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  • Question 1 - You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis affecting both knees but over the last couple of years his left knee has deteriorated and is giving him increasing pain and has started to affect his mobility.

      He is a very active gentleman who walks his dog daily and maintains an independent lifestyle. He uses regular co-codamol 30/500 and PRN ibuprofen orally, and also topical capsaicin. He has recently been having some sessions with the physiotherapists and has had three steroid injections in the knee over the last year.

      Although things are just about manageable at the moment he is concerned that the way his knee is going he will soon not be able to walk the dog and remain as independent. On occasion he has needed to use a walking stick when his knee has flared up and he tells you he is concerned about further worsening and having to rely on a walking aid more permanently. He is also concerned that his use of pain medication has escalated and that he has needed the steroid injections periodically.

      He is overweight (BMI 29 kg/m2) and also smokes between 10 and 20 cigarettes a day.

      He asks you about being referred for consideration of joint replacement surgery.

      Which if the following is the correct approach in this case?

      Your Answer: The patient should be counselled about the risks and benefits of surgery and referral should be made without any further delay if the patient decides it is an appropriate option

      Explanation:

      Referring Patients for Joint Replacement Surgery

      Referring patients for joint replacement surgery can be a challenging decision. With the increasing demand for this procedure, healthcare professionals must consider various factors before making a referral. These factors include the severity of the patient’s symptoms, their overall health and any comorbidities, their functional abilities and expectations, and the effectiveness of non-surgical treatments.

      Orthopaedic assessment tools such as the Oxford hip and knee scores can be helpful in evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on daily activities. However, they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions. Similarly, x-rays may provide additional information, but they should not be relied upon as the only factor in making a referral decision.

      It is important to note that factors such as smoking status, age, and comorbidities should not be used as obstacles to referral. While they may increase postoperative risks and affect long-term outcomes, some patients may still benefit greatly from joint replacement surgery.

      In summary, joint replacement surgery should be considered for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant symptoms that do not respond to non-surgical treatments. Referral should occur before functional limitations and severe pain develop, and the decision should be made collaboratively between the healthcare professional and the patient. Scoring tools and x-rays can be helpful adjuncts, but they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      303.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You assess a 28-year-old female patient who reports experiencing frequent migranous headaches that...

    Correct

    • You assess a 28-year-old female patient who reports experiencing frequent migranous headaches that occur only during her menstrual cycle. She has previously attempted propranolol prophylaxis but discontinued it due to adverse effects. Additionally, mefenamic acid and naproxen have not provided relief. Which preventative approach should be considered?

      Your Answer: Zolmitriptan bd during menstruation

      Explanation:

      Triptans can serve as a form of preventive treatment for menstrual migraines, known as mini-prophylaxis.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are summoned to the residence of an 82-year-old man who is receiving...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the residence of an 82-year-old man who is receiving home care for advanced prostate cancer. His condition has been declining for the past week and he has been under the care of community nurses. The nurses inform you that he has become increasingly 'bubbly' in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing uncontrollable respiratory secretions at the end of his life. What is the most suitable course of action to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide 400-600 micrograms subcutaneously every 4-8 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing Excessive Respiratory Secretions with Antimuscarinics

      Excessive respiratory secretions can be a distressing symptom for patients, particularly those at the end of life. Antimuscarinics are the most commonly used medications to help manage this symptom. Hyoscine hydrobromide is a commonly used antimuscarinic and can be given at a dose of 400-600 micrograms every four to eight hours. It can also be administered via a patch, which may be more acceptable to some patients. However, dry mouth is a common side effect.

      For patients who are less ill with intermittent symptoms, oral carbocisteine and nebulised saline may be effective in managing secretions. Nebulised saline can also be tried in more severe cases, but for intractable end-of-life secretions, antimuscarinics such as hyoscine hydrobromide are the best treatment option. If indicated, hyoscine hydrobromide can be given via a syringe driver to reduce the need for repeated injections.

