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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.
What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?Your Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament
Explanation:Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports
Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.
Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 2
Correct
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A man in his forties comes in with chest pain resembling a heart attack and is diagnosed with a myocardial infarction. During his hospitalization, it is discovered that he has familial hypercholesterolemia but his triglyceride levels are normal. What is the underlying biochemical abnormality?
Your Answer: Defective LDL receptors
Explanation:Lipid Metabolism and Transport in the Body
The breakdown of triglycerides in the small intestine is facilitated by pancreatic lipase. These triglycerides are then transported to the liver and other parts of the body through chylomicrons.
Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) is responsible for carrying triglycerides from the liver to peripheral tissues. When there is an overproduction of VLDL in the liver, it can lead to high levels of triglycerides in the body.
Pure hypercholesterolaemia is a condition that arises due to a defect in the process of cholesterol uptake into cells. This process relies on apolipoprotein B-100 binding to LDL receptors and facilitating endocytosis. When this process is disrupted, it can lead to high levels of cholesterol in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is the end result of meiosis in a cell?
Your Answer: 2 haploid cells
Correct Answer: 4 haploid cells
Explanation:Meiosis
Meiosis is a crucial process that occurs in the genetic cells of eukaryotic organisms. Its primary purpose is to recombine genes, which results in genetic variation while also ensuring genetic preservation. Although meiosis shares some similarities with mitosis, it is restricted to genetic cells, also known as gametes, of eukaryotic organisms.
During meiosis, a gamete duplicates each of its chromosomes and divides into two diploid cells. These cells then divide into four haploid cells by the end of the second stage of meiosis (telophase II and cytokinesis). These haploid cells are either sperm cells (male) or eggs (female) in mammals. When these haploid cells fuse together, they produce a diploid zygote that contains two copies of parental genes.
In summary, meiosis is a crucial process that ensures genetic variation and preservation in eukaryotic organisms. It involves the duplication and division of genetic cells into haploid cells, which can then fuse together to produce a diploid zygote.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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What are the typical clinical manifestations of a deficiency in vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?
Your Answer: Sensory neuropathy
Explanation:The Importance of Pyridoxine in the Body
Pyridoxine is a group of B-vitamins that are crucial in various bodily functions. They act as essential cofactors in many reactions, particularly in the metabolism of amino acids and neurotransmitters. Pyridoxine also plays a role in regulating gene transcription and controlling steroid hormones.
The body can produce pyridoxine through bacterial flora in the gut, and it is also present in many dietary sources. However, overheating certain foods can destroy pyridoxine, and some medications can alter its metabolism. Pyridoxine is also used therapeutically to prevent neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis.
Deficiency in pyridoxine can lead to sensory neuropathy, skin changes, and damage to mucous membranes. On the other hand, deficiency in vitamin C can cause gingivitis and increased bleeding, while vitamin K deficiency can also lead to bleeding. Sleep disturbance is rarely attributed to vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency.
In summary, pyridoxine is a vital nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. Its deficiency can lead to various health problems, highlighting the importance of maintaining adequate levels of this vitamin in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What RNA base pairs with adenine when synthesizing a complementary RNA strand from DNA, using RNA polymerase to split the helix at specific points?
Your Answer: Guanine
Correct Answer: Uracil
Explanation:Differences between DNA and RNA
DNA and RNA differ in several ways. The primary sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose. Additionally, DNA is double stranded, while RNA is single stranded. This single stranded structure with un-paired bases allows for transcription to occur when the DNA bases are freed. Each base has a specific pairing, with guanine always binding to cytosine and adenine always binding to thymine in the DNA strand. During transcription, the same complementary RNA bases assemble with the DNA bases, except for thymine, which is not an RNA base. Instead, uracil serves as the RNA pyrimidine base equivalent of thymine. Finally, lysine is an amino acid coded for by the RNA base triplet AAA, where A represents adenine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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In scientific experimentation, what is the term used to describe the movement of charged particles or solutes in a liquid medium due to an electric field?
