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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Request a Doppler ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.2
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a chief complaint...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a chief complaint of severe itching following his shower. The patient reports that this has been ongoing for approximately two months and has not improved. His medical history is significant for a previous deep vein thrombosis in his left leg three years ago and an episode of gout in his right hallux six years ago. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycythaemia: Types and Causes

      Polycythaemia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of red blood cells in the body. There are three types of polycythaemia: relative, primary, and secondary. Relative polycythaemia is caused by factors such as dehydration and stress, while primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that results in the overproduction of red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia, on the other hand, is caused by underlying medical conditions such as COPD, altitude, and obstructive sleep apnoea.

      To differentiate between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies are sometimes used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women, it is greater than 32 ml/kg. It is important to identify the underlying cause of polycythaemia to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While polycythaemia is rarely a clinical problem, it is essential to monitor the condition to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.3
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  • Question 3 - A 6-year-old boy is presented for surgery after the appearance of multiple small,...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is presented for surgery after the appearance of multiple small, umbilicated lesions on his right leg. He has no prior history of such lesions and is generally healthy, except for a history of allergies. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.7
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During the examination, the doctor observes several purple papular rashes on the flexural surface of her wrists. Additionally, a similar rash is present at the edges of a laceration wound she suffered a week ago. What is the recommended initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is present in this woman, but it appears to be limited in scope. The initial treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Oral azathioprine or prednisolone is only prescribed if the condition is widespread. Coal tar cream and calcitriol ointment are not effective treatments for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of rash is commonly observed in the initial stages of Lyme disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the skin clinic with flaccid blisters on the inside of her mouth and the front of her chest, accompanied by red and weeping areas. The dermatologist performs a skin biopsy, which reveals a superficial intra-epidermal split just above the basal layer with acantholysis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, particularly in the mouth. It is caused by autoantibodies to desmoglein 3, a component of the desmosome. The blisters are thin-walled and easily ruptured, leaving painful erosions. Diagnosis is made with a skin biopsy, and treatment involves high-dose corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive drugs.

      Bullous pemphigoid is another blistering disorder, but it involves sub-epidermal splitting and tense blisters that are less easily ruptured than in pemphigus vulgaris. Mucous membranes are typically not affected.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterised by intensely pruritic clusters of small blisters on the elbows, knees, back, and buttocks. It is associated with HLA-DQ2 and DQ8 and is often seen in patients with coeliac disease.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare inherited disorder that causes the skin to become very fragile, leading to blistering and erosions. Symptoms appear at birth or shortly afterwards.

      Tuberous sclerosis is not associated with blistering and is a genetic disorder that causes benign tumours to grow in various organs, including the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man of black African-Caribbean origin with a history of eczema visits his GP complaining of red, itchy, dry skin behind his knees. The GP prescribes a course of betamethasone and advises the patient to use emollients as well. The patient is warned to follow the instructions carefully and not to apply the betamethasone for more than one week. What is the most probable adverse effect that the patient may experience from this treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin depigmentation

      Explanation:

      Topical corticosteroids can lead to patchy depigmentation in patients with darker skin, which is a potential adverse effect. These medications are commonly used to reduce inflammation in skin conditions like psoriasis and eczema. However, if used for an extended period or in high doses, they can cause local side effects such as skin thinning, excessive hair growth, and depigmentation. Therefore, the correct answer is depigmentation. Dry skin is not a typical side effect of topical steroid use, but it can occur with other topical preparations like benzoyl peroxide and topical retinoids. While systemic side effects like weight gain, hyperglycemia, hypertension, and mood changes are possible with corticosteroids, they are rare with topical use. Hyperglycemia is therefore an incorrect answer. Reduced hair growth at the application site is also incorrect, as corticosteroids can actually increase hair growth and may be used to treat alopecia.

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the finger tip rule can be used. One finger tip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand.
      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. These recommendations vary depending on the area of the body being treated. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe and effective use of topical steroids for eczema treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been present for a few weeks. During examination, he displays erythematous, scaly lesions beneath his eyebrows, around his nose, and at the top of his chest. He also has a history of dandruff that he manages well with over-the-counter shampoos. What is the best course of treatment for the lesions on his face and trunk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is typically characterized by a scaly rash around the peri-orbital and nasolabial areas, as well as dandruff. The recommended initial treatment is topical ketoconazole.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He mentions being bitten by a tick during the trip. He explains that the rash is red, not itchy, and began at the site of the bite before spreading outward. The center of the rash has now cleared, resulting in a bulls-eye appearance. What is the name of this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema migrans

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      In the later stages of Lyme disease, patients may experience cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis. Neurological symptoms may also occur, including cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Additionally, patients may develop polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur after a tick bite, as early treatment can prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal malignancy

      Explanation:

      While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the regional burns unit with mixed thickness burns affecting 45% of his body surface area. On the fourth day of his admission, he experiences severe epigastric pain accompanied by haematemesis, melaena, and haemodynamic instability. What is the probable cause of these new symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcer

      Explanation:

      Curling’s ulcer is a type of stress ulcer that may develop following severe burns. It is characterized by the necrosis of the gastric mucosa, which is often caused by hypovolemia. Curling’s ulcers are associated with a high risk of bleeding and mortality. In contrast, a Cushing’s ulcer is a stress ulcer that can occur after severe head trauma. While acute pancreatitis may develop after severe burns, it is not typically associated with significant gastrointestinal bleeding. Similarly, a Mallory-Weiss tear is an unlikely cause of the observed bleeding, as there is no history of vomiting and the volume of bleeding is too high.

      Pathology of Extensive Burns

      Extensive burns can cause a range of pathological effects on the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. Additionally, the loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in protein loss and hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and is characterized by decreased blood volume and increased haematocrit. Furthermore, the extravasation of fluids from the burn site can lead to secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, and increase the risk of acute peptic stress ulcers.

      In addition to these effects, extensive burns can also lead to ARDS and compartment syndrome in extremities with full-thickness circumferential burns. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can be healed by the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. On the other hand, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage.

      In summary, extensive burns can have a range of pathological effects on the body, including haemolysis, plasma leakage, protein loss, hypovolaemic shock, secondary infections, ARDS, and compartment syndrome. However, the healing process can vary depending on the severity of the burn, with superficial burns being healed by keratinocyte migration and full-thickness burns requiring skin grafts for optimal coverage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her shins that have been present for four months. The lesions are surrounded by telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica

      Explanation:

      There is no association between erythema nodosum and telangiectasia in the surrounding area.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with blistering lesions on her leg and is suspected to have bullous pemphigoid. What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid

      Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.

      To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.

      It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female from Nigeria comes to the clinic with a swelling near her earlobe. She had her ears pierced three months ago and has noticed a gradual development of an erythematous swelling. Upon examination, a keloid scar is observed. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for intralesional triamcinolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keloid Scars

      Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.

      To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.

      It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been bothering him for several months. The itch is widespread, affecting his torso and back, and he has not noticed any changes in his skin or overall health. Despite having an extensive medical history, there have been no recent changes to his medications. Upon examination, there are no focal skin changes other than widespread excoriation marks. The GP suspects that a systemic condition may be the underlying cause of the patient's itch. Based on his medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a symptom of chronic kidney disease, which can cause severe itching and distress for patients. Even in the early stages of the disease, hyperuricemia can lead to intense itchiness.

      Causes of Pruritus and their Characteristics

      Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus in polycythaemia is particularly noticeable after a warm bath and is accompanied by a ruddy complexion. Chronic kidney disease can present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, and fatigue. Lymphoma can cause night sweats, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus to provide appropriate treatment and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes in to discuss the results of laboratory tests for nail clippings taken 8 weeks ago. He had previously presented with thickening and discoloration of all the nails on his right foot. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He is currently in good health and taking metformin, simvastatin, and ramipril. The lab report confirms the presence of onychomycosis. What treatment options should be offered to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Understanding Fungal Nail Infections

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte moulds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of fungal nail infections is unsightly nails, which can be thickened, rough, and opaque. Other conditions, such as psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome, can mimic fungal nail infections. To confirm a diagnosis, nail clippings and scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. However, if a dermatophyte or Candida infection is confirmed, treatment is necessary. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive dermatophyte infections. Candida infections are best treated with oral itraconazole using a pulsed weekly therapy approach. It is important to note that cultures have a false-negative rate of around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days,...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days, she experiences a prodromal illness with symptoms of sore throat, malaise, and conjunctivitis. She then develops a rash that initially presents as erythematous macules on her torso and progresses to blisters, covering less than 10% of her body surface area. Additionally, she has painful ulcers in her mouth, stomatitis, and worsening conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that is characterized by a rash that affects a small area of the body or the entire body surface. It can be caused by drugs or other factors. The exact cause of this condition is unknown. The rash typically appears on the hands and feet and is often raised. In some cases, the rash may also affect the mucous membranes. This is known as the major form of erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects both the skin and mucosa. It is usually caused by a drug reaction and is considered a separate entity from erythema multiforme. Common causes of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills. The rash associated with this syndrome is typically maculopapular with target lesions, which may develop into vesicles or bullae. A positive Nikolsky sign is observed in erythematous areas, where blisters and erosions appear when the skin is gently rubbed. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur. Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of thyroid disorder presents to the clinic with concerns about darkened skin on her neck.
      Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Acanthosis Nigricans: A condition characterized by darkened patches of thickened skin, often described as velvet-like. It is usually benign but can sometimes be associated with underlying autoimmune conditions or gastric cancer.

      Dermatitis: Inflammation of the skin that can cause blistering, oozing, crusting, or flaking. Examples include eczema, dandruff, and rashes caused by contact with certain substances.

      Hidradenitis Suppurativa: A chronic condition that affects the apocrine glands in skin folds, causing painful nodules that can develop into pustules and eventually rupture. Scarring is common.

      Intertrigo: An inflammatory condition of skin folds caused by friction, often leading to secondary bacterial or fungal infections. Commonly found in the groin, axillae, and inframammary folds.

      Cowden’s Syndrome: An autosomal dominant condition characterized by hair follicle tumors, a cobblestone appearance of the oral epithelium, oral papillomas, and multiple skin tags. Associated with a high incidence of breast, thyroid, and gastrointestinal cancers.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy papular rash on her palms and forearms. The rash has white lines visible across its surface and scratching has worsened it. Additionally, she has noticed thinning of her nails with longitudinal ridges visible. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potent topical steroids

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Emollients are not effective for this condition, and oral steroids may only be necessary in severe or resistant cases. Calcipotriol, a synthetic vitamin D derivative, is used for psoriasis and not lichen planus. Fusidic acid is an antibiotic used for staphylococcal skin infections, such as impetigo, and is not indicated for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:...

    Incorrect

    • An itchy rash over the extensor surfaces in a patient with gluten intolerance:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is the correct answer, which is a skin rash that is closely linked to coeliac disease. This is a persistent skin condition that causes blisters, but it is not caused by or related to the herpes virus. It is important to note that dapsone is an effective treatment for Dermatitis herpetiformis, which is a common question in exams. Additionally, a gluten-free diet can also help alleviate symptoms.

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 24 - A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is seen on a home visit by his General Practitioner as his wife is concerned about an ulcer on his lower leg, which has been present for a couple of weeks. It is starting to leak clear fluid. He has a history of chronic congestive cardiac failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. A diagnosis of a venous ulcer is suspected.
      Which of the following examination findings would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrophie blanche

      Explanation:

      Signs and Symptoms of Leg Ulcers: Differentiating Arterial, Venous, and Inflammatory Causes

      Leg ulcers can have various causes, including arterial, venous, and inflammatory conditions. Here are some signs and symptoms that can help differentiate between these causes:

      Atrophie Blanche: This is a white atrophic scar surrounded by areas of hyperpigmentation, which is a sign of severe venous insufficiency.

