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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice

      Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

      For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.

      While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.

      In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      60.2
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old intravenous (IV) drug user presents with pyrexia (39.8 °C) and general...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old intravenous (IV) drug user presents with pyrexia (39.8 °C) and general malaise. On examination, you identify a pansystolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. You also notice that he has vertical red lines running along his nails and he tells you that he has been experiencing night sweats.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Infective Endocarditis from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals

      When a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis until proven otherwise. To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo cultures, IV antibiotics, an electrocardiogram (ECG), and an echocardiogram (ECHO). It is worth noting that intravenous drug users (IVDUs) are more likely to experience endocarditis of the tricuspid valve, which would produce a pan-systolic murmur.

      It is important to distinguish infective endocarditis from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, aortic stenosis would produce an ejection systolic murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia, night sweats, or splinter hemorrhages. Similarly, mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic decrescendo murmur, and patients would not experience pyrexia or night sweats.

      IVDU-associated hepatitis C would not explain the murmur, and a hepatitis C screening test would be necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Tricuspid regurgitation would explain the murmur, but not the pyrexia or night sweats. Therefore, the presence of these symptoms together would be most suggestive of an acute infective endocarditis.

      In summary, when a patient presents with a new murmur and pyrexia, it is important to consider infective endocarditis as a potential diagnosis and rule out other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.5
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  • Question 3 - You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics...

    Correct

    • You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure

      When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.

      Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.

      Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      62.4
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with atrial fibrillation visited the Cardiology Clinic for electrophysiological ablation. What is the least frequent pathological alteration observed in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Fourth heart sound

      Explanation:

      Effects of Atrial Fibrillation on the Heart

      Atrial fibrillation is a condition characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats. This condition can have several effects on the heart, including the following:

      Fourth Heart Sound: In conditions such as hypertensive heart disease, active atrial contraction can cause active filling of a stiff left ventricle, leading to the fourth heart sound. However, this sound cannot be heard in atrial fibrillation.

      Apical-Radial Pulse Deficit: Ineffective left ventricular filling can lead to cardiac ejections that cannot be detected by radial pulse palpation, resulting in the apical-radial pulse deficit.

      Left Atrial Thrombus: Stasis of blood in the left atrial appendage due to ineffective contraction in atrial fibrillation is the main cause of systemic embolisation.

      Reduction of Cardiac Output by 20%: Ineffective atrial contraction reduces left ventricular filling volumes, leading to a reduction in stroke volume and cardiac output by up to 20%.

      Symptomatic Palpitations: Palpitations are the most common symptom reported by patients in atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, atrial fibrillation can have significant effects on the heart and may require medical intervention to manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      21.4
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with exertional chest pain. He reports that this has only begun in the past few days, particularly when climbing hills. The pain is not present when he is at rest.
      What is the gold standard test that you will request for this patient from the following tests?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Investigating Cardiac Chest Pain: Recommended Tests

      When a patient presents with cardiac chest pain, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to determine the underlying cause. The following tests are recommended:

      Computed Tomography (CT) Coronary Angiogram: This non-invasive test uses CT scanning to detect any evidence of coronary artery disease and determine its extent. It is considered the gold standard test for investigating cardiac chest pain.

      Angiogram: Before undergoing an angiogram, the patient should first have an exercise tolerance test (ETT) to assess real-time cardiac function during exertion. If the patient experiences ischaemic changes and reduced exercise tolerance, an angiogram may be necessary.

      Chest X-ray: A chest X-ray is not a priority investigation for cardiac chest pain, as it does not aid in diagnosis unless there is evidence of associated heart failure or pleural effusions.

      Full Blood Count: While anaemia could contribute to angina, a full blood count is not a first-line investigation for cardiac chest pain.

      Troponin: Troponin levels may be raised in cases of myocardial damage, but are not necessary for managing angina. The recurring pain and relief with rest indicate angina, rather than a myocardial infarction (MI), which would present with crushing chest pain and dyspnoea that is not alleviated by rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18
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  • Question 6 - A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her yoga class. She has been reporting occasional chest pains and difficulty breathing during exercise in the past few weeks. During her physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected at the right upper sternal edge, and her second heart sound is faint. Additionally, she has a slow-rising pulse. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Aortic and Mitral Valve Disorders