Your Answer: Electrophoresis
Explanation:Electrophoresis: Separating Molecules Based on Charge and Mass
Electrophoresis is a technique that separates solutes, molecules, or nucleic acids based on their mass and charge. It involves the migration of charged particles in a liquid medium under the influence of an electric field. The apparatus consists of two electrodes placed at either end of a support medium, or gel, which is suspended in a buffer solution. The sample is inserted into a well and a current is applied. Over time, positively charged solutes move towards the negative electrode, while negatively charged substances move towards the positive electrode. Once the migration is complete, the gel is removed and stained to color the substance being tested for, such as protein.
This technique is widely used in medical testing, but it requires a higher degree of operational and interpretive skill than many other tests, which is why it often takes longer to get a result. Electrophoresis has various uses and adaptations, such as standard electrophoresis for protein detection in the diagnosis of myeloma, identification of unusual lipid fractions in patients with inherited diseases, and detection of viral DNA through Southern Blotting. There is also Northern blotting, primarily a research technique at present, which uses electrophoresis to separate RNA. Additionally, Western blotting is used to test for the presence of antibodies to DNA through protein separation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient with varicose veins presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation.
During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the location of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and the veins are emptied by elevating her legs off the couch. The examiner then identifies the site of the sapheno-femoral junction and applies pressure with their fingers. The patient is then asked to stand up to evaluate vein filling.
What is the name of this test?Your Answer: Trendelenburg's test
Explanation:Assessing Varicose Vein Site of Incompetence
The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction site, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction level.
If the veins fill quickly upon standing, it indicates that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence. These tests are essential in determining the location of the varicose vein site of incompetence, which is crucial in planning the appropriate treatment. By identifying the site of incompetence, physicians can perform targeted interventions to improve venous function and alleviate symptoms. Therefore, the Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are valuable tools in the diagnosis and management of varicose veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What occurs during metaphase II of meiosis?
Your Answer: The chromosomes uncoil and lengthen
Correct Answer: The cell's chromosomes attach to the meiotic spindle to divide into chromatids
Explanation:The Process of Meiosis
Meiosis is a complex process that involves two major cycles. The first cycle, meiosis I, condenses the reproductive cell’s DNA into chromosomes that are then replicated, creating two pairs of each original chromosome. These pairs are then separated, and the cell divides with one chromosome in each daughter cell. The second cycle, meiosis II, splits the chromosomes into individual chromatids, which are then separated as in meiosis I. This separation is facilitated by a spindle, a set of parallel fibers that attach to the center of each chromosome and split into two, making the chromatids travel on the polar opposite sides of the cell. The cell then divides again, giving rise to four haploid daughter cells.
During meiosis II, the chromosomes align on the spindle in metaphase II. Tetrads separate during anaphase I and line up during metaphase I. Sister chromatids separate on the meiotic spindle during anaphase II. Finally, chromosomes uncoil and lengthen at the end of meiosis, in telophase II. This process is essential for the production of gametes and the continuation of sexual reproduction in many organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes?
Your Answer: D-amino acid oxidases
Correct Answer: Acid hydrolases
Explanation:Lysosomes: The Digestive System of the Cell
Lysosomes are organelles that come from the Golgi apparatus and are enclosed by a membrane. They are responsible for breaking down various biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases, which are enzymes that cleave chemical bonds by adding water and function at an acidic pH of around 5. They are involved in digesting foreign agents that are internalized by the cell and breaking down other cellular organelles like mitochondria, allowing for their components to be recycled.
The acidic pH within lysosomes is maintained by a proton pump in the lysosomal membrane, which imports protons from the cytosol coupled to ATP hydrolysis. This acidic environment is necessary for the activity of the acid hydrolases. D-amino acid oxidases and peroxidases are not found in lysosomes but in peroxisomes. Alcohol dehydrogenases and ATPases are not involved in digestion but in other cellular functions. Alcohol dehydrogenases catalyze the interconversion between alcohols and aldehydes or ketones with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, while ATPases catalyze the breakdown of ATP into ADP and a phosphate ion, releasing energy for the cell’s functions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Correct
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What could be a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Poorly controlled diabetes
Explanation:Acid-Base Imbalances in Different Medical Conditions
Poorly controlled diabetes can cause the breakdown of fatty acids, leading to the production of ketones as an alternative energy source. However, an excess of ketones can result in metabolic acidosis due to their acidic nature. On the other hand, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and suffocation can cause the retention of carbon dioxide, leading to respiratory acidosis. In COPD, there may be a compensatory metabolic alkalosis. Voluntary hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis due to the reduction of carbon dioxide. Vomiting can also lead to metabolic alkalosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is a complication of type 1 diabetes that results in high blood sugar levels, ketone production, and acidosis.