      Ankle Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) of 0.4: ABPI is the ratio of systolic blood pressure in the ankle compared with the arm. An ABPI < 0.5 indicates severe arterial disease, suggesting that the ulcer is most likely arterial, rather than venous, in nature. Hairless and Pale Skin on the Lower Legs: Pallor of the skin and a lack of hair growth on the lower legs is a sign of arterial disease, pointing towards a diagnosis of an arterial ulcer rather than a venous ulcer. Necrobiosis Lipoidica: This is a rare granulomatous condition that usually affects people with insulin-dependent diabetes. Plaques are present on the shins, often with telangiectasia in the center and may ulcerate. The cause for the leg ulcer is, therefore, inflammatory rather than venous in origin. Reduced Light-Touch Sensation in Both Feet: Reduced sensation in the feet could be neuropathic in nature (diabetes, multiple sclerosis) or the result of severe arterial disease. Venous insufficiency does not usually affect sensation, so this finding on examination would support a diagnosis of arterial or neuropathic ulcer. By recognizing these signs and symptoms, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat leg ulcers based on their underlying causes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male visits a dermatology clinic after being referred by his physician due to a mole that has changed color. When asked, he mentions that he always burns and never tans when exposed to sunlight. He has fair skin and red hair. What is the appropriate Fitzpatrick grade for this skin type?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fitzpatrick type 1

      Explanation:

      Skin type 1 according to the Fitzpatrick classification is characterized by pale skin with features like blue eyes, red hair, and freckles. Individuals with this skin type always experience burning and never tanning. The classification system ranges from type 1, which is most prone to burning, to type 6, which is Afro-Caribbean skin that never burns.

      Skin type is a crucial factor in determining the risk of developing skin cancer. The Fitzpatrick classification system is commonly used to categorize skin types based on their response to UV radiation. This system divides skin types into six categories, ranging from those who always burn and never tan to those who never burn and always tan.

      Type I skin is the most sensitive to UV radiation and is characterized by red hair, freckles, and blue eyes. These individuals never tan and always burn when exposed to the sun. Type II skin usually tans but always burns, while Type III skin always tans but may sometimes burn. Type IV skin always tans and rarely burns, and Type V skin burns and tans after extreme UV exposure. Finally, Type VI skin, which is common in individuals of African descent, never tans and never burns.

      Understanding your skin type is essential in protecting yourself from skin cancer. Those with fair skin, such as Type I and II, are at a higher risk of developing skin cancer and should take extra precautions when exposed to the sun. On the other hand, those with darker skin, such as Type V and VI, may have a lower risk of skin cancer but should still take measures to protect their skin from UV radiation. By knowing your skin type and taking appropriate precautions, you can reduce your risk of developing skin cancer.

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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of itchy white plaques on her vulva and inner thigh. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Lichen sclerosus is a condition characterized by itchy white spots that are commonly observed on the vulva of older women. While candida can also cause itching and white patches, it would not result in lesions appearing on the inner thigh as well.

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. This condition leads to the atrophy of the epidermis, resulting in the formation of white plaques. The most prominent feature of lichen sclerosus is the presence of white patches that may scar. Patients may also experience itching and pain during intercourse or urination.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually made based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be performed if atypical features are present. Management of this condition involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. Patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, and routine follow-up is necessary to monitor for any changes.

      The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists advise against performing a skin biopsy if a diagnosis can be made on clinical examination. However, a biopsy may be necessary if the patient fails to respond to treatment or if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change. The British Association of Dermatologists also recommends a biopsy if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital lichen sclerosus, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

      Understanding lichen sclerosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition. Patients with this condition should seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms or changes in their condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 16-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and itchy rash that has rapidly worsened in the last 12 hours. She has a history of atopic dermatitis and hayfever, which have been treated with emollients. Upon examination, she has a monomorphic rash with punched out erosions on her cheeks and bilateral dorsal wrists. The doctors admit her for observation and IV antivirals. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex 1

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a skin infection primarily caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and, in rare cases, coxsackievirus. Herpes zoster leads to chickenpox, roseola is caused by HHV 6, and molluscum contagiosum is caused by poxvirus.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents to you with an itchy rash on both elbows that has been getting worse over the past week. Upon examination, you observe multiple flat-topped papular lesions that are polygonal and measure 5mm in diameter on the flexural surface of her elbows bilaterally. There are no other rashes on the rest of her body. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.

      Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.

      The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of rectal bleeding and black stool. He reports experiencing this issue more than six times in the past four months. The patient denies any other symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, or changes in bowel habits. During the examination, no masses or apparent causes of bleeding are found in his abdomen or rectum. However, the GP notices some red spots on the patient's lips and tongue. When questioned about them, the patient dismisses them as insignificant and claims that everyone in his family has them. What is the most probable reason for the bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Rectal bleeding can have various causes, and it is crucial to differentiate between them as the treatments and prognosis can differ significantly. By utilizing signs and examinations, one can eliminate possibilities. If there are no masses, weight loss, or changes in bowel habits, rectal or colon cancer is less probable. Similarly, if there are no changes in bowel habits, abdominal pain, or weight loss, Crohn’s disease is less likely. This narrows down the possibilities to Louis-Bar syndrome and hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia. Louis-Bar syndrome, also known as ataxia telangiectasia, is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that typically manifests in early childhood with severe ataxia and other neurological symptoms.

      Understanding Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, also known as Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. While 80% of cases have a family history, 20% occur spontaneously without prior family history.

      There are four main diagnostic criteria for HHT. If a patient has two of these criteria, they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT. If they meet three or more of the criteria, they are said to have a definite diagnosis of HHT. These criteria include spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds (epistaxis), multiple telangiectases at characteristic sites such as the lips, oral cavity, fingers, and nose, visceral lesions such as gastrointestinal telangiectasia (with or without bleeding), pulmonary arteriovenous malformations (AVM), hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, and spinal AVM, and a first-degree relative with HHT.

      In summary, HHT is a genetic condition that is characterized by multiple telangiectasia on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be diagnosed based on the presence of certain criteria, including nosebleeds, telangiectases, visceral lesions, and family history.

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  • Question 31 - A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.

      In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.

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  • Question 32 - A 79-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painless leg ulcer that...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painless leg ulcer that has been present for a few weeks. Upon examination, the GP observes a superficial erythematous oval-shaped ulcer above her medial malleolus, with hyperpigmentation of the surrounding skin. The patient's ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is 0.95. What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, which is appropriate for this patient who exhibits typical signs of the condition such as hyperpigmentation and an ulcer located above the medial malleolus. Before initiating compression treatment, an ABPI was performed to rule out arterial disease, which was normal. Hydrocolloid dressings have limited benefit for venous ulceration, while flucloxacillin is used to treat cellulitis. Diabetic foot ulcers are painless and tend to occur on pressure areas, while arterial ulcers have distinct characteristics and are associated with an abnormal ABPI.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

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  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of his wrists. Lichen planus is suspected. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a recurring, intensely itchy rash on the palms of her hands. She reports that these rashes tend to occur every summer. Despite trying over-the-counter emollients and antihistamines, there has been only marginal improvement. The patient is otherwise healthy with no other medical conditions and does not smoke.

      During examination, bilateral vesicles are observed on the palms and sides of the fingers. The palms appear dry with areas of skin peeling, while the rest of her body is unaffected.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pompholyx eczema

      Explanation:

      Palmoplantar pustulosis is often accompanied by psoriasis on other areas of the body and is strongly linked to smoking. Unlike pompholyx eczema, the connection to high temperatures and humidity is not as significant. Scabies, which is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei, results in severe itching of the hands and web spaces but is typically not a recurring issue. Symptoms include linear burrows and erythematous papules rather than vesicles.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by high temperatures and humidity, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation by wearing gloves or protective footwear and avoiding exposure to irritants. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

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  • Question 35 - You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Port wine stain

      Explanation:

      Understanding Port Wine Stains

      Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.

      Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 36 - A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to her GP with concerns about facial flushing. She reports experiencing random episodes of redness on her face, particularly after consuming alcohol. She also mentions an increase in the number of spots on her cheeks and wonders if these symptoms are related. During the examination, the GP observes two small telangiectasia on the nose and left cheek, as well as a few small papules on each cheek. What management options should the GP suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, topical metronidazole is recommended. This patient’s symptoms, including flushing and papules, suggest acne rosacea, and as they only have a few telangiectasia and papules, topical metronidazole would be the most appropriate treatment. Laser therapy may be considered for persistent telangiectasia, but it is not necessary at this stage and would likely be arranged by a specialist. Oral isotretinoin is not used to treat acne rosacea and is reserved for severe acne vulgaris, and can only be prescribed by a specialist due to potential harmful side effects. Oral oxytetracycline would be appropriate for more severe cases of acne rosacea with troublesome papules and pustules. Topical fusidic acid is not used to treat acne rosacea but can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 37 - A 20-year-old individual comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old individual comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of their left lower lip. They have previously tried topical hydrogen peroxide for a similar episode without success. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.

      The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.

      Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.

      Input:
      Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

      Output:
      – Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
      – Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
      – Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy presents for a check-up. She is experiencing a resurgence of her chronic acne and is interested in finding a solution. What should she steer clear of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical isotretinoin

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a rash on her trunk that developed a few weeks after a sore throat. On examination, small, drop-shaped, salmon-pink plaques are observed. What is the most probable cause of this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions: Guttate Psoriasis, Dermatitis, Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease, Pityriasis Rosea, and Pustular Psoriasis

      Skin conditions can be uncomfortable and sometimes even painful. Here are some common skin conditions and their characteristics:

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes small, drop-shaped plaques on the chest, arms, legs, and scalp. It is usually caused by a streptococcal infection and can last for up to three months. Topical agents, such as steroids or calcipotriol, can be used to treat it.

      Dermatitis, also known as eczema, results in rough patches of skin that are dry and itchy, particularly with exposure to irritants. In children and adults with long-standing disease, eczema is often localised to the flexure of the limbs.

      Hand, foot and mouth disease (HFMD) is an acute viral illness characterised by vesicular eruptions in the mouth and papulovesicular lesions of the distal limbs. It should not be confused with foot and mouth disease of animals, which is caused by a different virus.

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin rash that is characterised by distinctive, scaly, erythematous lesions. It is thought to be a reaction to exposure to infection.

      Pustular psoriasis is a rarer type of psoriasis that causes pus-filled blisters (pustules) to appear on your skin. Different types of pustular psoriasis affect different parts of the body.

      It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any skin condition.

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  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that is causing her distress. Despite using topical benzyl peroxide, she has noticed limited improvement. During examination, non-inflammatory lesions and pustules are observed on her face. What would be the most suitable next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If treatment for acne is required during pregnancy, oral erythromycin is a suitable option, as the other medications are not recommended.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 43 - A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have been gradually enlarging for several months. Upon examination, a lesion is found at the vermilion border of the lower lip. What is the most probable type of lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Cancers: Characteristics and Clinical Presentations

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease, cold sores, and leukoplakia are common skin lesions and cancers that have distinct characteristics and clinical presentations.

      SCC is a malignant tumour that commonly affects the backs of the hands and forearms, the upper part of the face, and the lower lip and pinna in men. The first clinical sign is induration, which may take on nodular, plaque-like, verrucous, or ulcerated characteristics. The limits of induration are not sharp and usually extend beyond the visible margins of the lesion. The surrounding tissue is often inflamed. SCCs rarely metastasize.

      Actinic keratosis is a sun-induced scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion that has the potential to become malignant. It is characterized by multifocal, scaly, hyperpigmented or scaly lesions, usually brown with a scaly base, occurring on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Bowen’s disease is an intraepidermal (in situ) squamous cell carcinoma that arises in sun-exposed sites, especially the lower legs in women. It is characterized by well-defined pink and scaly patches or plaques that may become crusty, fissured, or ulcerated as lesions grow.