      Other antimuscarinics that can be used include hyoscine butylbromide and glycopyrronium bromide. It is important to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      108
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the accurate statement about meningitis in newborn infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about meningitis in newborn infants?

      Your Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocoele

      Correct Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness

      Explanation:

      Sepsis in Newborns: Apnoeic Episodes and Potential Consequences

      Sepsis is a common issue in newborns, often presenting as apnoeic episodes. In the initial stages, the fontanelle may appear normal. The most frequent cause of sepsis in newborns is group B Streptococcus, which can be acquired during or after delivery. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for infants with sepsis is between 5-15%. Even those who survive may experience long-term consequences such as learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, or neural deafness. Additionally, meningomyelocele is a risk factor for the introduction of meningeal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - On a Monday morning you see a 25-year-old man who has a broken...

    Incorrect

    • On a Monday morning you see a 25-year-old man who has a broken nose from a fight the previous Saturday night. Apart from pain and swelling, he has no other symptoms.
      Which of the following statements about the management of a fractured nose is correct?

      Your Answer: Because of soft tissue swelling, radiological imaging is essential in confirming the diagnosis

      Correct Answer: Manipulation under anaesthetic is best performed 5–7 days after injury

      Explanation:

      Myths and Facts about Nasal Fractures

      Nasal fractures are a common injury that can result from trauma to the face. However, there are several myths and misconceptions surrounding the diagnosis and management of these fractures. Here are some important facts to keep in mind:

      Timing of Fracture Reduction

      Myth: Fracture reduction can be performed immediately after injury.
      Fact: Fracture reduction is best performed 5-7 days after injury, when swelling has subsided. Immediate reduction may be possible if there is little swelling.

      Role of Radiological Imaging

      Myth: Radiological imaging is essential in confirming the diagnosis of nasal fractures.
      Fact: The diagnosis of nasal fracture is usually made clinically, and imaging is usually unnecessary. X-rays are unreliable in the diagnosis of nasal fractures and do not usually affect patient management.

      Significance of Clear Rhinorrhoea

      Myth: Clear rhinorrhoea is of no consequence.
      Fact: Clear rhinorrhoea may be a sign of a cerebrospinal fluid leak and should prompt further urgent assessment.

      Management of Septal Haematomas

      Myth: Septal haematomas usually resolve spontaneously.
      Fact: Septal haematomas should be drained promptly to prevent septal perforation. Antibiotics should be prescribed after drainage.

      Referral for Manipulation under Anaesthetic

      Myth: The patient should be referred immediately for manipulation under anaesthetic.
      Fact: Further reasons for immediate referral include marked nasal deviation, persisting epistaxis, intercanthal widening, facial anaesthesia, facial or mandibular fracture, and ophthalmoplegia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in his right leg. He has a medical history of right-sided heart failure. During the examination, his right calf is found to be 3 cm larger than his left and he has bilateral pitting oedema up to the knee. A positive D-dimer result prompts the initiation of apixaban. However, an ultrasound scan of his leg comes back negative.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Continue anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week

      Correct Answer: Stop anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week

      Explanation:

      If a D-dimer test is positive but an ultrasound scan for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is negative, the recommended course of action is to stop anticoagulation and repeat the scan in one week. It is not appropriate to simply discharge the patient with worsening advice, as a follow-up scan is necessary to ensure that a clot has not been missed. Continuing anticoagulation would only be appropriate if the scan had shown a positive result. It is not recommended to continue anticoagulation for three or six months, as these are management strategies for a confirmed DVT that has been detected by a positive ultrasound scan.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      97.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

    She recently received...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

      She recently received a letter inviting her to make an appointment at the surgery for a cervical smear. She tells you that she is in a relationship with another woman and has never had sexual intercourse with a man. Her partner had told her that as this was the case she doesn't need to have a smear.

