanding BMI and its Implications

      Body:

      BMI, or Body Mass Index, is a crucial calculation in the field of anthropometry. It is determined by dividing an individual’s weight by the square of their height, and is measured in kg/m2. The resulting number can be used to categorize a person’s weight status into four groups: underweight (less than 18.5), normal (18.5-24.9), overweight (25-29.9), and obese (greater than 30).

      It is important to note that a BMI above 30 is considered obese and can have serious implications for an individual’s health. Studies have shown that obesity is linked to an increased risk of developing diabetes, cancer, osteoarthritis, and depression. Additionally, obesity can increase the risk of surgical complications, such as wound infection and dehiscence, venous thrombolembolism, incisional hernia, MI, and even death.

      Therefore, understanding BMI and its implications is crucial for maintaining good health and preventing potential health risks. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine an appropriate BMI range for an individual’s unique needs and circumstances.

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  • Question 156 - A 52-year-old patient with Type II diabetes attends the clinic seeking guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old patient with Type II diabetes attends the clinic seeking guidance on dietary recommendations for managing their condition.
      Choose from the options below the one food that will cause the quickest increase in blood glucose levels.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cornflakes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Glycaemic Index: Comparing the Effect of Different Foods on Blood Glucose Levels

      The glycaemic index is a measure of how quickly a carbohydrate-containing food raises blood glucose levels. It compares the digestion rate of a food to that of glucose, which has a glycaemic index of 100. Choosing foods with a lower glycaemic index can help regulate blood glucose levels in people with diabetes.

      In this list, cornflakes have the highest glycaemic index (80), while bananas (58), carrots (41), yoghurt (33), and peanuts (14) have lower glycaemic indices. However, other factors such as cooking methods, ripeness of fruits and vegetables, and the fat or protein content of a meal can also affect the glycaemic index of a food. For example, chocolate has a low glycaemic index due to its fat content, which slows down carbohydrate absorption.

      Understanding the glycaemic index can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels effectively.

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  • Question 157 - A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few...

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    • A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue for the past few months. She reports having missed her period for six months and experiences dizziness in the morning. Addison's disease is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which of the following clinical manifestations is the most specific for Addison's disease?
      Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pigmentation of the palms

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Hypoadrenalism and Hypopituitarism

      Hypoadrenalism, also known as Addison’s disease, can be caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, granulomatous disorders, tuberculosis, tumours, or infections. Glucocorticoid deficiency, commonly seen in Addison’s disease, can cause pigmentation of the palms due to elevated levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Hypopituitarism can cause a variety of symptoms, including pallor due to normochromic, normocytic anaemia, postural hypotension related to glucocorticoid deficiency, and visual-field defects from pressure on the optic nerve caused by a pituitary tumour. Lack of body hair and amenorrhoea are also features of hypogonadism in hypopituitarism.

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  • Question 158 - A 65-year old woman comes to your clinic concerned about the possibility of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old woman comes to your clinic concerned about the possibility of having diabetes. She is overweight and has a significant family history of type 2 diabetes. Due to her chronic kidney disease, you opt to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test instead of testing her HbA1c. What outcome would indicate that she has impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting plasma glucose = 5.5mmol/L, two hour oral glucose tolerance test = 9.8mmol/L,

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is characterized by a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value between 7.8 mmol/l and 11.1 mmol/l. Only option 4 meets these criteria. Options 1 and 2 indicate normal results with a fasting plasma glucose level below 5.5 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level below 7.8 mmol/l. Options 3 and 5 indicate a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus with a fasting plasma glucose level above 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour plasma glucose level above 11.1 mmol/l.

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.

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  • Question 159 - An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:

      Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
      TSH 14.3 mu/l

      What should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

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  • Question 160 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

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    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

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  • Question 161 - A 53-year-old publican is obese with a BMI of 32 and has hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old publican is obese with a BMI of 32 and has hypertension, which is poorly controlled on atenolol, ramipril and bendroflumethiazide. A recent fasting blood glucose test has revealed type 2 diabetes. On examination he looks cushingoid and is obese, with a blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg. You order a 24-h urinary free cortisol estimation, which turns out to be just above the normal range. An overnight dexamethasone suppression test is normal.
      Select the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudo-Cushing’s

      Explanation:

      Pseudo-Cushing’s Syndrome in an Obese Patient with Alcohol Excess: Diagnosis and Management

      Obese patients who consume alcohol excessively may develop a cushingoid appearance, which can be mistaken for Cushing’s disease. However, normal results on screening tests for Cushing’s disease, such as the dexamethasone suppression test and 24-hour urinary free cortisol, rule out true Cushing’s disease and indicate pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome. Lifestyle measures to promote weight loss and strict control of alcohol intake are essential for management, along with appropriate treatment for comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes. Diagnostic tests for Cushing syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol and low-dose dexamethasone suppression test, but false-positive and false-negative results can occur. Primary aldosteronism is unlikely in this case.