      Cold sores are recurrent infections of orofacial herpes simplex that present as grouped vesicles, especially of the lips and perioral skin. The eruption is often preceded by a tingling, itching, or burning sensation. Over a few days, the vesicles form a crust, and the eruption resolves within 7–10 days.

      Leukoplakia is a white patch or plaque of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition.

      A non-healing lesion is also of concern, especially in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, as it may indicate a malignant cause. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing the progression of these skin lesions and cancers.

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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He has recently noticed a red, raised intra-oral lesion.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Psoriasis, Ringworm, and Tinea Versicolor

      Lichen Planus: A skin condition that affects cutaneous and mucosal surfaces, characterised by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. It can be treated with topical steroids and immunomodulators.

      Erythema Multiforme: A skin condition characterised by targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces and progressing to involve the trunk and back. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions.

      Psoriasis: An autoimmune chronic skin condition presenting with erythematous plaques and greyscale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.

      Ringworm: A fungal skin infection characterised by erythematous, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles.

      Tinea Versicolor: A fungal skin infection characterised by pale or dark, copper-coloured patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions

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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old Asian woman presents with completely depigmented patches of skin on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Asian woman presents with completely depigmented patches of skin on her arms and legs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders

      Skin pigmentation disorders are conditions that affect the color of the skin. Here are some of the most common ones:

      Vitiligo: This rare condition is believed to be caused by the immune system attacking melanocytes, resulting in patches of skin with no pigment. It is more common in people of African descent.

      Albinism: This genetic disorder reduces the activity of tyrosinase in melanocytes, resulting in a complete lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes.

      Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that develops from melanocytes. It is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles.

      Melasma: This condition causes increased pigmentation, usually under the eyes. It is common in pregnant women and users of oral contraceptives.

      Pityriasis alba: This condition causes white, scaly patches on the face, and is most commonly seen in children.

      Understanding these skin pigmentation disorders can help individuals identify and manage them effectively.

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  • Question 46 - A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the groin and genital region, as well as in the axilla. The patient has previously mentioned a distaste for creams that are messy or difficult to use. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Topical steroids are effective in treating flexural psoriasis in this patient.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and back. She has just come back from a trip to Spain and has a tanned complexion. During examination, the lesions appear to be slightly scaly. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.

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  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema presents with itchy, red patches on her inner elbows, back of knees, and thighs. The skin on her right thigh is oozing. She reports feeling fatigued and wonders if she has had a fever. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with moderately severe eczema.
      What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regular Diprobase® ointment and once-daily betamethasone valerate 0.025% cream plus 10 days of oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Regime for Moderately Severe Eczema with Superimposed Infection

      Moderately severe eczema with evidence of superimposed infection requires a specific treatment regime. The severity of eczema is categorized into four categories: clear, mild, moderate, and severe. In this case, the patient has small areas of dry skin mainly in the flexures, and there is evidence of superimposed infection with the erythematous, weeping patch of skin in the lateral thigh, indicating infected eczema/cellulitis.

      The treatment regime should include a regular emollient ointment, such as Diprobase®, applied generously to the skin multiple times a day. Additionally, a moderately potent topical corticosteroid, such as betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%, should be used sparingly on the inflamed areas once a day. The patient must be advised to apply the steroid first and allow 15–20 min for it to be absorbed before applying the emollient. Treatment should last 7–14 days and should continue until 48 h after the eczematous patches have cleared.

      Furthermore, oral antibiotics are necessary for the treatment of infected eczema. Oral flucloxacillin is considered first-line, and treatment usually lasts for a 10-day period.

      It is important to note that hydrocortisone 1% cream is only a mild steroid and not indicated in the initial management of moderate eczema. Betamethasone valerate 1% cream is a potent topical corticosteroid and should be reserved for the management of acute flare-ups of severe eczema. Oral flucloxacillin alone is not sufficient for treatment, and there is a need for a moderately potent topical corticosteroid as well to settle the inflammation.

      In conclusion, a combination of regular emollient ointment, moderately potent topical corticosteroid, and oral antibiotics is necessary for the effective treatment of moderately severe eczema with superimposed infection.

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  • Question 49 - A 35-year-old office worker complains of widespread pruritus for the last 2 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old office worker complains of widespread pruritus for the last 2 weeks. She has no particular history of note, though she is currently staying with her parents due to financial difficulties. She has noticed the itching is particularly bad at night. On examination, she has several circular erythematous lesions on her arms and legs.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permethrin cream applied from neck down for 8-14 hours

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies Infestation

      Scabies infestation is a common condition that can affect anyone, but those with poor personal hygiene, immunocompromisation, low socioeconomic status, and those working in industrial settings are at higher risk. The first-line treatment for scabies is the application of Permethrin 5% cream from the neck down for 8-14 hours, followed by washing it off. It is important to treat all household contacts simultaneously, even if they are symptom-free. Additionally, all affected linens should be washed and cleaned immediately.

      While 5% Hydrocortisone cream can be applied twice daily to relieve itching, it will not treat the underlying infestation. Similarly, emollient cream can be applied regularly to moisturize the skin, but it will not treat the infestation.

      If Permethrin is not effective, Malathion cream can be used as a second-line treatment. It should be applied from the neck down for 24 hours and then washed off.

      Oral antihistamines can be used to treat the symptomatic itch, but they do not address the underlying infestation. Therefore, it is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and seek medical advice if symptoms persist.

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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to see her general practitioner complaining of a progressively worsening erythematous rash on her nose, forehead, and cheeks accompanied by telangiectasia and papules for the past year. The rash is exacerbated by exposure to sunlight and consumption of hot and spicy foods. She has previously sought medical attention for this condition and has been treated with topical metronidazole, but her symptoms persist. She has no allergies and is otherwise healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The patient has an erythematous rash on the nose, forehead, and cheeks with telangiectasia and papules, worsened by sun exposure and spicy food, suggesting a diagnosis of rosacea. The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cases is topical metronidazole, while severe or resistant cases require oral tetracycline. However, in this case, oral doxycycline should be given instead of metronidazole as it has been ineffective. Oral clarithromycin, erythromycin, and flucloxacillin are not appropriate treatments for rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 51 - A 78-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease is evaluated at...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease is evaluated at a nursing home. She presents with tense blistering lesions on her legs, measuring approximately 1 to 3 cm in diameter, and reports mild itching. Her mouth and vulva examination are normal. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      If there are blisters or bullae present without any involvement of the mucosal lining, the condition is likely to be bullous pemphigoid. However, if there is mucosal involvement, the condition is more likely to be pemphigus vulgaris.

      Understanding Bullous Pemphigoid

      Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease that causes blistering of the skin due to the development of antibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins BP180 and BP230. This condition is more common in elderly patients and is characterized by itchy, tense blisters that typically appear around flexures. However, the blisters usually heal without scarring, and there is usually no mucosal involvement.

      To diagnose bullous pemphigoid, a skin biopsy is necessary, and immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction. Treatment for this condition involves referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis, as well as the use of oral corticosteroids as the mainstay of treatment. Topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and antibiotics may also be used.

      It is worth noting that while mucosal involvement is seen in some patients, it is not a classic feature of bullous pemphigoid and is therefore not always mentioned in exam questions. Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of bullous pemphigoid is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 52 - A 67-year-old woman presents to General Practitioner with a 2-day history of fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to General Practitioner with a 2-day history of fever and pain in her right shin.
      On examination, she was found to have a tender erythematous skin swelling in the anterior aspect of her right shin. This measured around 10 cm × 4 cm. Her temperature was 38.2°C and the rest of her parameters included a heart rate of 120 bpm, respiratory rate of 21 bpm and oxygen saturation of 99%.
      What is the most appropriate next investigation?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and C-reactive protein (CRP)/erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Cellulitis: Which Ones are Necessary?

      Cellulitis is a clinical diagnosis, but certain tests may be necessary in patients with a systemic response. A full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP/ESR are recommended to assess the severity of the infection. A wound swab and blood cultures may also be considered. An ABPI measurement is indicated in patients with suspected lower-limb arterial disease. A chest X-ray is not necessary unless co-existing lung pathology is suspected. In stable patients with no systemic upset, no further investigations are needed. A punch biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis but may be considered in other skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 53 - Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is not linked to diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sweet’s syndrome is a condition associated with acute myeloid leukemia, also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis, but not with diabetes mellitus.

      Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 54 - A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.

      Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 55 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, fatigue, and a tingling sensation in the lateral aspect of his left thigh. The tingling was initially tolerable but has become increasingly painful over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the area described is erythematous with a macular rash appearing. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load. He denies any cough, coryzal symptoms, focal neurological signs, or trauma to the site.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis? Choose from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, as this can help reduce the risk of post-herpetic complications. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing symptoms of shingles within the 72-hour window and has an immunosuppressive condition, antivirals such as aciclovir should be prescribed. Amitriptyline, which is used to manage post-herpetic neuralgia, would not be appropriate at this stage. Chlorphenamine is typically used to manage itching associated with chickenpox, but as this patient is only experiencing symptoms in one dermatome, it is more likely to be shingles. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat bacterial skin infections, would not be appropriate in this case as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with herpes zoster infection.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her third trimester of pregnancy reports an itchy rash around her belly button during an antenatal check-up. She had no such issues during her previous pregnancy. Upon examination, blistering lesions are observed in the peri-umbilical area and on her arms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis

      Explanation:

      Blistering is not a characteristic of polymorphic eruption of pregnancy.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, women may experience various skin disorders. The most common one is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which is characterized by an itchy red rash. This condition does not require any specific treatment. Another skin disorder is polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, which is a pruritic condition that usually appears during the last trimester. The lesions often first appear in abdominal striae, and management depends on the severity of the condition. Emollients, mild potency topical steroids, and oral steroids may be used. Pemphigoid gestationis is another skin disorder that causes pruritic blistering lesions. It usually develops in the peri-umbilical region and later spreads to the trunk, back, buttocks, and arms. This condition is rarely seen in the first pregnancy and usually presents in the second or third trimester. Oral corticosteroids are usually required for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 57 - A 24-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner with a rapidly growing lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old pregnant woman visits her General Practitioner with a rapidly growing lesion on the tip of her index finger. It began as a small spot but has rapidly increased in size over the past five days. It is dark red in colour and causes discomfort and easy bleeding when working in her café.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?
      Choose the ONE most likely diagnosis from the options below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Skin Lesions: Pyogenic Granuloma, BCC, Haemangioma, Melanoma, and Viral Wart

      Skin lesions can be caused by various factors, and it is important to differentiate them to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common skin lesions and their characteristics:

      Pyogenic Granuloma
      Pyogenic granulomas are benign vascular lesions that grow rapidly and bleed easily. They appear as a fleshy nodule and can be polyploid. They commonly occur in children, young adults, and pregnancy and are often found on the fingers and hands.

      Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC)
      BCC is a slow-growing, locally invasive lesion that appears on sun-exposed skin. It has a characteristic rolled edge and is more prevalent in elderly patients with fair skin and a history of sun exposure. BCC can be skin-colored, pink, or pigmented.

      Haemangioma
      Haemangiomas are benign lesions caused by a collection of blood vessels under the skin. They commonly occur in infants and are known as strawberry marks. A new lesion that grows rapidly is unlikely to be a haemangioma.

      Melanoma
      Melanoma is a malignant tumour that arises from the over-proliferation of cutaneous melanocytes. It can occur anywhere on the body and has characteristic asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and large diameter. The ABCDE criteria of melanoma can help in identifying it.

      Viral Wart
      Viral warts are benign skin lesions caused by human papillomavirus infection. They commonly occur in school-aged children and have a rough, hyperkeratotic surface.

      In conclusion, identifying the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in determining the appropriate treatment and management. It is important to seek medical advice if there is any doubt about the nature of a skin lesion.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.

      Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 59 - A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for evaluation of a lesion on his shin. During the examination, the dermatologist observes shiny, painless areas of yellow skin with numerous telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding scabies is untrue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients who complain of pruritus 4 weeks following treatment should be retreated

      Explanation:

      It is typical for itching to continue for a period of 4-6 weeks after elimination.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin and lays its eggs in the stratum corneum, leading to intense itching. This itching is caused by a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites/eggs, which occurs about 30 days after the initial infection. Symptoms of scabies include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers, interdigital webs, and flexor aspects of the wrist. In infants, the face and scalp may also be affected. Scratching can lead to secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, while malathion 0.5% is second-line. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact with others until treatment is complete. All household and close physical contacts should be treated at the same time, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, contrary to the manufacturer’s recommendation. Patients should apply the insecticide cream or liquid to cool, dry skin, paying close attention to areas between fingers and toes, under nails, armpit area, and creases of the skin such as at the wrist and elbow. The insecticide should be left on the skin for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated 7 days later.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is seen in patients with suppressed immunity, especially HIV. The crusted skin will be teeming with hundreds of thousands of organisms. Isolation is essential, and ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 61 - During your assessment of a 55-year-old patient admitted to the medical ward, you...

    Incorrect

    • During your assessment of a 55-year-old patient admitted to the medical ward, you observe a rash on her legs. The rash has a lace-like pattern in a purple color and does not disappear when touched. It is located on the lower legs. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and reports experiencing this rash on and off in the past, often triggered by cold weather. What is the most probable diagnosis for this rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Livedo Reticularis

      Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash. This occurs when the capillaries become obstructed, leading to swollen venules. The most common cause of this condition is idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, it can also be caused by various underlying medical conditions such as polyarteritis nodosa, systemic lupus erythematosus, cryoglobulinaemia, antiphospholipid syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and homocystinuria.

      It is important to note that livedo reticularis is not a disease in itself, but rather a symptom of an underlying condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with right lower-limb pain. This is mainly localised over a red patch that has recently developed on the inner part of her thigh.
      On examination, there is a well-demarcated area of erythematous skin on the patient’s thigh, which is warm and tender to touch. There are no other rashes or skin changes present in the rest of her body. Her temperature is 37.5°C and the rest of her parameters are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Lower Limb Rash: Cellulitis, Atopic Dermatitis, Contact Dermatitis, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, and Pretibial Myxedema

      The patient in question is most likely suffering from cellulitis, as evidenced by the presence of erythema, warmth, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area. Cellulitis typically presents as a unilateral rash in the lower limbs, with a well-defined margin and potential skin breakdown or ulceration in severe cases. Localized lymph node swelling may also occur, and systemic symptoms such as tachycardia, fever, confusion, or respiratory distress may be present in more severe cases. It is important to examine the skin carefully for potential points of entry for pathogens, such as wounds, local skin infections, or recent injection sites.

      Atopic dermatitis, on the other hand, typically presents as an itchy rash in a flexural distribution, with a history of atopy and episodic flares starting from a young age. Contact dermatitis, which can be either irritant or allergic, is characterized by erythema and may present with crusting or vesicles in rare cases. Necrobiosis lipoidica is a condition that typically occurs in diabetic patients, presenting as shiny, painless areas of yellow or red skin on the shins, often with telangiectasia. Pretibial myxedema, which occurs in patients with Graves’ disease, presents as a shiny, waxy, orange-peel texture on the shins.

      In summary, a lower limb rash can have various causes, and a careful examination of the skin and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help narrow down the differential diagnosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 63 - Which one of the following is not a management option for individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a management option for individuals with hyperhidrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical atropine

      Explanation:

      Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 64 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on both his wrists that has been present for 1 week. Upon examination, the doctor notes small purplish papules on the flexural aspect of both wrists with a flat top and small white lines on the surface. The patient also has areas of hyperpigmentation on the inner aspect of his elbows. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of lichen planus, a skin condition with an unknown cause that is likely immune-mediated. The rash is typically itchy and appears as papules with a shiny, purplish color in areas such as the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and may have white lines known as Wickham’s striae. Over time, the papules flatten and are replaced by hyperpigmentation. Oral involvement is common, with a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Management usually involves topical steroids, but more severe cases may require oral steroids or immunosuppressants. Atopic eczema, irritant eczema, molluscum contagiosum, and psoriasis are different skin conditions that do not fit the patient’s symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of congestive cardiac failure and a history of psoriasis visits his GP complaining of a deterioration in his psoriatic plaques. He has been prescribed multiple medications by his cardiologist to alleviate his cardiac symptoms.
      Which of the following newly prescribed medications is the probable cause of this man's psoriasis exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic plaques can be worsened by beta-blockers like bisoprolol, but not by calcium channel blockers like amlodipine or antiplatelet agents like clopidogrel. However, NSAIDs like aspirin can exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, has no impact on psoriasis.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 66 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a lump on the side of his head. During the examination, the GP suspects that the lump may be a basal cell carcinoma. What characteristic is most indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinomas: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Basal cell carcinomas are the most common type of non-melanocytic skin carcinoma, typically found in sun-exposed areas of the skin such as the face and neck. They can be familial and associated with certain syndromes. Symptoms of basal cell carcinomas include a slow-growing, skin-colored, pearly nodule with surface telangiectasia, an ulcerated lesion with rolled edges, and crusted edges. Pigmentation is not a predominant feature, but bleeding may occur. Size is not a specific feature of malignancy, but sudden changes in size should be referred to a dermatologist for further assessment and investigation. Diagnosis is confirmed with a biopsy, and treatment involves excision with a clear margin. Recurrence is possible, but basal cell carcinomas rarely metastasize.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 67 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a rash that has spread across his trunk over the last 4 days. He is worried about the appearance of the rash. The patient has no significant medical history except for completing a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin for tonsillitis last week and takes no other regular medications. Upon examination, the doctor observes multiple scaly papules on the patient's trunk and upper limbs. The lesions are small and have a teardrop shape. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The tear-drop scaly papules that have suddenly appeared on the patient’s trunk and limbs suggest guttate psoriasis. This type of psoriasis is commonly seen in children and young adults who have recently had a Streptococcus infection, such as the tonsillitis infection that this patient had. The rash is characterized by multiple small scaly and red patches that have a teardrop shape.

      Disseminated varicella zoster, pityriasis rosea, and pityriasis versicolor are not likely diagnoses for this patient. Disseminated varicella zoster causes a different type of rash that includes macular, papular, and vesicular lesions that crust over time. Pityriasis rosea presents with a large round herald patch on the chest, abdomen, or back, and is thought to be triggered by viral or bacterial infections. Pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that causes patches that are paler than the surrounding skin, and is commonly found on the upper limbs and neck. However, exposure to heat and moisture can increase the risk of developing this rash.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 68 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.

      Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.

      Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.

      Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.

      Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.

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  • Question 69 - A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical miconazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions

      Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.

      Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.

      Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - You see a 4-year-old child in surgery with his mother. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 4-year-old child in surgery with his mother. He has been diagnosed with molluscum contagiosum and she is keen to have him treated.
      Which of the following statements about molluscum contagiosum is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition resolves spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Myths and Facts

      Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin infection caused by a poxvirus. However, there are several myths surrounding this condition that need to be debunked. Firstly, it is not true that the condition resolves spontaneously. While most cases do clear up on their own within 6-9 months, some can last up to 4 years. Secondly, molluscum contagiosum is highly infectious and can be transmitted through contact with infected persons or objects, including swimming pools. Sexual transmission is also possible.

      Another myth is that patients can treat themselves by squeezing the spots. This is not recommended as it can lead to scarring. Additionally, molluscum contagiosum is not limited to children. While it does present mainly in young children, there is also a later peak in young adults, some of which is attributable to sexual transmission.

      Finally, piercing the lesions with an orange stick dipped in phenol is not the treatment of choice. In fact, the condition usually requires no treatment and resolves on its own. Treatment may be recommended for adults or older children with particularly unsightly spots or in the immunosuppressed, where it can take several years to resolve. Topical applications such as benzyl peroxide or potassium hydroxide, as well as curettage and cryotherapy, can be used to treat the condition.

      In conclusion, it is important to separate fact from fiction when it comes to molluscum contagiosum. While it is a common and often harmless condition, it is important to seek medical advice if you have concerns or if the spots are causing discomfort or affecting your quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 71 - A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man visits his primary care physician with worries about a growth on his right lower eyelid. The lesion has been there for at least 3 months and has not increased in size. During examination, you observe a 3 mm lesion with rolled, pearly edges. Your suspicion is a basal cell carcinoma.
      What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral for surgical excision

      Explanation:

      When it comes to basal cell carcinoma, surgical excision is typically recommended and can be referred routinely. However, for high-risk areas such as the eyelids and nasal ala, urgent referral under the 2-week wait is necessary to prevent potential damage from delay.

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is one of the three main types of skin cancer and is characterized by slow growth and local invasion. BCC lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and rarely metastasize. The majority of BCC lesions are found on sun-exposed areas, particularly the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As the lesion progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater. If BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. Management options include surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 72 - Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not typically associated with hirsutism in individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis is the result of Porphyria cutanea tarda, not hirsutism.

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism and hypertrichosis are two conditions that involve excessive hair growth in women. Hirsutism is typically caused by androgen-dependent hair growth, while hypertrichosis is caused by androgen-independent hair growth. The most common cause of hirsutism is polycystic ovarian syndrome, but it can also be caused by other conditions such as Cushing’s syndrome, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and obesity. Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by drugs like minoxidil and ciclosporin, as well as congenital conditions like hypertrichosis lanuginosa and terminalis.

      To assess hirsutism, doctors use the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. A score of over 15 is considered to indicate moderate or severe hirsutism. Management of hirsutism typically involves weight loss if the patient is overweight, as well as cosmetic techniques like waxing and bleaching. Combined oral contraceptive pills like co-cyprindiol and ethinylestradiol and drospirenone may also be used, but co-cyprindiol should not be used long-term due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. For facial hirsutism, topical eflornithine may be used, but it is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Overall, understanding the causes and management of hirsutism and hypertrichosis is important for women who experience excessive hair growth. By working with their doctors, they can find the best treatment options to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 73 - A 26-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a firm, round swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a firm, round swelling over the angle of his jaw that has been growing for two years. The patient is having difficulty shaving his beard due to the size of the swelling. The GP suspects a sebaceous cyst and the patient is eager for treatment to alleviate his symptoms. What is the best course of action to prevent further discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical excision

      Explanation:

      To prevent the sebaceous cyst from recurring, it is necessary to surgically remove the entire structure. This can be done by a general practitioner or a surgical team, but funding for the procedure may be limited due to its lower clinical priority. Patients may opt to have the surgery done privately. Incision and drainage or fine needle aspiration may provide temporary relief, but the cyst is likely to return. Intralesional steroids are not recommended in this case, as there is no infection present. Oral antibiotics are also unnecessary. Complete surgical excision offers the best chance for long-term resolution of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Sebaceous Cysts

      Sebaceous cysts refer to a group of cysts that include both epidermoid and pilar cysts. However, the term is not entirely accurate and should be avoided if possible. Epidermoid cysts occur when there is an overgrowth of epidermal cells in the dermis, while pilar cysts, also known as trichilemmal cysts or wen, originate from the outer root sheath of the hair follicle. These cysts can appear anywhere on the body, but are most commonly found on the scalp, ears, back, face, and upper arm, and will typically have a punctum.