      Which of the following patient groups are not eligible for routine cervical screening as part of the national cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer: Women over the age of 65

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening in the UK

      Cervical screening is recommended for all women in England aged 25-64, and from 20 onwards in Wales and Scotland. This screening is important because certain human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes underlie the development of almost all cases of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted during sexual intercourse and intimate sexual contact, and even homosexual women can still pass the virus on to female partners.

      Women who have been vaccinated as part of the national HPV programme will be protected against the main two HPV subtypes that cause the majority of cervical cancers, but there are other less common subtypes that can lead to cervical cancer that they are not vaccinated against. Women with a previously abnormal smear require follow up either with further smears or referral for colposcopy/treatment depending on the exact abnormalities detected.

      Women who have never been sexually active would be very low risk so following discussion with their GP often may decide not to participate in cervical screening. However, they are eligible to be screened routinely and would be offered screening. The only group above who are not eligible for routine cervical screening are women over the age of 65. Routine screening runs up to the age of 64. However, if a woman has abnormalities that require further follow up smears then this would of course be done beyond the age of 65 if clinically indicated.

      In summary, cervical screening is an important part of women’s health in the UK, and all women should consider participating in routine screening to help prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple distinct purple papules on the patient's forearms. The papules have thin white lines visible on them. The patient reports that the lesions are extremely itchy but not painful and wants to know if there is any treatment available to alleviate the symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Topical steroids

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids.

      This statement accurately reflects the recommended treatment for lichen planus, which is a rash characterized by itchy purple polygonal papules with white lines known as Wickham’s striae. While the condition can persist for up to 18 months, topical steroids are typically effective in relieving symptoms. Oral steroids may be necessary in severe cases, but are not typically used as a first-line treatment. No treatment is not recommended, as the symptoms can be distressing for patients. Topical retinoids are not indicated for lichen planus, as they are used for acne vulgaris.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      122.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl with a learning disability is brought to see her General Practitioner (GP) by her father. Her mother is very upset, and asked her father to bring her to see the GP as she spends a lot of time in her bedroom, and her mother has walked in many times and found her masturbating in her bed. There are no concerns about her behaviour at school.
      Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour

      Explanation:

      Managing Adolescent Masturbation in Children with Learning Disabilities

      It is not uncommon for adolescents with learning disabilities to engage in sexual behaviour, including masturbation. However, it is important to assess whether this behaviour is age-appropriate and not a cause for concern. In this case, as the child is masturbating privately and there are no reports of concerning behaviour from school or other services, reassurance to the patient and father that this is normal adolescent behaviour is appropriate. Referral to CAMHS, learning disability team, psychosexual counselling, or social services is not indicated at this time. It is important to use tools such as the Brook Traffic Light tool to identify normal age-appropriate sexualised behaviours and those which are a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in...

    Correct

    • A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in the local region. In 2017, there were 100,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 1,500 new cases were reported that year. In 2018, there were 110,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 2,500 new cases were reported that year.

      What conclusions can be drawn about the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in this region?

      Your Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      The incidence of diabetes has increased, indicating a rise in the number of new cases, while the prevalence remains unchanged as it represents the total number of existing cases.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis: Causes and Risk Factors

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that can be caused by various factors. Certain drugs, such as azathioprine, can increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis. Gallstones are also a common cause, and can be identified by the presence of Cullen’s sign (periumbilical darkening) or Gray-Turner’s sign (flank darkening). Infections like mumps and Coxsackie B can also lead to acute pancreatitis. Smoking and scorpion bites are other risk factors, with smoking having a synergistic effect when combined with high alcohol intake. Despite the various causes, most single acute episodes of pancreatitis result in uncomplicated recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the community nurses due to suspected pressure ulcer development. Upon inspection, you observe a 3 cm region of erythema on the left heel with a minor area of partial thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis in the middle. What grade would you assign to the pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer: Grade 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The surgery has just closed and you are finishing up work at the...

    Incorrect

    • The surgery has just closed and you are finishing up work at the end of the day when a teenager employed by the practice knocks on your door. She has just sustained a needlestick injury on a discarded used needle that had been left in a bin in the public toilet in reception. She is not a registered patient at your practice. You provide advice on appropriate immediate first aid of the wound and she washes the wound and follows this advice.