In summary, different medical conditions can cause acid-base imbalances in the body. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the imbalance to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 11
Correct
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Which process occurs mainly in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Your Answer: Steroid synthesis
Explanation:The Functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum and Lysosomes
The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is a complex network of membranes that is divided into two types: rough and smooth. The rough ER is characterized by the presence of ribosomes on its cytosolic side, which makes it an important site for protein production, modification, and transport. On the other hand, the smooth ER is involved in cholesterol and steroid handling, as well as calcium storage in some cells. This type of ER is particularly prominent in cells that produce large amounts of steroid hormones, such as those found in the adrenal cortex.
Lysosomes, on the other hand, are organelles that are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste. They are formed by the Golgi apparatus, which is another complex network of membranes found in eukaryotic cells. Lysosomes contain a variety of enzymes that are capable of breaking down different types of molecules, including proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.
In summary, the ER and lysosomes are two important organelles in eukaryotic cells that play different roles in cellular metabolism. While the ER is involved in protein production, modification, and transport, the lysosomes are responsible for breaking down and recycling cellular waste.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What significance do leucine, lysine, and phenylalanine hold?
Your Answer: They are essential fatty acids
Correct Answer: They are essential amino acids
Explanation:Essential Amino Acids and their Importance in the Diet
There are approximately 20 essential amino acids that are crucial for human health. These amino acids are considered essential because the body cannot produce them on its own and they must be obtained through the diet. While some of these essential amino acids can be used to create other non-essential amino acids, they are still necessary for overall health and wellbeing.
Some examples of essential amino acids include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. However, the amount of these essential amino acids can vary depending on the type of dietary protein consumed. Additionally, cooking or preserving proteins can alter the amino acid composition, making them less effective for the body.
In summary, essential amino acids play a vital role in maintaining human health and must be obtained through the diet. the importance of these amino acids and their sources can help individuals make informed decisions about their dietary choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Correct
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During which phase of aerobic respiration is FADH2 generated?
Your Answer: Krebs cycle
Explanation:The Krebs Cycle and the Role of FADH2
The Krebs cycle is a crucial part of aerobic respiration in cells. It involves a series of reactions that convert acetate, derived from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins, into carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP. Additionally, the Krebs cycle produces precursors for some amino acids and reducing agents like NADH and FADH2 that are involved in other metabolic pathways.
FAD is a redox cofactor that plays a vital role in the Krebs cycle. It receives two electrons from the sixth reaction of the cycle, where succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into fumarate by removing two hydrogen atoms and attaching them onto FAD. This process results in FAD gaining two electrons and reducing into FADH2.
FADH2 then donates the electrons to the electron transport chain, which is another part of cellular respiration. This mechanism helps compensate for the relatively low amount of ATP produced by the Krebs cycle (2.5 molecules of ATP per turn) compared to the electron transport chain (26-28 molecules of ATP). Overall, the Krebs cycle and the role of FADH2 are essential for generating energy in cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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In which part of the cell are the electron transport chain carriers situated?
Your Answer: Mitochondrial cristae
Explanation:The Electron Transport Chain in Mitochondria
The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial process in cellular aerobic respiration that occurs in the mitochondrial cristae. These are folded membranes inside the organelle. During respiration, NADH and FADH produced from other parts of the process, such as glycolysis, transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors through redox reactions. This electron transfer is coupled with proton transfer across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical proton gradient. This gradient induces the production of ATP, which is used as an energy currency by the cell.