      To prevent recurrence, it is essential to remove the entire cyst wall during excision. While sebaceous cysts are generally harmless, they can become infected and cause discomfort or pain.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 74 - A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is prescribed isotretinoin for severe nodulocystic acne. What is the most probable side-effect that he may experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dry skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is an oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found that two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of oral isotretinoin experience long-term remission or cure. However, it is important to note that this medication also comes with a number of adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in developing fetuses. As such, females who are taking this medication should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, as well as low mood and depression (although this is a controversial topic). Patients may also experience raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is important for patients to be aware of these potential adverse effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Additionally, patients should always follow their healthcare provider’s instructions for taking isotretinoin and should not combine this medication with tetracyclines due to the risk of intracranial hypertension. By being informed and proactive, patients can help to ensure that they receive the best possible care while taking isotretinoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 75 - A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a lesion to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a lesion to her right temple. It has been there for several months. Examination reveals a round lesion, 1 cm in diameter, with rolled edges and a pearly appearance.
      Which of the following, from the history, is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

      Explanation:

      Skin cancer can take on different forms, including basal cell carcinoma (BCC), actinic keratosis, herpes zoster infection, melanoma, and squamous cell carcinoma (SCC). BCCs can appear on any part of the body and often produce a bloody crust. AKs are scaly or hyperkeratotic lesions that can become malignant and are common in individuals over 60 years old. Herpes zoster infection causes a rash that is usually unilateral and follows a dermatomal distribution. Melanoma is a malignant tumour that arises from cutaneous melanocytes and can take on different types. SCC is the second most common type of skin cancer and arises from the keratinocytes of the epidermis. It predominantly affects sun-exposed sites and has a firm, indurated appearance with surrounding inflammation. BCCs are commonly found in sun-exposed areas and have a pearly appearance with rolled edges and surrounding telangiectasia. Management for skin cancer varies depending on the type and severity, but removal through curettage or excision is common for BCCs.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 76 - A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands and wrists. He suspects that it might be due to something he is exposed to at work. What test would be most appropriate to investigate this hypothesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch testing

      Explanation:

      When there is a suspicion of allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing is the preferred method of investigation. This condition can be caused by either irritants or allergens. The patient’s back is exposed to different allergens, including standard batteries and any substances that the patient suspects. The skin is then evaluated for any reaction after 48 hours and 7 days.

      Understanding Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare. The second type is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.

      Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Proper treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 77 - A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
      What is the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options

      Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 78 - A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the body are more prone to developing keloid scars?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sternum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keloid Scars

      Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.

      To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.

      It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and recently started taking phenytoin three weeks ago. He developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough about a week ago. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. Blood results reveal:
      Na+ 144 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 µmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. It is characterized by extensive scalding of the skin, and is considered by some experts to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include fever, rapid heartbeat, and a positive Nikolsky’s sign, which means that the epidermis separates easily with slight lateral pressure.

      The most effective way to manage TEN is to stop the use of the drug that caused the reaction. Supportive care is also necessary, and patients are often treated in an intensive care unit to monitor for potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid loss. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment for TEN, and has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents like ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 80 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a similar concern as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a similar concern as the previous patient. She has noticed a volcano-like spot on her left arm that has been present for the past 3 months. Initially, she thought it was a simple spot, but it has not gone away. Upon examination, a 5 mm red, raised lesion with a central keratin-filled crater is observed. The doctor suspects a probable keratoacanthoma. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Keratoacanthoma is a benign lesion, but urgent excision is advised due to difficulty in clinically excluding squamous cell carcinoma.

      Understanding Keratoacanthoma

      Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in young people. The tumor is characterized by a dome-shaped papule that resembles a volcano or crater. As it grows, it becomes filled with keratin and develops a central crater. While spontaneous regression of keratoacanthoma is common within three months, it often results in scarring. Therefore, it is important to urgently remove such lesions as it is difficult to clinically differentiate them from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal may also prevent scarring.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with concerns about a mole on his leg. He has noticed over the past few months that it has increased in size. On examination, the mole is 7 mm in diameter and has an irregular border but is a consistent colour.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Understanding Referral Guidelines for Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      When assessing pigmented lesions, the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the 7-point scoring system.
      The 7-point checklist includes:
      Major features (2 points each):
      change in size
      irregular shape or border
      irregular colour.
      Minor features (1 point each):
      > 7 mm at greatest diameter
      inflammation
      oozing or crusting
      change in sensation including itch.

      Lesions scoring 3 or more or with other suspicious features of melanoma should be referred urgently via the cancer fast-track pathway to dermatology.

      For lesions with a low suspicion of melanoma, a photo should be taken with a ruler and the patient advised to return in eight weeks for review. However, lesions scoring 5 on the checklist, like those with a change in size, irregular shape or border, and irregular color, should be referred urgently to a dermatologist to avoid any delay in diagnosis and subsequent treatment.

      Excision of lesions suspicious of melanoma should be avoided in primary care as this can delay treatment, and incomplete excision is more common. Routine referral to dermatology would be suitable for a pigmented lesion which scores less than 3 on the 7-point checklist if there are no other features to suggest melanoma. Referral to genetics is recommended if three or more family members have been diagnosed with melanoma.

      It is important to understand these referral guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of suspicious pigmented lesions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 82 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash on the inner aspect of his elbows on either side. He states that this came on suddenly and that he has had similar episodes in the past, the first of which occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required; start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Testing for Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that can cause significant physical and psychological distress to patients. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation and history, with no further testing required. The UK Working Party Diagnostic Criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis. Treatment options include emollients, topical steroids, and other medications in severe cases.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) and skin patch testing are not useful in diagnosing atopic eczema, as they are mainly used for other types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin prick testing may be used to diagnose allergies that could be exacerbating the eczema. However, it is important to note that atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis and testing is not always necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 83 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 84 - A 58-year-old with a history of acne rosacea seeks guidance on treatment options....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old with a history of acne rosacea seeks guidance on treatment options. Which of the following interventions is least helpful in managing the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining of intermittent bloating and loose stools that have been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stool but has lost a few kilograms in weight. Recently, she has noticed some itchy, vesicular rashes on her knees that have been persistent. Routine blood tests were ordered and all came back normal except for one positive result. What is the name of the dermatological condition she is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin condition that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is an autoimmune blistering disorder that is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces of the body, such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is required, which will show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis. This condition can be managed by following a gluten-free diet and taking dapsone medication.

      It is important to understand the symptoms and management of dermatitis herpetiformis to ensure that proper treatment is given. By following a gluten-free diet and taking medication, individuals with this condition can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 86 - A 35-year-old woman presents for review at her local general practice surgery. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for review at her local general practice surgery. She has noticed a number of patches of pale skin on her hands over the past few weeks. The patient has tried using emollients and topical clotrimazole with no result.
      On examination, a number of depigmented patches on the dorsum of both hands are noted. Her past medical history includes thyrotoxicosis for which she takes carbimazole and thyroxine.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is most appropriate before starting treatment?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitiligo: Diagnosis and Testing

      Vitiligo is an autoimmune condition that causes depigmentation of the skin due to the loss of melanocytes. It is usually diagnosed based on clinical features, such as well-demarcated patches of depigmented skin. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for vitiligo, a punch biopsy may be used to obtain a skin sample for histological analysis in cases of suspected skin cancer or inflammatory skin disease. However, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo.

      It is important to note that vitiligo is commonly associated with other autoimmune conditions, such as type I diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While it can affect individuals of any age, it often arises before the age of 20 years and is equally prevalent in men and women. Itching and other symptoms are rare, and the changes may be more noticeable in individuals with light skin during the summer months.

      In contrast, a radioallergosorbent test (RAST) is unsuitable for diagnosing vitiligo as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for diagnosing food allergies, inhaled allergens, and venom allergies. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, such as when the patient is taking antihistamines or has extensive eczema.

      In summary, vitiligo is a clinical diagnosis that does not require further testing. While a punch biopsy may be used in certain cases, skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful in diagnosing vitiligo. It is important to be aware of the potential association with other autoimmune conditions and to monitor for any changes in skin pigmentation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 87 - A 27-year-old man has come back from a vacation at the beach in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has come back from a vacation at the beach in Tenerife with a fresh rash on his neck and arms. The rash consists of patches that are coppery brown in color and lighter than the surrounding skin. There is no itching or pain associated with the rash. When examined with a Wood's light, the affected areas show yellow-green fluorescence.

      What is the recommended initial treatment for this skin condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Ketoconazole shampoo is the recommended first-line therapy for treating pityriasis versicolor, a fungal infection caused by Malassezia furfur that commonly affects the trunk, neck, and arms following sun exposure. While the rash is usually asymptomatic, an emollient may help with any associated itch or irritation, but it is not sufficient to treat the underlying fungal infection. Oral antifungals like itraconazole may be necessary for extensive or unresponsive cases, but for limited non-extensive disease, ketoconazole shampoo is the preferred treatment. Topical steroids and vitamin D analogues are not effective in treating pityriasis versicolor.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 88 - As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient with severe hay fever. The patient is in her early 20s and expresses her desire to take antihistamines but is worried about feeling drowsy. What would be the best medication option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine and cetirizine are antihistamines that are not likely to cause sedation, unlike chlorpheniramine which is known to be more sedating.

      While loratadine may still cause sedation, it is less likely to do so compared to other antihistamines such as chlorphenamine and promethazine. Buclizine, on the other hand, is primarily used as an anti-emetic for migraines but also has antihistamine properties. Mirtazapine, although it has antihistamine properties, is mainly used as an antidepressant and appetite stimulant.

      Antihistamines for Allergic Rhinitis and Urticaria

      Antihistamines, specifically H1 inhibitors, are effective in treating allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Sedating antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine have antimuscarinic properties that can cause side effects like urinary retention and dry mouth. On the other hand, non-sedating antihistamines like loratidine and cetirizine are less likely to cause drowsiness. However, there is some evidence that cetirizine may still cause more drowsiness compared to other non-sedating antihistamines. Overall, antihistamines are a valuable treatment option for those suffering from allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 89 - You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your...

    Incorrect

    • You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
      Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care

      Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.

      Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.

      In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to see her General Practitioner with a rash covering her face, trunk, arms and legs. She had a fever for a couple of days with a runny nose before the rash appears but is now well and afebrile. The rash is mainly vesicular with small fluid-filled blisters and there are a few scabbed lesions. Her father is concerned as she is scratching the lesions, especially at night. She is otherwise fit and well and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for chickenpox in Children

      chickenpox is a common viral infection in children that presents with a characteristic vesicular rash. While there is no specific treatment for chickenpox, symptomatic relief can be provided to alleviate itching and fever. Here are some treatment options for chickenpox in children:

      1. Chlorphenamine: This sedating antihistamine can be used at night-time to help with itching.

      2. Aciclovir: This antiviral medication is recommended for patients who are immunosuppressed or have risk factors for developing complications from infection, such as adults or newborns.

      3. Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is used to treat secondary bacterial infections that can occur with chickenpox. However, it is not necessary for a child who is well and afebrile.

      4. Ibuprofen: While ibuprofen and paracetamol are both used as antipyretics in children with febrile illnesses, the use of ibuprofen in children with chickenpox is linked to an increased risk of severe skin infection. Paracetamol is recommended instead.

      5. Malathion: This treatment is for scabies, not chickenpox. Scabies presents with a different type of rash and does not have a prodromal illness.

      In summary, treatment for chickenpox in children is mainly symptomatic. Antihistamines and calamine lotion can help with itching, while paracetamol can be used for fever. Antibiotics and antivirals are only necessary in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 92 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of hair loss. She reports noticing that her hair has become significantly thinner and that she is shedding more hair than usual, both on her pillow and in the shower drain. She denies any other symptoms and has no significant medical history except for giving birth to her first child 6 months ago. She is not taking any medications regularly and there is no family history of hair loss. On examination, her scalp hair is uniformly thin, but there are no areas of complete hair loss. Her systemic examination is unremarkable and her vital signs are within normal limits. Blood tests, including iron studies and thyroid function, are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Telogen effluvium

      Explanation:

      Telogen effluvium is characterized by hair loss and thinning as a result of experiencing significant stress. In this case, the patient’s recent physical stress from giving birth is a likely cause of her hair becoming thinner due to telogen effluvium. The hair loss patterns observed do not match those of alopecia areata or alopecia totalis, which respectively cause distinct areas of complete hair loss or complete loss of all hair on the head and face.