      What is the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Post exposure prophylaxis for HIV should be started as soon as possible pending formal occupational health assessment in secondary care

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B booster vaccination should be administered

      Explanation:

      Risk Assessment for Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure

      Following immediate first aid and washing of a wound that may have exposed an individual to bloodborne pathogens, a risk assessment must be conducted to determine the level of exposure and the need for further treatment. This assessment should be performed by a qualified individual with knowledge of the process and can advise on necessary treatment. Typically, this assessment is done by the occupational health department or A&E department at a hospital, depending on local protocol and availability.

      It is crucial to conduct the risk assessment as soon as possible, as HIV post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be started within one hour of the injury. However, it can still be administered up to 48-72 hours after the exposure. Therefore, prompt assessment and treatment can significantly reduce the risk of infection and ensure the best possible outcome for the individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      83.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas

      The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.

      Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A woman is 28 weeks pregnant. It is a single pregnancy and there...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is 28 weeks pregnant. It is a single pregnancy and there have been no complications so far. She is planning to take a 4 hour flight next month. She has no additional risk factors for DVT but wants to know if she should take medication to lower her risk of blood clots.

      What guidance would you provide her regarding pharmacological prophylaxis for air travel during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: No pharmacological prophylaxis is needed in her case

      Correct Answer: Pharmacological prophylaxis is only required for flights longer than 6 hours

      Explanation:

      Thromboprophylaxis for Pregnant Women during Air Travel

      Low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) is not necessary for pregnant women who are traveling by air, unless they have additional risk factors for thrombosis such as a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), known thrombophilia, or morbid obesity. Aspirin is not recommended for thromboprophylaxis during pregnancy and air travel. According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG), medium to long-haul flights lasting more than 4 hours pose an increased risk for pregnant women. Therefore, it is important to consider the duration of the flight when assessing the need for thromboprophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site

      Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      189
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip is true?

      Your Answer: The Ortolani test attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

      Correct Answer: 20% of cases are bilateral

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be screened for using ultrasound in infants with certain risk factors or through clinical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. Other factors to consider include leg length symmetry, knee level when hips and knees are flexed, and restricted hip abduction in flexion. Ultrasound is typically used to confirm the diagnosis, but x-rays may be necessary for infants over 4.5 months old. Management options include the Pavlik harness for younger children and surgery for older ones. Most unstable hips will stabilize on their own within 3-6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?

      Your Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His blood tests are shown in the table below. Other liver function tests are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 1000 IU/l 30–150 IU/l
      Adjusted calcium 2.25 mmol/l 2.12–2.65 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.2 mmol/l 0.8–1.45 mmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of Bone: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects individuals over the age of 40. It is often asymptomatic and is discovered through incidental findings of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels or characteristic abnormalities on X-rays. However, classic symptoms include bone pain, deformity, deafness, and pathological fractures. Diagnosis is established by finding a raised serum alkaline phosphatase level, but normal liver function tests. Differential diagnoses include multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Understanding the symptoms and differential diagnoses of Paget’s disease of bone is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 20 - A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of an 8-year-old boy is worried that her son might have developed an egg allergy. The child is experiencing abdominal pain, constipation, and atopic eczema/erythema. What is the most appropriate test to explore the likelihood of a food allergy?

      Your Answer: Specific IgE antibody test

      Correct Answer: Elimination diet

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to try eliminating egg as the symptoms indicate a non-IgE-mediated food allergy.

      Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized as either IgE-mediated or non-IgE-mediated. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, as well as gastrointestinal and respiratory symptoms. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms such as gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, and abdominal pain. If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to suspected foods and co-allergens should be offered. If the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced, with consultation from a dietitian for nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?...

    Incorrect

    • How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?