ATP is produced through a mechanism called chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is essential for this process to occur. The cristae provide a large surface area for the ETC to take place, and the mitochondrial membrane is impermeable to protons, allowing for the creation of the proton gradient. The inner membrane also contains ATP synthase, the enzyme responsible for producing ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
In summary, the electron transport chain in mitochondria is a complex process that involves the transfer of electrons and protons across the mitochondrial membrane to create a proton gradient. This gradient is then used to produce ATP through chemiosmotic phosphorylation. The structure of the mitochondrion is crucial for this process to occur efficiently.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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What function does vitamin E serve in the body?
Your Answer: Antioxidant
Explanation:Vitamin E and its Functions
Several substances are classified as vitamin E, with alpha-tocopherol being the most common, accounting for 90% of human vitamin E. Alpha-tocopherol is composed of two carbon rings and a long saturated hydrocarbon chain, making it hydrophobic. It has an aromatic ring with an OH- group attached to it. Other substances with vitamin E activity include other tocopherols and tocotrienols, all of which act as antioxidants. Alpha-tocopherol is particularly important in cell membranes, preventing the peroxidation of unsaturated fatty acids by free radicals. It also has other functions, such as regulating gene transcription, inhibiting clotting formation, reducing proliferation of vascular smooth muscle, and playing a role in immunity.
Despite claims that taking vitamin E can reduce the risk of heart disease, cancer, and enhance sexual performance, there is currently no strong evidence to support these claims.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old male smoker complains of calf pain.
The GP performs a clinical test by raising the patient's legs and observing for the angle at which there is blanching. After one minute, the legs are lowered over the side of the couch so that they are fully dependent with feet on the floor. Reactive hyperaemia is observed.
Which clinical test does this describe?Your Answer: Buerger's test
Explanation:Tests for Assessing Arterial and Venous Circulation, Hip Dysfunction, and Meniscal Tear
Buerger’s test is a method used to evaluate the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The test involves observing the angle at which blanching occurs, with a lower angle indicating a higher likelihood of arterial insufficiency. Additionally, the degree of reactive hyperaemia on dependency of the limb after one minute is another positive sign of arterial insufficiency during the test.
Another test used to assess circulation is the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI), which involves using blood pressure cuffs to determine the degree of claudication. McMurray’s test, on the other hand, is used to evaluate for a meniscal tear within the knee joint.
Perthe’s test is a method used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein prior to varicose vein surgery. Lastly, Trendelenburg’s test is used to evaluate hip dysfunction. These tests are important in diagnosing and treating various conditions related to circulation and joint function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient presents to the vascular clinic for evaluation of varicose veins. During the assessment, a test is conducted to determine the site of incompetence. The patient is instructed to lie down, and her legs are raised to empty the veins. A constricting band is then placed below the sapheno-femoral junction, and the patient is asked to stand up to observe for varicose vein filling. What is the name of this test?
Your Answer: Tourniquet test
Explanation:Tests for Varicose Veins and Arterial Insufficiency
The Trendelenburg and tourniquet tests are both used to evaluate the site of incompetence in varicose veins at the sapheno-femoral junction. During the Trendelenburg test, the examiner applies pressure with their fingers over the junction, while in the tourniquet test, a tourniquet is placed just below the junction. If the veins fill rapidly upon standing, it suggests that the sapheno-femoral junction is not the source of the incompetence.
Buerger’s test is used to assess the arterial circulation of the lower limb. The lower the angle at which blanching occurs, the more likely there is arterial insufficiency. This test is important in diagnosing peripheral artery disease.
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is another test used to assess arterial insufficiency. Blood pressure cuffs are used to measure the systolic blood pressure in the ankle and arm. The ratio of the two pressures is calculated, and a lower ratio indicates a higher degree of claudication.
Finally, Perthe’s test is used to assess the patency of the deep femoral vein before varicose vein surgery. This test involves compressing the vein and observing the filling of the superficial veins. If the superficial veins fill quickly, it suggests that the deep femoral vein is patent and can be used for surgery.
In summary, these tests are important in diagnosing and evaluating varicose veins and arterial insufficiency. They help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What are the clinical effects that can occur due to acute or chronic over-administration of multivitamins leading to Vitamin A toxicity?