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  • Question 162 - A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female comes to her doctor with a complaint of feeling tired for the past two months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      Na+ 128 mmol/l
      K+ 5.6 mmol/l
      Urea 5.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 99 µmol/l
      Total T4 66 nmol/l (70 - 140 nmol/l)

      Which diagnostic test is most likely to reveal the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      The most effective way to diagnose Addison’s disease is through the short synacthen test. If a patient presents with lethargy, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia, it is highly indicative of Addison’s disease. While the patient’s thyroxine level is slightly low, it is unlikely to be the cause of the hyperkalaemia. It is possible that the patient also has hypothyroidism, but this would not fully explain their symptoms.

      Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels

      When investigating a patient suspected of having Addison’s disease, the most definitive test is the ACTH stimulation test, also known as the short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be detected.

      However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level below 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. If the level falls between 100-500 nmol/l, an ACTH stimulation test should be performed.

      It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these levels as well to ensure a proper diagnosis and treatment plan.

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  • Question 163 - A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practitioner, concerned that he is not developing normally. He is one of the shortest boys in his year group, and feels that his genitals are not the same as others in his year group. He is concerned that his voice has not ‘dropped’ and that he doesn't have pubic or axillary hair.
      On examination, he has no pubic, axillary, or facial hair. He has bilaterally descended testes, with a volume of 3 ml each. His father said he was himself a ‘late developer’.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constitutional delay in puberty

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty in boys is when there are no signs of puberty and the testicular volume is less than 4 ml by the age of 14. This occurs in 3% of the population and is often caused by constitutional delay, which is more common in boys and has a family history. In normal puberty, the first stage begins between ten and 12 years with testicular enlargement, followed by other changes such as penile and scrotal enlargement, pubic hair growth, facial hair growth, growth spurt, and voice changes. Kallmann syndrome is a rare inherited condition that causes hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and an impaired sense of smell. Klinefelter syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that causes hypogonadism, sparse facial and body hair, and infertility, but doesn’t fit with the short stature in this case. Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by developmental delay, obesity, hyperphagia, and cryptorchidism or hypogonadism, but there is no mention of obesity or hyperphagia in this case. This boy has started puberty, with testicular growth having started, and can expect normal developmental changes to continue in the usual sequence, though delayed compared with normal puberty.

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  • Question 164 - A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.

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  • Question 165 - A 28-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has normal secondary sexual characteristics. Breast examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate investigation to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hyperprolactinaemia: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the blood. This is most commonly caused by a microadenoma, or a small tumor, in the pituitary gland. Symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia include irregular periods, decreased libido, infertility, and breast milk production in non-pregnant individuals. Mildly elevated prolactin levels should be retested before referral, while levels above 5000 mU/L are diagnostic. Prolactin inhibits gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, which can lead to reduced levels of FSH and LH, as well as lower estrogen levels. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged pituitary fossa in large adenomas, but MRI is preferred for further imaging.

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  • Question 166 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. She is currently in good control and has no concurrent illnesses. What is the recommended frequency for monitoring her blood glucose levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bed

      Explanation:

      For individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is advisable to check their blood glucose levels a minimum of four times daily, which should include prior to every meal and at bedtime.

      Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines

      The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. The condition can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and is associated with micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide useful information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.

      One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be taken into account. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also important, with a recommended frequency of at least 4 times a day, including before meals and before bed. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.

      When it comes to insulin, NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens over twice-daily mixed insulin regimens for all adults. Twice-daily insulin detemir is the preferred regime, with once-daily insulin glargine or insulin detemir as an alternative. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins for mealtime insulin replacement.