      Input:
      Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

      Output:
      – Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
      – Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
      – Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents to a dermatology appointment with several new scaly plaques on her scalp that are causing itching and redness, especially around the occipital region. She has a past medical history of chronic plaque psoriasis that is typically managed well with topical treatment and emollients. The dermatologist confirms a diagnosis of scalp psoriasis. What is the best course of action for treating her recent diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical betamethasone valerate

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing scalp psoriasis, the approach is slightly different from managing plaque psoriasis. The first-line treatment typically involves using potent corticosteroids topically. Among the options, betamethasone valerate is the best answer as it is a potent corticosteroid that can be prescribed as a shampoo or mousse for easier application. For severe and extensive psoriasis, oral methotrexate may be recommended, but this is not applicable to the patient in question. Phototherapy is also an option for extensive psoriasis, but not for this patient who has well-controlled chronic plaque psoriasis. If no improvement is seen after 8 weeks of using a topical potent corticosteroid, second-line treatment may involve using topical vitamin D.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 38-year-old male presents to his GP with a raised, patchy rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents to his GP with a raised, patchy rash on his elbows and knees. The lesions have slowly developed over the past few months and are itchy but not painful. He mentions that the rash improved slightly during his recent trip to Morocco and he got temporary relief from the itch.

      Upon examination, you observe well-demarcated, red, scaly patches on his elbow and both knees. The patient has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis and is currently taking naproxen and omeprazole.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical betamethasone + topical calcipotriol

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 95 - You are examining a 7-month-old infant who has a capillary haemangioma located on...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 7-month-old infant who has a capillary haemangioma located on the right cheek that is beginning to interfere with their vision. Following a conversation with the parents, you have decided to initiate treatment for this area due to the potential impact on eyesight.

      What is the primary treatment option for capillary haemangioma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      When it comes to capillary haemangiomas that require intervention, the preferred treatment is propranolol. Other options include laser therapy or systemic steroids, but topical steroids are unlikely to be effective. Surgery is generally not recommended for most cases.

      Understanding Strawberry Naevus

      Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.

      Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%

      Explanation:

      Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.

      If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.

      While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.

      Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 97 - A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complains of an itchy rash on his palms and genitals. He has observed the same rash around a recent scar on his forearm. During examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 99 - A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a skin rash under her new bracelet. The possibility of a nickel allergy is being considered. What is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nickel Dermatitis

      Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.

      To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. Symptoms of nickel dermatitis can include redness, itching, and swelling of the affected area.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid

      Explanation:

      If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.

      The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.

      Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 101 - A 76-year-old man, who lives alone, presents to his General Practitioner with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man, who lives alone, presents to his General Practitioner with an extensive itchy, red rash over the trunk, arms and legs, which has been worsening over the preceding three days. He has a past medical history of psoriasis, hypertension and high cholesterol.
      On examination, he has an extensive erythematous rash covering much of his body, with evidence of scaling. He has a normal temperature, a blood pressure (BP) of 110/88 mmHg and a pulse of 101 beats per minute.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      Management of Erythroderma in an Elderly Patient Living Alone

      Erythroderma is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent treatment. In elderly patients who are frail and live alone, hospital admission is necessary. This is the case for an 86-year-old man with a history of psoriasis who presents with erythroderma. Topical emollients and steroids are key in management, but this patient requires intravenous fluids and close monitoring for infection and dehydration. Oral antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection. A topical steroid with a vitamin D analogue may be appropriate for psoriasis, but urgent assessment by Dermatology in an inpatient setting is necessary. An outpatient appointment is not appropriate for this patient due to his age and living situation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 102 - A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of an itchy rash on his face and upper chest that has been bothering him for three weeks. He has a history of HIV but has not been taking his antiretroviral medications as prescribed. During the examination, the doctor observes redness on the eyebrows, nasolabial folds, and upper chest, as well as excoriations around the rash. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is the likely diagnosis for this man’s rash, especially given his medical history of HIV. The recommended first-line treatment for this condition is topical ketoconazole. While oral fluconazole may be useful for treating fungal infections and preventing them in HIV patients, it is not effective for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Oral prednisolone is only used for short periods to treat severe inflammatory skin diseases like atopic dermatitis and is not indicated for seborrhoeic dermatitis. Although topical steroids like hydrocortisone can be used to treat seborrhoeic dermatitis, they are not the preferred initial treatment.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 103 - You assess a 23-year-old male patient who has newly developed extensive psoriatic plaques...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 23-year-old male patient who has newly developed extensive psoriatic plaques on his elbows and knees. He has no prior history of skin issues, but his mother has a history of psoriasis. You suggest using an emollient to manage the scaling. What would be the most suitable initial prescription for treating his plaques?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid + topical calcipotriol

      Explanation:

      As a first-line treatment, NICE suggests using a strong corticosteroid and a vitamin D analogue separately, once a day for up to four weeks. The corticosteroid should be applied in the morning and the vitamin D analogue in the evening.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 104 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful lesion on his ear that has been bothering him for a year. The lesion has remained the same for several months but is causing him significant discomfort when he lies down. He reports no other symptoms.
      Upon examination, the doctor observes a well-defined, 10mm, flesh-colored nodule on the superior helix of the ear. The nodule is firm, very tender to touch, and covered with some scales.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a painful, non-cancerous nodule that commonly occurs on the ear, particularly in men. Based on the patient’s level of pain and the stable nature of the lesion, this is the most likely diagnosis. While squamous cell carcinoma is a possible differential, it typically progresses more rapidly than this lesion. Similarly, basal cell carcinoma usually develops gradually and is not typically associated with significant pain. Although actinic keratosis can cause a scaly lesion on the ear, it is usually not as painful as chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis and tends to progress slowly over time.

      Understanding Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis (CNH) is a harmless condition that is characterized by the formation of a painful nodule on the ear. It is believed to be caused by various factors such as continuous pressure on the ear, trauma, or exposure to cold. This condition is more prevalent in men and tends to occur more frequently as one ages.

      To manage CNH, it is essential to reduce pressure on the ear. This can be achieved by using foam ear protectors while sleeping. Other treatment options include cryotherapy, steroid injection, and collagen injection. However, surgical treatment may be necessary in some cases, although there is a high likelihood of recurrence.

      Overall, understanding CNH is crucial in managing this condition effectively. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, individuals can alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with CNH.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 105 - A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have been present for six weeks. At first, there was only one lesion, but more have appeared since then. During the examination, around 10 raised lesions with an umbilicated appearance, each around 1-2 mm in diameter, are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Molluscum contagiosum is typically observed in children, but the following is a classical depiction of the condition.

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 106 - A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to see her GP for a skin condition that has been slowly progressing over the years. She has had dry patches of skin that eventually turned into plaques, which have been treated as psoriasis. However, the lesions have continued to worsen and now have nodules. Some of these nodules have become painful and have discharged fluid. A biopsy is taken to further assess the lesions, and the pathology report shows lymphocytic and atypical T-cell infiltrates in the dermis and epidermis, with some Pautrier microabscesses. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides, a severe form of T-cell lymphoma that mimics eczema or psoriasis, is a rare but concerning skin condition. The patient’s atypical medical history, previous diagnostic uncertainty, and laboratory results suggest that they may have cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. Biopsy results showing Pautrier microabscesses are a common feature of mycosis fungoides. Harlequin ichthyosis is a genetic disorder that manifests from birth, making it an unlikely diagnosis. Although syphilis can cause various skin symptoms, the biopsy findings do not support this diagnosis. Discoid eczema, also known as nummular dermatitis, has a different clinical course than the patient’s condition, and the biopsy results do not indicate it.

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides

      Mycosis fungoides is a rare type of T-cell lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is characterized by the presence of itchy, red patches that may appear in different colors, unlike eczema or psoriasis where the lesions are more uniform in color. These patches may progress to form plaques, which can be seen in the later stages of the disease.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - A 16-year-old high school student visits his doctor because he is struggling with...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old high school student visits his doctor because he is struggling with his self-esteem due to skin problems. During the examination, you observe multiple open and closed comedones mainly on his chin and cheeks. He also reports experiencing painful papules on his back. About six weeks ago, your colleague prescribed him topical benzoyl peroxide and topical fusidic acid, but he feels that they have not been effective. He has no medical history and is not taking any other medications. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 108 - Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in psoriasis for a 30-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yellow nail syndrome

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthropathy: Nail Changes

      Psoriasis is a skin condition that can also affect the nails. The changes in the nails do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.

      The nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and loss of the nail. These changes can affect both the fingers and toes. It is important to note that while nail changes may not be a reliable indicator of psoriasis severity, they can be a sign of psoriatic arthropathy, which is a type of arthritis that can occur in people with psoriasis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 109 - A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 110 - A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after developing a severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reaction. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which he was taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Still, his symptoms did not improve, and his rheumatologist prescribed him methotrexate a few days ago.
      On examination, Nikolsky’s sign is present and affects 45% of his body’s surface area.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Hypersensitivity Reactions and their Causes

      Skin hypersensitivity reactions can range from mild to life-threatening. Here are some common types and their causes:

      Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis: This is the most serious skin hypersensitivity reaction, with a high mortality rate. It is usually caused by drugs such as NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate, allopurinol and penicillins.

      Erythema Multiforme: This is a target-like lesion that commonly occurs on the palms and soles. It is usually caused by drugs such as penicillins, phenytoin, NSAIDs and sulfa drugs. Mycoplasma and herpes simplex infections can also cause erythema multiforme.

      Erythema Nodosum: This is an inflammatory condition of subcutaneous tissue. The most common causes are recent streptococcal infection, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis and inflammatory bowel disease.

      Fixed Drug Reaction: This is a localised allergic drug reaction that recurs at the same anatomic site of the skin with repeated drug exposure. It is most commonly caused by aspirin, NSAIDs, tetracycline and barbiturate.

      Morbilliform Rash: This is a mild hypersensitivity skin reaction that manifests as a generalised maculopapular eruption that blanches with pressure. The rash can be caused by penicillin, sulfa drugs, allopurinol and phenytoin.

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  • Question 111 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
      He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis

      Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.

      Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.

      Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.

      Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.

      Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 112 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. Upon examination, the blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the most appropriate course of action for this likely diagnosis? Choose the BEST management option from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral to Dermatology for Pemphigus Vulgaris Treatment

      Pemphigus vulgaris requires urgent referral to the Dermatology Team for investigation and treatment. Supportive measures include wound care and antiseptic regimens to reduce the risk of secondary infection. Patients should also avoid activities that may traumatize the skin and mucous membranes during active phases. Topical steroids are used in milder cases, while systemic corticosteroids with topical treatments are preferred in advanced cases. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments. Topical clobetasone butyrate can be used in mild cases, but referral to Dermatology is still necessary. Topical clotrimazole is not a first-line treatment, and topical dapsone should not be started immediately without further investigation and treatment from Dermatology.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 113 - A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of Parkinson's disease comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, red rash on his neck, behind his ears, and around the nasolabial folds. He experienced a similar outbreak last year but did not seek medical attention. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease are more likely to experience seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 114 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

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  • Question 115 - A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms

      Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 116 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed a number of small 'spots' and 'bruises' on his legs that have developed over the past 2-3 days. He initially thought this was due to an allergy but it has not gone away. His son is described as being well apart from a cough he's had for the past 2 weeks.

      On examination, he is apyrexial with a heart rate of 98/min. Examination of his ears, throat and chest is normal. There is no neck stiffness or abdominal masses. A number of petechiae are seen around his chest area as well as purpura on his lower legs and arms.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit immediately to paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a child develops purpura suddenly, it is crucial to refer them for urgent investigations to rule out meningococcal disease and ALL. Although petechiae may occur in viral infections or due to increased pressure in the superior vena cava, purpura is never a normal finding in children. Therefore, immediate admission is necessary to exclude any serious underlying condition. In case of suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, antibiotics should be administered parenterally without delaying transfer.