Your Answer: Bone overgrowth with deformity
Correct Answer: Nausea, vomiting and headaches
Explanation:The Importance and Risks of Vitamin A
Vitamin A is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in various bodily functions such as growth and development, vision, enzyme signalling pathways, and the maintenance of epithelial membranes. However, excessive intake of vitamin A can lead to toxicity, which can cause several adverse effects. These include raised intracranial pressure resulting in headaches, nausea, vomiting, and visual loss, increased bone resorption leading to osteoporosis and hypercalcaemia, liver damage, hair loss, and skin changes. Moreover, there is a possible increased risk of malignancy, particularly among smokers. Pregnant women are also advised to avoid foods rich in vitamin A, such as liver and fish oils, due to the teratogenicity of vitamin A-derived drugs. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a balanced intake of vitamin A to avoid the risks associated with its toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient with suspected spinal cord compression has been admitted to the neurosurgical team for an urgent MRI of the spine. The MRI technique primarily relies on the magnetic properties of which particle?
Your Answer: Hydrogen ion (proton)
Explanation:How MRI Scanners Use Hydrogen Ions to Create Images
MRI scanners use the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, also known as protons, to create images of the human body. These protons have nuclear spin, which means they have magnetic vectors that can be aligned in an electromagnet. The scanner bombards the protons with radiofrequency radiation, causing them to release energy when they return to their resting state. This energy release is recorded and used to construct the MRI image.
While other nuclei, such as carbon 13, also have net nuclear spin and could be used in MRI imaging, hydrogen ions are much more abundant in human tissues. This makes them the preferred choice for creating images of the body. By using the magnetic properties of hydrogen ions, MRI scanners can create detailed images of internal structures without the use of harmful radiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Correct
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The Krebs or TCA cycle is a series of metabolic processes beginning with the synthesis of citrate from acetyl-CoA which results in a number of important metabolic products. Where in the cell does this cycle occur?
Your Answer: Mitochondria
Explanation:Cellular Processes and Organelles
Metabolic processes in the cell occur in specific locations. Acetyl-CoA production and the Krebs cycle take place in the mitochondrium, while glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. The nucleus is the central structure of the cell that contains DNA and is double membrane-bound. The rough endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for packaging and transporting proteins, while the smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs a similar function but lacks ribosomes.
It is important to understand where these processes occur in the cell to better understand their functions and how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell. The mitochondrium is responsible for producing energy in the form of ATP, while the cytoplasm is where glucose is broken down during glycolysis. The nucleus is where genetic information is stored and replicated, and the endoplasmic reticulum is involved in protein synthesis and transport.
In summary, the cell is a complex system with various organelles that perform specific functions. where these processes occur in the cell is crucial to how they contribute to the overall functioning of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 21
Correct
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What are the clinical consequences of a lack of vitamin A?
Your Answer: Dry conjunctiva
Explanation:The Devastating Effects of Vitamin A Deficiency
Vitamin A deficiency is a serious health concern that can lead to a range of devastating effects. One of the most common consequences is blindness, particularly in children. Poor night vision is often an early sign of this deficiency, which can progress to complete blindness if left untreated.
In addition to blindness, vitamin A deficiency can also cause dry conjunctiva, a condition known as conjunctival xerosis. This occurs when the normally moist and fine conjunctiva becomes thickened and dysfunctional, leading to the formation of white plaques known as Bitot’s spots. Corneal ulceration can also occur as a result of this condition.
The respiratory and gastrointestinal epithelia can also be affected by vitamin A deficiency, leading to reduced resistance to infection. This deficiency is a major public health issue in some parts of the world and is the single most common preventable cause of blindness. It is crucial to address this issue through education and access to vitamin A-rich foods and supplements.
Overall, the devastating effects of vitamin A deficiency highlight the importance of proper nutrition and access to essential vitamins and minerals. By addressing this issue, we can help prevent blindness and improve overall health outcomes for individuals and communities around the world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The arrangement of amphipathic phospholipids in the mammalian cell membrane, what is it like?