      Finally, NICE recommends considering adding metformin if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher. These guidelines provide a useful framework for managing type 1 diabetes and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 167 - What is the correct statement about hypocalcaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about hypocalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The commonest cause in primary care is vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and Treatment in Hypoparathyroidism

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common problem, especially in the elderly, with up to 50% of individuals affected. The majority of vitamin D in the body is synthesized in the skin, with only a small amount coming from the diet. Breastfeeding mothers with low vitamin D levels may lead to hypocalcemia in their children, as breast milk has poor penetration of vitamin D. Patients on antiepileptic drugs and those with small intestinal malabsorption, such as celiac disease, are also at risk for vitamin D deficiency.

      Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve is tapped, and Trousseau’s sign, which involves inflating a blood pressure cuff, are used to diagnose hypocalcemia. Vitamin D requires hydroxylation by the kidney to become active, and the synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D is PTH-dependent. In patients with chronic hypoparathyroidism, treatment with the active vitamin D form, such as alfacalcidol or calcitriol, is necessary. Ergocalciferol may also be used, but higher doses may be required to achieve normocalcemia. Understanding vitamin D deficiency and its treatment is crucial in managing hypoparathyroidism.

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  • Question 168 - A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female patient visits the GP complaining of daily headaches that last most of the day. Despite this, she is able to carry out her usual activities. She also reports experiencing clumsiness and frequently bumping into objects on the periphery of her vision, which has been gradually worsening. Apart from these symptoms, she feels fine. The patient is currently taking the COCP and mentions that she had infrequent periods before starting it, and had not had a period for about a year. On examination, her BMI is 19kg/m², vital signs are normal, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      – Prolactinoma may cause headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects.
      – If a person experiences headaches, amenorrhoea, and visual field defects, a possible underlying condition is prolactinoma.

      Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma

      Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.

      In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.

      Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.

      Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.

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  • Question 169 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for a CT scan with intravenous contrast as part of his medical evaluation. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and depression. The patient is currently taking the following medications:

      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Metformin 1g twice daily
      - Simvastatin 20 mg once nightly
      - Citalopram 20 mg once daily

      According to the BNF guidelines, what is the most appropriate advice to provide regarding his metformin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discontinue on the day of the scan and restart after 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Metformin should not be taken on the day of a procedure involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media, and it should also be avoided for 48 hours following the procedure.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 170 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for the past 2 weeks. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, epilepsy, and polycystic kidney disease. The results of his blood test reveal an abnormality in his electrolyte levels:

      - Na+ 129 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)

      Which medication among his prescriptions is the most likely culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors have been linked to the development of hyponatraemia, a significant electrolyte imbalance. The exact cause of this association is not fully understood, but it may be related to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Conversely, tolvaptan is a medication utilized to manage hypernatraemia in individuals with polycystic kidney disease.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.

      It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.

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  • Question 171 - A 30-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of fleshy nodules on the...

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    • A 30-year-old man visits his family doctor complaining of fleshy nodules on the backs of his elbows. He also has yellow linear deposits in his palmar creases. His fasting serum lipids are as follows: total cholesterol 14.2 mmol/l, triglycerides 16 mmol/l (normal range <1.8 mmol/l). Fasting plasma glucose and renal, liver and thyroid function tests are normal. Urine dipstick testing is normal. The doctor advises him on dietary and lifestyle changes.
      What is the most appropriate medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A statin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperlipidaemia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Hyperlipidaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of lipids in the blood, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease. When it comes to treating hyperlipidaemia, there are several medication options available. Here’s a breakdown of the most common treatments and when they should be used.

      Statin: A first-line treatment for familial mixed hyperlipidaemia, a high-intensity statin such as atorvastatin should be used to achieve a reduction in baseline LDL cholesterol levels of 50% or more. Simvastatin 80 mg can be used if the LDL reduction target is not met within three months.

      Bile-acid sequestrant: This treatment option is used when both a statin and ezetimibe are contraindicated and should be started under specialist guidance.

      Fibrate: The treatment of choice for severe isolated hypertriglyceridaemia, but in mixed hyperlipidaemia, LDL reduction remains the priority, so statins are the first-line treatment.

      Ezetimibe: This medication is the second line if statins are not tolerated or are contraindicated. It can also be co-prescribed if the LDL-reduction target is not reached after three months.

      Nicotinic acid: Not recommended in the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidance for familial hypercholesterolaemia and should not be started in primary care, although specialists may consider its use if other treatments are all contraindicated.