      Your Answer: 5 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents having suffered her fourth miscarriage. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents having suffered her fourth miscarriage. She has a history of venous thrombosis.
      She is positive for the lupus anticoagulant.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid Syndrome: A Cause of Recurrent Miscarriage

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a medical condition that can lead to recurrent miscarriage. It can also present as arterial or venous thrombosis, livedo reticularis rash, stroke, adrenal hemorrhage, migraine, myelitis, myocardial infarction, or multi-infarct dementia. Anticardiolipin antibodies may be found in patients with this syndrome. Venous thrombi occur more often if lupus anticoagulant is positive, while arterial thrombi occur if IgG or IgM antiphospholipid antibody are positive. Long-term warfarin is indicated for treatment.

      Initially, it was believed that up to 30% of SLE sufferers had antiphospholipid syndrome. However, it is now thought that primary antiphospholipid syndrome is a separate entity consisting of a tendency to thrombosis, positive antiphospholipid antibodies, but the absence of clinical features of SLE. It is important to recognize and diagnose this syndrome early to prevent complications such as recurrent miscarriage and thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady who has recently moved to the UK from Haiti presents with post-coital bleeding and an offensive vaginal discharge that has been ongoing for six weeks. She had swabs taken by the practice nurse a week prior to her visit. On examination, an inflamed cervix that bleeds upon touch is noted. She is a gravida 6, para 4, and has never had a cervical smear. She has been sterilized for 10 years and has never used barrier contraception. A high vaginal swab has ruled out Chlamydia, gonorrhoea, and Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Take an urgent smear test

      Correct Answer: Refer for urgent colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Suspected Cervical Cancer

      This patient should be suspected to have cervical cancer until proven otherwise, due to inflammation of the cervix that has been shown to be non-infective and no documented smear history, which puts her at higher risk. Empirical treatment for Chlamydia or gonorrhoea would not usually be suggested in general practice unless the patient has symptoms and signs of PID. Referring to an STD clinic is incorrect, as urgent investigation for cancer is necessary. Referring routinely to gynaecology is an option, but it doesn’t fully take into account the urgency of ruling out cervical cancer. Arranging a smear test for a lady with suspected cervical cancer would be inappropriate, as smear tests do not diagnose cancer, they only assess the likelihood of cancer occurring in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 24 - An anxious mother has called the clinic because she suspects that her unimmunised...

    Correct

    • An anxious mother has called the clinic because she suspects that her unimmunised 4-year-old has measles. The child has been feeling unwell for a few days and has now developed a red rash. The mother is worried about the likelihood of measles. Typically, where does the rash begin with measles?

      Your Answer: Head and neck

      Explanation:

      Understanding Measles

      Measles is a highly contagious disease that is characterized by a rash with maculopapular lesions. The onset of the disease is marked by a prodromal phase, which includes symptoms such as fever, malaise, loss of appetite, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis. This phase typically lasts for one to four days before the rash appears.

      The rash usually starts on the head and then spreads to the trunk and extremities over a few days. The fever usually subsides once the rash appears. The rash itself lasts for at least three days and then fades in the order of appearance. In some cases, it can leave behind a brownish discoloration and may become confluent over the buttocks.

      It is important to note that measles is a serious disease that can lead to complications such as pneumonia, encephalitis, and even death. Vaccination is the best way to prevent measles and its complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      19.8
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  • Question 25 - A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-week-old baby is brought to the clinic with persistent regurgitation that causes significant distress. The infant is exclusively breastfed and appears otherwise healthy. The baby was born a week before the due date through a normal vaginal delivery. The mother experienced significant blood loss during delivery and required overnight observation. She was found to be slightly anemic and was given ferrous sulfate supplementation. What initial treatment would you suggest for this baby?

      Your Answer: Reduce feeding time

      Correct Answer: Alginate therapy

      Explanation:

      When breastfed infants display symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux, it is important for a qualified individual to conduct a breastfeeding assessment. Simply observing the infant without providing any treatment is not appropriate, as the reported distress of the infant must be taken into consideration. While a proton pump inhibitor is a viable treatment option, an alginate is preferred due to its lower risk of side effects, provided it is effective. Alginates can be administered to breastfed infants by mixing them with cooled boiled water or expressed breast milk.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      73.6
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  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is referred with episodes of severe vertigo which may last up to four hours and are associated with vomiting and uncomfortable pressure in the right ear.