      Understanding Purpura: Causes and Symptoms

      Purpura is a medical condition characterized by bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, resulting in a non-blanching rash. It is often caused by low platelets, but it can also be associated with bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease. In addition to the rash, smaller petechiae may also be present, which are tiny red or purple spots on the skin.

      It is crucial to recognize purpura as it can indicate the presence of serious underlying diseases. In children, a new purpuric rash should be treated as an emergency and investigated immediately, as it may be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, parenteral antibiotics should be given before transfer.

      The causes of purpura can vary depending on the age group. In children, it can be caused by meningococcal septicaemia, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, congenital bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, or non-accidental injury. In adults, it can be caused by immune thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia, or bone metastases), senile purpura, drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics), or nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C, and folate).

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  • Question 117 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with patchy hair loss on her scalp, which is well-defined. The hair loss is affecting approximately 25% of her scalp, and she is experiencing significant emotional distress. The doctor suspects alopecia areata. What would be an appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid + referral to dermatologist

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Clinical Excellence updated its guideline for hypertension management in 2011, placing emphasis on the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm hypertension in individuals with elevated clinic readings. ABPM involves taking two measurements per hour during waking hours and using the average of at least 14 measurements to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. Secondary causes of hypertension should be investigated in patients under 40 without traditional risk factors, those with other symptoms of secondary causes, and those with resistant hypertension. Hyperaldosteronism is the most common cause of secondary hypertension, and a trial of spironolactone may be used for both therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Drug treatment for essential hypertension involves ACE inhibitors for those under 55 and calcium channel blockers for those over 55 or of black African or Caribbean origin. Step 2 involves using both ACE inhibitors and calcium channel blockers, while step 3 adds a thiazide-like diuretic. Further diuretics, beta-blockers, or alpha blockers may be considered in step 4, with expert advice sought.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines aimed to classify hypertension into stages and recommend the use of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to accurately diagnose hypertension. This is important because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM allow for a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can prevent overdiagnosis.

      NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms when considering a diagnosis of hypertension and repeating measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg between arms. If the blood pressure is >= 140/90 mmHg, NICE suggests offering ABPM or HBPM to confirm the diagnosis. If the blood pressure is >= 180/120 mmHg, referral for specialist assessment is recommended if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately.

      ABPM involves taking at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours and using the average value of at least 14 measurements. If ABPM is not tolerated, HBPM should be offered. HBPM involves taking two consecutive measurements at least 1 minute apart, twice daily for at least 4 days, and using the average value of all remaining measurements.

      Interpreting the results of ABPM/HBPM is important for determining treatment. If the average blood pressure is >= 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension), treatment may be considered for patients under 80 years of age with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. In 2019, NICE also recommended considering antihypertensive drug treatment for adults under 60 with stage 1 hypertension and an estimated 10-year risk below 10%. If the average blood pressure is >= 150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension), drug treatment should be offered regardless of age.

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  • Question 118 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments

      Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.

      Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.

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  • Question 119 - A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp. What is the most suitable treatment option among the following choices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%

      Explanation:

      It’s a challenging question, especially since the decision on psoriasis treatment often involves the patient and doctor’s preference. While vitamin D analogues can be an option, calcipotriol is not advisable due to its potential to cause irritation. Instead, calcitriol and tacalcitol can be considered. For facial psoriasis, mild potency topical steroids can be effective. However, coal tar may not be well-tolerated for facial application due to its unpleasant odor and messiness.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 120 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema and Crohn's disease presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of eczema and Crohn's disease presents with a pruritic, red rash in the right and left popliteal regions. She works as a nurse and frequently scratches the back of her knees while on duty. This is the third time she has experienced such a popliteal rash. She reports having had similar skin conditions affecting her posterior neck and inguinal areas in the past.
      Upon examination, both popliteal areas are inflamed with mild swelling and exudation. There are some accompanying vesicles and papules.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions and Their Distribution: Understanding the Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing skin conditions, the location and distribution of the rash or lesion are just as important as their appearance. For instance, a rash in the flexural regions of an adult patient, such as the popliteal region, is likely to be atopic dermatitis, especially if the patient has a history of asthma. Acute dermatitis typically presents with erythema, oedema, vesicles, and papules.

      On the other hand, dermatitis herpetiformis, which is often associated with coeliac disease and malabsorption, presents with grouped vesicles and papules over the extensor surfaces of the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. A rash limited to the popliteal region is unlikely to be dermatitis herpetiformis.

      Lichen planus, characterized by flat-topped, pruritic, polygonal, red-to-violaceous papules or plaques, is mostly found on the wrists, ankles, or genitalia. Psoriasis, which presents with silvery, scaling, erythematous plaques, is primarily found on the extensor surfaces. Seborrhoeic dermatitis, which is found in the distribution of the sebaceous glands, such as the nasolabial folds, scalp, eyebrows, genitalia, and presternal regions, is unlikely to be the cause of a rash limited to the popliteal region.

      In summary, understanding the distribution and location of skin lesions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis of dermatological conditions.

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  • Question 121 - A 29-year-old woman presents with painful, purple lesions on her shins. Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with painful, purple lesions on her shins. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.

      Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 122 - A 25-year-old female with a past medical history of anorexia nervosa complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female with a past medical history of anorexia nervosa complains of red crusted lesions located at the corners of her mouth and below her lower lip. What nutrient deficiency is she most likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zinc

      Explanation:

      Angular cheilitis can also be caused by a lack of vitamin B2 (riboflavin).

      Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

      Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), cognitive impairment, and more.

      One specific type of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including the characteristic skin lesions, as well as other physical and cognitive impairments. It is important to recognize the signs of zinc deficiency and seek appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. With proper management, individuals with zinc deficiency can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 123 - A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands. She has recently moved from the Philippines and has no significant medical history. The suspected diagnosis is contact dermatitis. What is the most appropriate test to determine the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      The skin patch test can be beneficial in this scenario as it has the potential to detect irritants in addition to allergens.

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 124 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 125 - A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents with a rash on the face. He first...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents with a rash on the face. He first noticed this six months ago when he experienced episodes of flushing on the face. This has often occurred after he had alcohol or in situations where he felt stressful. A month ago, he started noticing a rash on his cheeks which came on intermittently until three weeks ago when the rash has become permanent. There has been no pain or itch associated with the rash. He is otherwise fit and well. He does not smoke.

      On examination of the face, there is marked erythema with papules, pustules and telangiectasia. There are no comedones seen. The rash is distributed across the cheeks and nose. There is no per-oral or peri-orbital involvement.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The features described suggest acne rosacea, with episodic flushing, papules and pustules with telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks and forehead. Other conditions such as acne vulgaris, systemic lupus erythematosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis and shingles are unlikely based on the described symptoms.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 126 - A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient comes to you with concerns about changes in his axillary skin. He reports feeling otherwise healthy and denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, you observe thickened and darkened skin in the axillary creases. The patient's BMI is 38 kg/m² and his blood pressure is within normal limits. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      A thickened brown velvety patch of skin, often accompanied by skin tags, is a common sign of Acanthosis nigricans (AN). This condition is typically found in the axilla, groin, and back of the neck. However, AN is not a standalone condition, but rather a cutaneous sign of underlying disease. The most common type of AN is associated with obesity and insulin resistance. Other underlying conditions linked to AN include Cushing’s syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain medications such as nicotinic acid, insulin, and systemic corticosteroids. In rare cases, AN may indicate an underlying malignancy, particularly stomach cancer. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this possibility when making a diagnosis.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 127 - A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a nodular change on his back. He complains that it has become itchy and bleeding over the past two months. On examination, it appears black and blue in colour with a slightly irregular border.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Malignancies: Types and Characteristics

      Skin lesions and malignancies are common conditions that affect people of all ages. Among the most prevalent types are malignant melanoma, actinic keratosis, guttate psoriasis, lentigo maligna, and seborrhoeic keratosis. Each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help in their diagnosis and management.

      Malignant Melanoma: This is a type of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes in the skin. It can present as a black or brown lesion with asymmetrical shape, irregular border, multiple colors, and diameter greater than 6mm. Any change in size, shape, color, or symptoms such as bleeding or itching should be evaluated promptly.

      Actinic Keratosis: This is a sun-induced lesion that can become malignant. It appears as a scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion with a brown or hyperpigmented base. It commonly occurs on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Guttate Psoriasis: This is a skin condition that causes multiple lesions. It can present as scaly, hyperpigmented, or scaly lesions that are usually brown with a scaly base.

      Lentigo Maligna: This is an early form of melanoma that is confined to the epidermis. It presents as a slowly growing or changing patch of discolored skin that resembles freckles or brown marks. It can grow to several centimeters over several years or decades.

      Seborrhoeic Keratosis: This is a harmless, pigmented growth that commonly occurs with age. It appears as a raised, often pigmented lesion that rarely causes bleeding.

      In summary, skin lesions and malignancies can have various presentations and characteristics. It is important to be aware of their features and seek medical attention if any changes or symptoms occur. Regular skin checks and sun protection can help prevent and detect these conditions early.

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  • Question 128 - A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of itchy, violaceous papules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of itchy, violaceous papules on the flexor aspects of her wrists. She has no significant medical history and has never experienced a similar rash before. Based on the probable diagnosis, what other symptom is she most likely to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucous membrane involvement

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In addition, elderly women may experience itchy white spots on the vulva, known as lichen sclerosus. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed in lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 129 - A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aluminium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.

      Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.

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  • Question 130 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. He has noticed a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. He has noticed a few patches of pale skin on his arms over the past few weeks. He is not particularly worried about these but wants to know what it could be and what he needs to do about it.
      On examination, a few depigmented patches on the arms are noted. His medical history includes asthma, for which he takes inhalers.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments should he be started on?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Daily sunscreen to the affected areas

      Explanation:

      Managing Vitiligo: Recommended Treatments and Precautions

      Vitiligo is a skin condition that requires careful management to prevent further damage and reduce the risk of skin cancer. Daily application of sunscreen to affected areas is crucial due to increased susceptibility to UV-light-induced damage. Camouflaging makeup can also help alleviate psychological distress. Topical steroids are recommended for up to two months, and if there is no response, a referral to a dermatologist is necessary. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not useful in vitiligo management. Oral steroids are rarely used, and topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments. Topical tacrolimus and phototherapy may have a role, but caution is needed for light-skinned patients. Overall, early intervention and precautionary measures are key to managing vitiligo effectively.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 131 - A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.

      During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir

      Explanation:

      Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 132 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician's office by her father, who is concerned about a red rash on her arms and chest. She has been feeling sick, with cold-like symptoms preceding the rash. The rash is erythematous, macular and symmetrical to both arms and chest and is non-blanching. She is currently without fever and appears to be in good health.
      What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Between Different Skin Conditions: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura, eczema, intertrigo, meningococcal disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all skin conditions that can present with various rashes and symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to distinguish between these conditions in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, joint and abdominal pain, and nephritis. Eczema is characterized by areas of erythema that are blanching, dry skin with fine scales, and excoriations. Intertrigo primarily affects the flexures with erythematous patches that may progress to intense inflammation. Meningococcal disease presents with a non-blanching rash that rapidly progresses to purpura and requires immediate treatment. Systemic lupus erythematosus is rare in children and presents with a malar or butterfly rash on the face, joint pain, fever, or weight loss.