      In conclusion, choosing the right medication for hyperlipidaemia depends on the type and severity of the condition, as well as the patient’s individual needs and medical history. It’s important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

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  • Question 172 - A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is worried about his weight. He has a body mass index of 38 kg/m^2. What is the most appropriate description of his weight?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinically obese (Obese II)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)

      Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight (in kilograms) by the height (in metres) squared. BMI is used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, obese, or morbidly obese.

      The old classification of BMI had five categories, ranging from underweight to morbidly obese. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has simplified the classification into three categories: underweight, normal, and overweight. The overweight category includes both obese and clinically obese individuals.

      It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and doesn’t take into account factors such as muscle mass or body composition. Therefore, it should be used as a general guide and not as a definitive diagnosis. It is always best to consult with a healthcare professional for a more accurate assessment of one’s health status.

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  • Question 173 - A 45-year-old woman presents for a routine blood pressure check. During a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents for a routine blood pressure check. During a recent blood test, she was found to have a blood pressure of 160/80 mmHg and her home blood pressure diary shows similar results. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Her BMI is 24kg/m2. Her blood results are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), Creatinine 61 µmol/L (55 - 120), and TSH 1.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5). What investigation would be most appropriate to request?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin-aldosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      The initial test to investigate primary hyperaldosteronism, the most common secondary cause of hypertension, is the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio. This condition is often referred to as Conn’s syndrome and is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia, although potassium levels may be normal. To obtain accurate results, the test should be performed when the patient is not taking any antihypertensive medication, except for doxazosin.

      If phaeochromocytoma is suspected, a 24-hour urinary metanephrines test can be performed to rule it out. However, as the patient doesn’t exhibit any symptoms such as tremors or headaches, it is less likely to be the cause of hypertension.

      Renal imaging may be necessary if there is a suspicion of structural renal disease, such as polycystic kidney disease, or renal artery stenosis. The latter may be indicated if there is a significant increase in serum creatinine levels in response to ACE-inhibitors/A2RB medications without a corresponding decrease in blood pressure.

      If Addison’s disease is suspected, a 9 am cortisol test may be performed. This condition is characterized by hypotension and hyperkalaemia. On the other hand, if Cushing’s syndrome is suspected, an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is required.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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  • Question 174 - A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue...

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    • A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and depression that has been ongoing for a month. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 126/82 mmHg while lying down and 94/60 mmHg while standing up. Blood tests reveal mild hyponatremia and mild hyperkalemia. The GP orders a short synacthen test, which yields the following results: (expected 30 minute level >580 nmol/l)

      Baseline cortisol 300 nmol/l
      30 minute cortisol 350 nmol/L

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      This individual’s diagnosis of Addison’s disease is confirmed by a failed short synacthen test, which measures the adrenal glands’ response to synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) analogue.

      Autoimmune disease is the leading cause of Addison’s disease in developed countries, while tuberculosis (TB) is the most prevalent cause globally. However, given the patient’s Welsh heritage and lack of TB risk factors, TB is less probable in this scenario. Metastatic disease, amyloidosis, and Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome are all less frequent causes of Addison’s disease.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

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  • Question 175 - A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On...

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    • A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.

      Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².

      Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.

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  • Question 176 - Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old civil engineer who was recently diagnosed with type...

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    • Mrs. Johnson is a 45-year-old civil engineer who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes during her NHS over-40 health check. Your colleague started her on metformin two weeks ago, but she has requested a telephone consultation as she is still experiencing nausea with it. She has tried to persevere but now she has had enough and wants to stop it. Her HbA1c at diagnosis was 52mmol/l. Her body mass index is 30 kg/m². Her renal function is normal.

      What is the most appropriate medication option to try next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Modified-release metformin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences gastrointestinal side-effects with metformin, it is recommended to try a modified-release formulation before considering switching to a second-line agent. While sulphonylurea, pioglitazone, and sitagliptin are potential second-line agents for those who cannot tolerate metformin, NICE advises trying modified-release metformin before considering these alternatives.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 177 - A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A diabetic patient who uses insulin presents to the surgery. Which one of the following statements regarding the application for a group 2 (HGV) driving licence is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Applicants must provide 3 months of blood glucose readings using an electronic monitor

      Explanation:

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 178 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner as she has been found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner as she has been found to have a markedly raised cholesterol level on routine testing. She often feels tired in the daytime but puts this down to her busy lifestyle. She denies any other symptoms and is not on any regular medications.
      On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m2. Her examination is otherwise unremarkable.
      What is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Tests for Investigating Hypercholesterolemia in an Overweight Patient