Your Answer: A lipid monolayer with hydrophobic heads linked with hydrophilic tails in an alternating chain
Correct Answer: A lipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads facing out and hydrophobic tails facing in
Explanation:The Function and Structure of the Mammalian Cell Membrane
The mammalian cell membrane serves as a protective barrier that separates the cytoplasm from the extracellular environment. It also acts as a filter for molecules that move across it. Unlike plant and prokaryotic cells, mammalian cells do not have a cell wall. The main component of the cell membrane is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids, which have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The phospholipids in the bilayer are oriented with their hydrophilic heads facing outward and their hydrophobic tails facing inward. This arrangement allows for the separation of the watery extracellular environment from the watery intracellular compartment.
It is important to note that the cell membrane is not a monolayer and the phospholipids are not linked head-to-tail. This is in contrast to DNA, which has a helical chain formation. Overall, the structure and function of the mammalian cell membrane are crucial for maintaining the integrity and proper functioning of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What role does the nucleolus play in eukaryotic cells?
Your Answer: To produce RNA polymerases for ribosomal RNA transcription
Correct Answer: To transcribe ribosomal RNA and assemble ribosomes
Explanation:The Nucleolus: Structure and Function
The nucleolus is a non-membrane-bound structure that takes up about a quarter of the nuclear volume. It is composed mainly of proteins and nucleic acids and is responsible for transcribing ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembling ribosomes in the cell. Nucleoli are formed in nucleolar organizing regions (NORs), which are also the regions of the genes for three of the four eukaryotic rRNAs.
During ribosome assembly, ribosomal proteins enter the nucleolus from the cytoplasm and begin to assemble on an rRNA precursor. As the pre-rRNA is cleaved to produce 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNAs, additional ribosomal proteins and the 5S rRNA (which is synthesized elsewhere in the nucleus) assemble to form preribosomal subunits. These subunits then exit the nucleolus into the cytoplasm and combine to produce the final 40S and 60S ribosomal subunits.
Overall, the nucleolus plays a crucial role in protein synthesis by producing the components necessary for ribosome assembly. Its unique structure and function make it an essential component of the cell’s machinery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year-old male complains of a painful and swollen right calf. The possibility of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is being considered. What tests should be conducted to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dopplers of the leg veins
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Deep Vein Thrombosis
When it comes to diagnosing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), there are several methods available. The most common ones are Doppler studies and venography. Doppler studies use B mode ultrasonography to examine the venous system, while venography involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and taking X-rays. CT scans are not typically used for DVT diagnosis because they require contrast and expose the patient to radiation. D-Dimer concentrations can help rule out DVT if they are negative, but they cannot diagnose it. MRI scans are useful for examining soft tissues and bones, but they are not the best option for visualizing the vasculature. Finally, oxygen saturation of the limbs is not a reliable diagnostic method because tissue perfusion can be the same even if there is arterial disease. Overall, Doppler studies and venography are the most effective methods for diagnosing DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the statement of Henry's law?
Your Answer: Equal volumes of gases at standardised temperature and pressure each contain the same number of molecules
Correct Answer: The concentration of a gas when dissolved in liquid is proportional to its partial pressure
Explanation:Gas Laws
Gas laws are a set of scientific principles that describe the behavior of gases under different conditions. One of these laws is Avogadro’s law, which states that equal volumes of gases at a standardized temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. Another law is Boyle’s law, which explains that gases expand when the temperature is increased. Charles’ law, on the other hand, states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a standardized temperature. Lastly, Graham’s law explains that the rate of diffusion of a gas is in inverse proportion to its weight. The specific gas laws that you need to know may vary depending on your syllabus, but you should be able to recognize and apply them if given the formulae. It is unlikely that you will be expected to know the correct formula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The diabetes prevention program has been running for the last 5 years. At baseline, a well conducted study with a sample size of 500 showed that the prevalence of diabetes among adults aged 40 and above was 15%.
Five years later another survey (of 400 responders) showed that the prevalence of diabetes was 10%.
In the above example, which definition of prevalence is correct?Your Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in the last 12 years
Correct Answer: Prevalence is the number of new and old smokers in a year
Explanation:Prevalence and Incidence in Smoking
Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in the smoking habits of a population. Prevalence refers to the number of people who smoke at a particular time point, such as at the beginning or end of a study period. This is calculated by dividing the number of smokers by the total population.