      By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 133 - A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema

      Explanation:

      The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 134 - A 31-year-old female patient visits the GP office with a concerning facial rash....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient visits the GP office with a concerning facial rash. She reports that the rash worsens after consuming alcohol and has not attempted any treatment before. During the examination, the doctor observes facial erythema, papules, and pustules scattered on the chin and cheeks, and telangiectasia of the lesions. The nasolabial groove is also affected, but there are no comedones. What is the best initial treatment for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild to moderate acne rosacea, the most appropriate initial option is topical metronidazole. This patient, who presents with erythematous papules and pustules exacerbated by alcohol and telangiectasia, falls under this category. Oral tetracycline can be considered for severe or resistant cases, but it is not necessary for this patient. Oral doxycycline is a second-line treatment option for resistant cases, but it has potential adverse effects such as nausea, diarrhoea, oesophagitis, and increased photosensitivity. Oral isotretinoin and topical adapalene are not indicated for the management of rosacea symptoms and should be avoided. Topical hydrocortisone can even worsen rosacea symptoms and should not be used.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 135 - A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the dermatology clinic for follow-up. He has a previous medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral retinoin

      Explanation:

      Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 136 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

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  • Question 137 - A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with pruritic, violaceous papules in a polygonal pattern on the flexor surface of his forearms. Several of these papules have merged to form plaques. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a rash that appears as purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. It is often accompanied by Wickham’s striae on the surface and can also affect the mouth. In contrast, lichen sclerosus is characterized by white, itchy spots that commonly appear on the vulva of older women.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 138 - A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents complaining of severe itching, which is mainly affecting her groin. The problem has been worsening over the past two to three weeks and is now unbearable. She mentions having slept with a new partner a few weeks before she noticed the problem.
      You notice an erythematous, papular rash affecting the web spaces on the hands. She also has erythematous papules and scratch marks around the groin in particular.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 80 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      You draw on the web spaces between her fingers with a felt-tip. Rubbing off the excess reveals several burrows.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei hominis infection

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Itching and Skin Lesions: Scabies, Atopic Dermatitis, Erythema Infectiosum, Folliculitis, and Keratosis Pilaris

      A patient presents with itching between the web spaces and in the groin, which has been ongoing for three to four weeks. The patient reports sexual intercourse as a possible mode of transmission. The differential diagnosis includes scabies, atopic dermatitis, erythema infectiosum, folliculitis, and keratosis pilaris.

      Scabies is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with itching after a delay of three to four weeks following skin-to-skin contact. A washable felt-tip can be used to identify the burrows of the scabies mites, and treatment involves a typical topical agent such as permethrin cream.

      Atopic dermatitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents with a rash/itch on the flexor aspects of the joints and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.

      Erythema infectiosum is a doubtful diagnosis, as it primarily affects children and presents with a slapped cheek appearance and other symptoms such as fever and headache.

      Folliculitis is an unlikely diagnosis, as it presents with pinpoint erythematous lesions on the chest, face, scalp, or back and is unrelated to sexual intercourse.

      Keratosis pilaris is an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically affects the upper arms, buttocks, and thighs and presents with small white lesions that make the skin feel rough. It is also unrelated to sexual activity.

      In conclusion, scabies is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms, and treatment with a topical agent such as permethrin cream is recommended.

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  • Question 139 - A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing, and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by his doctor, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, he has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral ulcers that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy shows circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other condition is likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Blistering Conditions: Pemphigus Vulgaris and Bullous Pemphigoid

      Pemphigus Vulgaris: Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged patients. The condition is caused by Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies against desmosomal components (desmogleins 1 and 3) of the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that rupture easily, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are usually positive. The condition requires aggressive treatment, with high-dose steroids initially used, and life-long maintenance doses often needed. Immunologicals are being trialled.

      Bullous Pemphigoid: Another Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Bullous pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering condition that typically affects older patients. The condition is caused by antibodies directed to the deeper basement membrane of the skin. This results in tense, firm, often haemorrhagic blisters that do not rupture easily. Oral lesions are rare, and Nikolsky’s sign is negative. Immunofluorescence reveals linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basement membrane of the skin, and antibodies against hemidesmosomes may be positive. The condition carries significantly less morbidity than pemphigus vulgaris, and topical steroid cream (ex: clobetasol propionate usually suffices).

      No Link to Other Conditions

      There is no link between pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid and other conditions such as alopecia, positive HIV serology, or psoriasis. It is important to understand the differences between these autoimmune blistering conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 140 - A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some skin lesions on the child's face. Upon examination, you observe multiple small white papules on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Milia

      Explanation:

      Milia, which are often found on the face of newborns, are a normal occurrence and can be seen in up to 50% of babies. They typically disappear on their own within a few weeks.

      Understanding Milia: Small, Benign Cysts on the Face

      Milia are small cysts that are filled with keratin and are typically found on the face. These cysts are benign and are not harmful to one’s health. Although they can appear at any age, they are more commonly found in newborns. Milia are often described as small, white bumps that are painless and do not cause any discomfort.

      While the exact cause of milia is unknown, they are thought to occur when dead skin cells become trapped in the skin’s surface. They can also develop as a result of using heavy skin care products or as a side effect of certain medications. In most cases, milia will disappear on their own without any treatment. However, if they persist or become bothersome, a dermatologist may recommend treatment options such as extraction or chemical peels.

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  • Question 141 - A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic. The child's eczema is typically managed well with emollients, but the parents are worried as the facial eczema has worsened significantly overnight. The child now has painful blisters clustered on both cheeks, around the mouth, and on the neck. The child's temperature is 37.9ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, which is a severe condition.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

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  • Question 142 - A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to dermatology after being referred by her physician for lesions on both shins. Upon examination, symmetrical erythematous lesions with an orange peel texture are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is a condition characterized by orange peel-like lesions on the skin of the shins, often associated with Grave’s disease.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 143 - A concerned parent brings her 4-month-old to your clinic with a bright red...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned parent brings her 4-month-old to your clinic with a bright red lump on their scalp that has been gradually increasing in size over the past 6 weeks. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capillary haemangioma

      Explanation:

      Port wine stain and naevus flammeus are two different conditions that are often confused with each other. While they both present as red or purple birthmarks, port wine stains are caused by a malformation of blood vessels in the skin, while naevus flammeus is a type of capillary malformation.

      Understanding Strawberry Naevus

      Strawberry naevus, also known as capillary haemangioma, is a type of skin condition that usually develops in infants within the first month of life. It is characterized by raised, erythematous, and multilobed tumours that commonly appear on the face, scalp, and back. While it is not present at birth, it can grow rapidly and reach its peak size at around 6-9 months before regressing over the next few years. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve before the child reaches 10 years of age. However, there are potential complications that may arise, such as obstructing visual fields or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia.

      Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in female and premature infants, as well as those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling. In cases where treatment is necessary, propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers like timolol may also be used. It is important to note that there is a deeper type of capillary haemangioma called cavernous haemangioma. Understanding the nature of strawberry naevus is crucial in managing its potential complications and providing appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 144 - A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (a potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks.
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient has already received eight weeks of potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue. The next step is to stop the steroid and increase the vitamin D analogue to twice daily. Steroids should not be used at the same site for more than eight weeks, and patients require a 4-week steroid-free break. If symptoms persist, twice-daily steroids or a coal tar preparation can be tried. Referral to Dermatology may be necessary for severe cases, but starting the next stage of treatment while awaiting review is appropriate. An ultra-potent steroid may be considered after the steroid-free break or as a short course if necessary.

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  • Question 145 - A 28-year-old man who is HIV positive has been diagnosed with seborrhoeic dermatitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man who is HIV positive has been diagnosed with seborrhoeic dermatitis. What are the two most commonly associated complications with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis and otitis externa

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis often leads to otitis externa and blepharitis as complications. Although rare, alopecia may occur if a severe secondary infection develops.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

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  • Question 146 - A 67-year-old woman presents with extensive mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with extensive mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. The blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Blisters or bullae with no involvement of the mucosa may indicate bullous pemphigoid, while the presence of mucosal involvement may suggest pemphigus vulgaris.

      Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune disease that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of protein that helps cells stick together. This condition is more common in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration, which is often the first symptom. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also common, with flaccid, easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may develop months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign, which describes the spread of bullae following application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin, is also a common feature. Acantholysis, or the separation of cells in the skin, is seen on biopsy.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to help control the disease. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 147 - Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell cancer

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell skin cancer is the most notable adverse effect of PUVA therapy in treating psoriasis.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

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  • Question 148 - A 50-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of the wrists. She is mainly bothered by the troublesome and persistent itching.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate

      Explanation:

      Management of Lichen Planus: Topical Clobetasone Butyrate

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that can be managed with daily potent topical steroids, such as clobetasone butyrate. As the lesions improve, the potency of the steroid can be decreased. It is important to advise patients to only treat the active, itchy lesions and not the post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation to minimize side effects. These treatments can also be used on the genital skin and scalp. Sedating antihistamines may help with itching at night, but should only be used periodically. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments for lichen planus. Referring for a punch biopsy is not necessary unless the presentation is atypical. The characteristic histological findings of lichen planus include irregular acanthosis of the epidermis, irregular thickening of the granular layer, and compact hyperkeratosis in the center of the papule. Topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments for lichen planus.

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  • Question 149 - A 55-year-old man visits his doctor as he noticed a new spot on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his doctor as he noticed a new spot on his arm while showering. Upon examination, there is a lesion that appears to be dark brown and has a raised appearance.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic keratosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Keratoses: A Common Benign Skin Condition in the Elderly

      Seborrhoeic keratoses, also known as senile warts, are a benign overgrowth of epidermal keratinocytes that commonly present in individuals over the age of 60. These warty nodules are usually found on the trunk and can be light tan to black in color. While they can be unsightly, seborrhoeic keratoses are not harmful and do not require treatment. However, there is a small risk of infection if the lesion is picked at. If a growth becomes excessively itchy or irritated, it can be removed through various methods such as cryotherapy, curettage, shave biopsy, or excision biopsy. It is important to understand this common skin condition to avoid unnecessary worry or concern.

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  • Question 150 - A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hyperplasia presents to dermatology with multiple lesions on his shin. Upon examination, symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules are observed. The lesions are healing without scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      The relevant diagnosis for this question relies solely on the description of the lesions, as the patient’s medical history is not a factor. Specifically, the tender shin lesions are indicative of erythema nodosum.

      Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

      Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

      Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

      Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

      Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

      Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 151 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Dermatology Clinic for regular follow-up of her psoriasis. This had previously been well controlled after phototherapy six months ago; however, she has recently deteriorated.
      Her current treatment regime includes topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment and topical hydromol ointment, in addition to amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. She is otherwise fit and well.
      On examination, she has an erythematous rash covering much of her back, with widespread patches on her arms and legs. The rash is tender and warm, though she appears to be shivering. There are no oral lesions. Her pulse is 98 beats per minute, while her blood pressure (BP) is 95/50 mmHg and her temperature is 38.2 °C.
      What is the most important next step in this woman's treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Hospital Admission Required for Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a severe dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient who presents with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. While the patient’s psoriasis needs more intensive management, it is not appropriate to manage erythroderma in the community.

      The treatment for erythrodermic psoriasis includes supportive care, such as intravenous fluids, cool, wet dressings, and a systemic agent. The choice of a systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. However, it is important to note that starting any systemic agent requires investigations, including baseline blood tests and a viral screen, to ensure it is not contraindicated.

      It is crucial to differentiate erythrodermic psoriasis from other dermatological emergencies like Stevens-Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), which is a severe drug reaction associated with amoxicillin and anti-epileptic therapies. However, in this case, the patient’s history features a slow deterioration of pre-existing psoriasis, and the rash is not desquamating, and there are no oral lesions. Therefore, hospital admission is required for erythrodermic psoriasis.

      It is essential to avoid repeating phototherapy in a patient with erythrodermic psoriasis as it can worsen the condition. In a well patient, phototherapy would not be reattempted six months after a poor response, and an alternate approach would most likely be sought.

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  • Question 152 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pruritus

      Explanation:

      It is uncommon for pruritus to be present in cases of acne rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 153 - A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further testing required, start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST

      Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.

      Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.

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