      When investigating a patient with hypercholesterolemia, it is important to consider potential secondary causes. In an overweight patient with tiredness, hypothyroidism is a common possibility, and a serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) test should be prioritized. Other secondary causes of hyperlipidemia include Cushing syndrome, anorexia nervosa, diabetes mellitus, pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, alcohol abuse, and certain medications. Liver function tests (LFTs) may be useful if obstructive jaundice is suspected or as a baseline prior to starting a statin, but investigating for secondary causes should take priority. Dipstick urinalysis is not typically useful in asymptomatic patients with a single abnormal finding of raised cholesterol. Similarly, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is unlikely to be helpful in determining an underlying diagnosis or ongoing management in the absence of cardiovascular symptoms. While serum triglycerides may be elevated, investigation for secondary causes should take priority.

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  • Question 179 - A 42-year-old female presents with tiredness following a flu like illness 2 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents with tiredness following a flu like illness 2 weeks ago. Investigations reveal:

      Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH 49.3 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      On examination she has a smooth modest goitre and a pulse of 68 bpm.

      Which other investigation would you use to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further investigations necessary

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      These test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely diagnosis is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. A thyroid ultrasound is not necessary, as the goitre appears smooth and there are no indications of malignancy. A radio-iodine uptake scan is also unnecessary, as it is expected to show little or no uptake. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the case here. Overall, these findings suggest a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

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  • Question 180 - A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old truck driver is being assessed. He was detected with type 2 diabetes mellitus last year. After shedding some weight and taking metformin, his HbA1c has dropped from 74 mmol/mol (8.9%) to 68 mmol/mol (8.4%). What would be the most appropriate course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      The most suitable choice for him would be Pioglitazone as it doesn’t pose a risk of hypoglycemia, which could be hazardous considering his profession. Additionally, the utilization of a DPP-4 inhibitor (such as sitagliptin or vildagliptin) would be supported by the NICE guidelines in this scenario.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 181 - A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the asthma clinic. His asthma has been poorly controlled over the last two years and he has seen a number of different practitioners. In an attempt to gain control over his asthma, his inhaled steroids have been increased on several occasions and he has had several prolonged courses of oral steroids. He comments that he has put on a lot of weight over the last four years and bruises easily. He finds that he is tired all the time and finds it difficult to get out of a chair. On examination, he has purple striae over his abdomen and urinalysis is positive to glucose.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cushing Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis

      Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. It can be caused by prolonged use of oral corticosteroids or, in rare cases, by a tumor in the adrenal gland. Patients with Cushing syndrome may present with symptoms such as weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, easy bruising, and thinning of the skin.

      It is important to differentiate Cushing syndrome from other conditions with similar symptoms. Addison’s disease, for example, is caused by adrenal failure and presents with weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Conn syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia due to excess aldosterone secretion from an adrenal adenoma.

      Diabetes mellitus is a common complication of Cushing syndrome, as it can impair glucose metabolism. Hypothyroidism, while also causing fatigue and weight gain, doesn’t typically present with striae or glycosuria.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose Cushing syndrome and differentiate it from other conditions with similar symptoms.

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  • Question 182 - You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 49-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes by your GP colleague. The patient has been prescribed gliclazide and has experienced one instance of mild hypoglycaemia since commencing this medication. The patient inquires about driving his vehicle. What guidance should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must contact DVLA if has two episodes of severe hypoglycaemia in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a Group 1 driver with diabetes is taking oral medication that may cause hypoglycemia, they do not need to inform the DVLA as long as they are being regularly monitored and have not experienced more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year. However, Group 2 drivers must notify the DVLA and adhere to stricter guidelines. If they have had even one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance from another person within the last year, they will not be permitted to drive. Both groups must inform the DVLA if they experience any impairment in their ability to detect hypoglycemia.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

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  • Question 183 - A 38-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m^2 has lost 3 kg...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m^2 has lost 3 kg in the last month and is considering taking a weight loss medication. What is the main mechanism of action of orlistat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic lipase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Orlistat reduces the digestion of fat by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase, which leads to a decrease in the absorption of lipids from the intestine.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 184 - A 25-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus and has started self-monitoring of blood glucose.
      Select from the list the single correct statement about self-monitoring of blood glucose.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Monitoring Blood Glucose Levels in Diabetes

      Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their condition effectively. Here are some guidelines to follow:

      Frequency of Monitoring: Monitoring should be more frequent during a febrile illness, and the frequency should be increased if HBA1c targets are not achieved, hypoglycaemic episodes increase, or if it is a Driver and Vehicle Driving Agency (DVLA) requirement. Monitoring should also be increased before, during, and after sport, during pregnancy and while breastfeeding, and if the patient needs to know the glucose level more than 4 times a day.