      On examination during an attack he is noted to have right horizontal nystagmus together with mild right-sided sensorineural deafness.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Correct Answer: Ménière's disease

      Explanation:

      Ménière’s Disease: A History of Paroxysmal Attacks

      Ménière’s disease is characterized by paroxysmal attacks that can last for hours and consist of vertigo, vomiting, pressure within the ear, and deafness. These attacks can lead to irreversible sensorineural deafness of low frequency. Tinnitus is often present but may not occur in the early stages, making the classic triad of tinnitus, vertigo, and deafness unreliable for diagnosis.

      Prochlorperazine or cinnarizine can help with vomiting, and restricting salt and fluid intake may hasten resolution. Diuretics may also be used, but there is little evidence for their efficacy. Unilateral hearing loss caused by acoustic neuroma is uncommonly associated with vertigo.

      Benign positional vertigo is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo that are triggered by movement. Labyrinthitis is characterized by acute disabling vertigo, usually preceded by an upper respiratory tract infection, and is rarely episodic. Vertebrobasilar ischaemic attacks last only a few minutes and typically cause a mild swaying or swimming sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.8
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  • Question 27 - You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following a pulmonary embolism three months ago. He recently completed a course of antibiotics.

      INR 8.4

      After reviewing the patient, you find that he is in good health with no signs of bleeding or bruising. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop warfarin + restart when INR < 5.0 + give low-molecular weight heparin until warfarin restarted

      Correct Answer: Oral vitamin K 5mg + stop warfarin + repeat INR after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      73.1
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old woman has come for her regular appointment at your GP surgery...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has come for her regular appointment at your GP surgery and has just discovered that she is 6 weeks pregnant. She is seeking assistance with quitting smoking during her pregnancy and wants to discuss treatment options. At present, she smokes 10 cigarettes per day and due to her hectic schedule, she believes that she won't be able to attend frequent meetings.

      What is the most suitable smoking cessation therapy to suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who smoke should be offered nicotine replacement therapy, but varenicline and bupropion should not be given as they are not safe for them.

      Although referring the patient to a stop smoking clinic would be appropriate, it may not be feasible for her to attend regular meetings.

      While the effects of e-cigarette vapour on the foetus are unknown, NICE advises against discouraging pregnant women who are already using e-cigarettes to quit smoking.

      Nicotine replacement therapy is the only approved treatment for smoking cessation during pregnancy.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.

      She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.

      What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?

      Your Answer: Normal finding

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive

      In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.

      To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.

      Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      85.1
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  • Question 30 - Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells that produce a homogeneous M protein (paraprotein).
      Select from the list the single correct statement relating to M protein in individuals over the age of 60.

      Your Answer: It’s level doesn't correlate with tumour burden

      Correct Answer: It produces a distinctive spike on electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Clonal Disorder of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but serious type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin, which can be detected through serum electrophoresis. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience painful bone lesions, recurrent infections, weakness, renal failure, and hypercalcemia.

      Plasma cells produce heavy and light chains separately, and an excess of free light chains can enter the bloodstream and be filtered by the kidneys. In cases of multiple myeloma, the amount of monoclonal free light chains can become too high for the kidneys to reabsorb, leading to the presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.

      While monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance can also cause a spike-like peak in the γ-globulin zone, the levels of antibody are lower and there are no other features of myeloma. Some cases of myeloma may secrete only light chains or no detectable immunoglobulin at all.

      The amount of M protein present can be used to assess the amount of myeloma at diagnosis and track the disease throughout treatment. Understanding the characteristics and detection of multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      46.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal Health (3/3) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/5) 20%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (3/4) 75%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Haematology (0/2) 0%
Passmed