      When evaluating a patient with a heart murmur, it is important to consider the characteristics of the murmur and associated symptoms to determine the underlying valve disorder. In a patient under 70 years old, a slow-rising and weak pulse with a history of collapse is indicative of critical stenosis caused by a bicuspid aortic valve. On the other hand, calcific aortic stenosis is more common in patients over 70 years old and presents differently. Aortic valve regurgitation is characterized by a murmur heard during early diastole and a collapsing pulse, but it is less likely to cause syncope. Mitral valve regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex with a laterally displaced apex beat, but it may present with congestive heart failure rather than syncope or angina. Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, but a pan-systolic murmur at the apex may be present if there is coexisting mitral regurgitation. By understanding the unique features of each valve disorder, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.3
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraception options, specifically the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has no medical history, is a non-smoker, and reports no health concerns. During her check-up, her GP measures her blood pressure and finds it to be 168/96 mmHg, which is consistent on repeat testing and in both arms. Upon examination, her BMI is 24 kg/m2, her pulse is 70 bpm, femoral pulses are palpable, and there is an audible renal bruit. Urinalysis is normal, and blood tests reveal no abnormalities in full blood count, urea, creatinine, electrolytes, or thyroid function. What is the most conclusive test to determine the underlying cause of her hypertension?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging with gadolinium contrast of renal arteries

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes

      Secondary hypertension is a condition where high blood pressure is caused by an underlying medical condition. To diagnose the cause of secondary hypertension, various diagnostic tests are available. Here are some of the tests that can be done:

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging with Gadolinium Contrast of Renal Arteries
      This test is used to diagnose renal artery stenosis, which is the most common cause of secondary hypertension in young people, especially young women. It is done when a renal bruit is detected. Fibromuscular dysplasia, a vascular disorder that affects the renal arteries, is one of the most common causes of renal artery stenosis in young adults, particularly women.

      Echocardiogram
      While an echocardiogram can assess for end-organ damage resulting from hypertension, it cannot provide the actual cause of hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta is unlikely if there is no blood pressure differential between arms.

      24-Hour Urine Cortisol
      This test is done to diagnose Cushing syndrome, which is unlikely in this case. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is exogenous steroid use, which the patient does not have. In addition, the patient has a normal BMI and does not have a cushingoid appearance on examination.

      Plasma Metanephrines
      This test is done to diagnose phaeochromocytoma, which is unlikely in this case. The patient does not have symptoms suggestive of it, such as sweating, headache, palpitations, and syncope. Phaeochromocytoma is also a rare tumour, causing less than 1% of cases of secondary hypertension.

      Renal Ultrasound
      This test is a less accurate method for assessing the renal arteries. Renal parenchymal disease is unlikely in this case as urinalysis, urea, and creatinine are normal.

      Diagnostic Tests for Secondary Hypertension: Assessing the Causes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      35.3
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that began...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain that began 2 hours ago. He reports that he first noticed the pain while lying down. The pain is rated at 7/10 in intensity and worsens with deep inspiration but improves when he leans forward. The patient has a medical history of long-standing diabetes mellitus and had a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago, for which he underwent coronary artery bypass grafting. The surgery was uncomplicated, and he recovered without any issues. He smokes 1.5 packs of cigarettes per day and does not consume alcohol. Upon auscultation of the chest, a friction rub is heard. Serum inflammatory markers are elevated, while serial troponins remain stable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler syndrome

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction can lead to various complications, including Dressler syndrome, papillary muscle rupture, ventricular aneurysm, reinfarction, and pericardial tamponade. Dressler syndrome is a delayed complication that occurs weeks after the initial infarction and is caused by autoantibodies against cardiac antigens released from necrotic myocytes. Symptoms include mild fever, pleuritic chest pain, and a friction rub. Papillary muscle rupture occurs early after a myocardial infarction and presents with acute congestive heart failure and a new murmur of mitral regurgitation. Ventricular aneurysm is characterized by paradoxical wall motion of the left ventricle and can lead to stasis and embolism. Reinfarction is less likely in a patient with atypical symptoms and no rising troponin. Pericardial tamponade is a rare complication of Dressler syndrome and would present with raised JVP and muffled heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      57.4
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  • Question 9 - A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A woman is evaluated in the Emergency Department for acute-onset shortness of breath. The doctor notices that the patient’s jugular veins distend when she inspires, even while sitting upright.

      Which of the following processes could explain this observation?

      Your Answer: The patient has constrictive pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Neck Veins and Various Medical Conditions

      The appearance of neck veins can provide valuable information about a patient’s health. Here are some examples of how different medical conditions can affect the appearance of neck veins:

      1. Constrictive pericarditis: This condition restricts the heart’s ability to expand, leading to higher pressures within the right heart. This can cause jugular venous distension, which is more pronounced during inspiration (Kussmaul’s sign).

      2. Dehydration: A decrease in intravascular blood volume can cause flattened neck veins.

      3. Venous insufficiency: Incompetent venous valves can lead to venous stasis and pooling of blood in the lower extremities. This can cause syncope due to decreased venous return to the heart.

      4. Budd-Chiari syndrome and hepatic vein thrombosis: These conditions involve blood clots in the hepatic vein or inferior vena cava, which prevent blood from returning to the right heart from the abdomen and lower extremities. This decreases the pressure in the right heart and allows blood to drain more easily from the jugular and neck veins, resulting in flattened neck veins.

      Understanding the relationship between neck veins and various medical conditions can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      99.6
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  • Question 10 - An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due...