      Morning and Evening Testing: Blood glucose should be measured in the morning and evening. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is recommended for all adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, with testing at least 4 times a day, including before each meal and before bedtime.

      Excessive Physical Activity: Monitoring should be more frequent during excessive physical activity as it can cause precipitous drops in blood sugar that should be swiftly remedied.

      Hypoglycaemic Attacks: Self-monitoring is not only effective, but should also be increased if hypoglycaemic episodes become more common.

      Blood Glucose Targets: The target plasma glucose on waking is 7-9 mmol/l. Blood glucose targets are as follows: Fasting plasma glucose level of 5–7 mmol/l on waking, plasma glucose level of 4–7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day, and plasma glucose level of 5–9 mmol/l at least 90 minutes after eating (timing may be different in pregnancy). Bedtime targets may be different and take into account the time of the last meal and the waking target.

      By following these guidelines, individuals with diabetes can effectively manage their condition and prevent complications.

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  • Question 185 - A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a fall a few months ago resulting in a Colles' fracture of her right wrist. A DEXA scan has confirmed that she has osteoporosis. She mentions that she has lost over a stone in weight in the past year despite having a good appetite and wonders if her weight loss could be contributing to her 'thin bones'. She also reports a change in bowel habit with looser stools, but no rectal bleeding or alternating bowel habit. She experiences frequent hot flashes and sweating episodes, and her periods have become less frequent. On examination, her blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and she is apyrexial. Palpating her radial pulse reveals palmar erythema, warm peripheries, and a slight tremor. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses, and per rectal examination is normal.

      What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Osteoporosis

      There are various secondary causes that should be considered when diagnosing osteoporosis. While primary osteoporosis occurs naturally with age and menopause, certain risk factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, family history, and low body mass index can exacerbate bone density loss. However, secondary causes can be treated specifically, making it important to identify them.

      Endocrine causes such as hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism, Cushing’s syndrome, and premature menopause can lead to osteoporosis. Inflammatory causes like rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease, iatrogenic causes such as the use of steroids, anticonvulsants, and heparin, malignant causes like myeloma and leukaemias, and gastrointestinal causes like malabsorption problems can also contribute to osteoporosis.

      For instance, a woman of menopausal age with osteoporosis confirmed on DEXA scanning following a Colles’ fracture reports weight loss, looser stools, sweating episodes, and oligomenorrhoea. Clinical examination reveals a modest tachycardia, warm peripheries, palmar erythema, and a tremor. In this case, hyperthyroidism is suspected as the cause of osteoporosis at a relatively young age and the signs and symptoms elicited. Therefore, thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.

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  • Question 186 - A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate a deficiency in vitamin B12. Which of the following medications could be a contributing factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

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  • Question 187 - A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fracture risk

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

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  • Question 188 - A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents...

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    • A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
      Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
      Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
      Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
      LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
      HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
      Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

      Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

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  • Question 189 - A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What...

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    • A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What statement about exenatide is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The major adverse effect is flu-like symptoms

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common side effect of exenatide, with nausea being the primary adverse reaction.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 190 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She is obese, plethoric, and has significant bruising on her limbs and new striae on her abdomen. Additionally, she has a dorsal kyphosis due to a vertebral collapse earlier this year. What is the most effective way to distinguish Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal adenoma from Cushing syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undetectable serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome can be caused by various factors, including pituitary adenoma, ectopic ACTH secretion, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, adrenal nodular hyperplasia, or excess glucocorticoid administration. To diagnose Cushing syndrome, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Undetectable Serum Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Level: In adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome, the ACTH level is suppressed or undetectable. However, a normal ACTH level can sometimes be found in pituitary-driven Cushing syndrome and ectopic ACTH, as there is overlap between the normal and elevated ranges.

      Raised Urine Cortisol/Creatinine Ratio: This test is not helpful in differentiating the cause of Cushing syndrome as the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio is elevated in all causes.