On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of smoking at a particular time point. For example, this could be at the beginning of a study period for the whole year or at the 10th year. This is calculated by dividing the number of new smokers by the number of smoke-free individuals who are potentially at risk of taking up smoking.
prevalence and incidence is important in evaluating the effectiveness of smoking cessation programs and policies. By tracking changes in prevalence and incidence over time, researchers and policymakers can determine whether their efforts are making a difference in reducing smoking rates. Additionally, these concepts can help identify populations that are at higher risk of taking up smoking, allowing for targeted interventions to prevent smoking initiation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Correct
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What is the primary role of the nuclear membrane?
Your Answer: To regulate transport of molecules in and out of the nucleus
Explanation:The Role of the Nucleus and Nuclear Envelope in Cell Function
The nucleus is a crucial component of eukaryotic cells, serving as the control centre for the cell. It is characterised by a membrane-enclosed structure that contains the cell’s chromosomes and is heavily involved in regulating gene transcription and protein synthesis. The nuclear envelope, which consists of an outer and inner membrane, plays a critical role in regulating the movement of molecules in and out of the nucleus. This is achieved through nuclear pores on the surface of the envelope, which allow the passage of water-soluble molecules. While the incorrect answer options describe minor roles of the nuclear envelope, its primary function is to act as a regulatory barrier for anything that enters or exits the nucleus. Overall, the nucleus and nuclear envelope are essential components of cell function, playing a critical role in regulating gene expression and maintaining cellular homeostasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Correct
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Which form of vitamin D is the most active in the human body?
Your Answer: 1, 25 (OH) 2 vitamin D
Explanation:The Process of Vitamin D Production and Activation
Vitamin D comes in two forms, D2 and D3. D3 can be produced in the skin through a reaction that requires UV light, while D2 cannot. Both forms can also be obtained through diet, with some foods now being supplemented with Vitamin D. However, the production of Vitamin D3 in the skin can be affected by various factors such as seasons, latitude, clothing, sun block, and skin tone, making it difficult for individuals to get adequate levels of Vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially in the UK during winter.
Once absorbed into the lymph, Vitamin D2 and D3 circulate in the bloodstream and reach the liver. Here, the liver enzyme 25-hydroxylase adds an OH group to the Vitamin D molecule, resulting in 25(OH) Vitamin D. The compound then travels to the kidney, where the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase adds another OH group, creating the active form of Vitamin D, 1,25 (OH)2Vitamin D. When there is enough of this active form, an inactive metabolite called 24,25 (OH)2Vitamin D is produced instead. this process is important in ensuring adequate Vitamin D levels for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Of which cellular structure is the fibrillar centre a component?
Your Answer: The chromosomes
Correct Answer: The nucleolus
Explanation:The Fibrillar Centre in the Nucleolus
The fibrillar centre is a crucial component of the nucleolus, which is found in most metazoan nucleoli, particularly in higher eukaryotes. Along with the dense fibrillar components and the granular component, it forms the three major components of the nucleolus. During the end of mitosis, the fibrillar centre serves as a storage point for nucleolar ribosomal chromatin and associated ribonucleoprotein transcripts. As the nucleolus becomes active, the ribosomal chromatin and ribonucleoprotein transcripts begin to form the dense fibrillar components, which are more peripherally located and surround the fibrillar centres. The transcription zone for multiple copies of the pre-rRNA genes is the border between these two structures. It is important to note that the fibrillar centre is not a component of any of the cell structures mentioned in the incorrect answer options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 30
Correct
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What is the conversion of pyruvate before it enters the Krebs cycle?
Your Answer: Acetyl-CoA
Explanation:The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrion and involves the conversion of acetyl-CoA to oxaloacetate. This cycle produces six NADH, two FADH, and two ATP for each molecule of glucose. Pyruvate is converted to acetyl-CoA before entering the Krebs cycle, and water and carbon dioxide are end products. Acetic acid itself has no role in the cycle, but its acetyl group is used to form acetyl-CoA. Some anaerobic bacteria can convert sugars to acetic acid directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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