      0900 h Serum Cortisol of 200 nmol/l after Overnight Low Dose Dexamethasone Test: An unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is diagnostic for Cushing syndrome. However, all causes of Cushing syndrome will give an unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level.

      Normal 0900 h Serum Cortisol Level: The serum cortisol level can be normal in both adrenal and pituitary causes, as it has a wide range of normal. However, there is a loss of diurnal variation with reduced cortisol production in the evening compared with the morning.

      Serum Potassium of 2.2 mmol/l: Serum potassium is most likely to be low in cases of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and can be due to the mineralocorticoid of cortisol itself or in adrenal carcinoma as a result of excessive mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) activity.

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

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  • Question 191 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease...

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    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. It is decided to initiate treatment with atorvastatin 20 mg. Before starting the medication, liver function tests are conducted:

      Bilirubin 10 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      After three months, the LFTs are repeated:

      Bilirubin 12 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
      ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
      ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
      Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)

      What is the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month

      Explanation:

      If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

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  • Question 192 - A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.

      Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:

      TSH 3.2mU/L

      What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily

      Explanation:

      An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 193 - A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading of 60 mmol/mol. He is currently taking the maximum dose of gliclazide as he experiences frequent loose stools with any form of metformin. What additional treatment options would you suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliptin

      Explanation:

      Metformin often causes mild gastrointestinal side effects, particularly when first taken. The severity and duration of these side effects depend on the dosage, but they typically improve over time. To minimize these effects, it’s best to start with a low dose, take the medication with food, and gradually increase the dosage.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

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  • Question 194 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l

      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 195 - A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General...

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    • A 55-year-old man who is a type II diabetic presents to his General Practitioner with concerns about persistent premature ejaculation. He also reports occasional erectile dysfunction. The only medication he takes is metformin. His recent glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) result is 72 mmol/l (normal: 48 mmol/l).
      What is the most appropriate medication alteration required to improve this man’s symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Premature Ejaculation and Erectile Dysfunction in Diabetic Patients

      Premature ejaculation affects a small percentage of men, while over 50% of diabetic men experience erectile dysfunction. When both conditions are present, it is recommended to treat erectile dysfunction first with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor like sildenafil. This medication prevents the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), leading to smooth-muscle relaxation and increased blood flow to the penis for an erection. There is no conclusive evidence that reducing HbA1c levels improves erectile dysfunction. Gliclazide is not the most suitable medication for improving symptoms. Citalopram, an off-licence selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), can treat premature ejaculation but should not be used when erectile dysfunction is present. Dapoxetine is the initial treatment for isolated premature ejaculation in those under 65. Stopping metformin is not recommended as it is not a known cause of premature ejaculation and may still be necessary for diabetic control.

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  • Question 196 - A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.

      Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications

      Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.

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  • Question 197 - A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She feels her symptoms gradually have worsened over several months. On examination she has a normal blood pressure and resting pulse of 100.
      Select the following investigation that is the most appropriate in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: TSH and T4 levels

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which often includes menstrual irregularity or amenorrhoea. Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia due to disturbances in aldosterone and renin levels. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with elevated urinary catecholamines and typically presents with intermittent symptoms such as headache, sweating, tremor, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension. Pituitary failure, which may be caused by a pituitary adenoma or pituitary apoplexy, can result in hypothyroidism as part of panhypopituitarism and is best diagnosed with MRI scanning. While anaemia (full blood count and ferritin) can cause tachycardia, it is unlikely to cause tremor and weight loss.

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  • Question 198 - A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits his GP complaining of milky discharge from his nipples. His blood test results show a prolactin level of 700 mu/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      There are several causes of raised prolactin, which can be remembered using the letter P. These include pregnancy, prolactinoma (a type of pituitary tumor), physiological changes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, primary hypothyroidism, and the use of certain medications such as phenothiazines, metoclopramide, and domperidone. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like fluoxetine have been linked to hyperprolactinemia in rare cases, the most likely culprit in this patient is metoclopramide. It’s worth noting that cimetidine is typically associated with gynecomastia rather than galactorrhea, although this side effect is considered very rare according to the British National Formulary.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

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  • Question 199 - You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours....

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    • You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.

      Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.

      What would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease

      The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.

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  • Question 200 - A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin....

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    • A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.

      Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.

      In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.

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