    Correct

    • An adolescent with Down's syndrome is being seen at the cardiology clinic due to a heart murmur detected during a routine check-up. It is known that approximately half of infants with Down's syndrome have congenital heart defects, and the prevalence remains high throughout their lifespan. What are the five most frequent types of congenital heart disease observed in individuals with Down's syndrome? Please list them in order of decreasing incidence, starting with the most common cause and ending with the least common cause.

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect, ventricular septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      Congenital Heart Defects in Down’s Syndrome

      Congenital heart defects are common in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with five specific pathologies accounting for approximately 99% of cases. Atrioventricular septal defects and ventricular septal defects occur in roughly a third of cases each, while the remaining third is accounted for by the other three defects. Chromosomal abnormalities, such as trisomy 21, which is commonly associated with Down’s syndrome, can predispose individuals to congenital heart disease. Around 50% of people with Down’s syndrome have one of the five cardiac defects listed above, but the exact cause for this is not yet known.

      The development of endocardial cushions is often impaired in individuals with Down’s syndrome, which can lead to defects in the production of the atrial and ventricular septae, as well as the development of the atrioventricular valves. This explains why atrioventricular septal defects are a common congenital defect in Down’s syndrome, as they involve a common atrioventricular orifice and valve. The severity of the defect depends on its size and the positioning of the leaflets of the common atrioventricular valve, which contribute to defining the degree of shunt. Additionally, the type of ventricular septal defects and atrial septal defects that commonly occur in Down’s syndrome can be explained by the impaired development of endocardial cushions. VSDs are usually of the inlet type, while ASDs are more commonly of the prium type, representing a failure of the endocardial cushion to grow in a superior direction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP and mentions her diagnosis of heart failure. She expresses interest in learning about medications that can potentially decrease mortality in heart failure. Which drug has been proven to have this effect?

      Your Answer: Atenolol

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Limitations

      Heart failure is a chronic condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for heart failure, medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. Here are some common medications used in the treatment of heart failure, along with their benefits and limitations.

      Spironolactone: Recent trials have shown that spironolactone can reduce mortality in severe heart failure. This drug works by antagonizing the deleterious effects of aldosterone on cardiac remodeling, rather than its diuretic effect.

      Simvastatin: While statins are effective in reducing morbidity and mortality in patients with coronary artery disease, their beneficial effects in heart failure remain inconclusive.

      Atenolol: Atenolol has not been shown to be effective in reducing mortality in heart failure and is not used as part of the condition’s management. However, certain beta-blockers like carvedilol, metoprolol, or bisoprolol are recommended in patients who have been stabilized on diuretic and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE-I) therapy.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a mainstay in the treatment of both acute and long-term heart failure, particularly for relieving symptoms of fluid overload. However, there is little data to prove that it improves long-term mortality in patients with chronic congestive cardiac failure (CCF).

      Digoxin: Digoxin does not decrease mortality in heart failure. Its use is reserved for patients in atrial fibrillation and those who cannot be controlled on an ACE-I, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic. Some studies suggest a decreased rate in CHF-related hospital admissions.

      In conclusion, while these medications can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life in heart failure patients, their limitations should also be considered. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      25.1
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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath. He describes shortness of breath on exertion and feeling short of breath when he lies flat. He now uses four pillows when sleeping. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes.
      On examination, he has bilateral crepitation, a jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 5 cm and pitting oedema up to his shins. Despite these symptoms, his oxygen saturation is 99% and he is functioning normally at home. He says the symptoms started gradually about 6 months ago and have progressed slowly since.
      Which of the following should the GP do first to confirm the provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for heart failure in primary care is checking the levels of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. BNP levels are widely available, non-invasive, quick, and cost-efficient. A normal BNP level can rule out heart failure, but if it is abnormal, an echocardiogram should be done within 6 weeks if it is raised and within 2 weeks if it is very high. Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should have an echocardiogram straightaway. An echocardiogram is the most definitive test diagnostically, as it can accurately assess various parameters. Troponin T level is used to assess myocardial injury resulting from a myocardial infarction, but it is not relevant in chronic heart failure. Myocardial perfusion scans are useful in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease, but they are not the first-line investigation for heart failure. An ECG may be helpful, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to be used as a conclusive diagnostic tool. A chest X-ray can show features of heart failure, but they are usually found in progressed chronic congestive heart failure, which are unlikely to be present at the very first presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.3
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with sudden onset central crushing chest pain. The patient reports feeling pain in his neck and jaw as well. He has no significant medical history, but he does smoke occasionally and consumes up to 60 units of alcohol per week. An ECG is performed, revealing widespread ST elevation indicative of an acute coronary syndrome. At what point do the microscopic changes of acute MI become visible?

      Your Answer: 3-6 hours after infarct occurs.

      Correct Answer: 12-24 hours after the infarct

      Explanation:

      The Pathological Progression of Myocardial Infarction: A Timeline of Changes

      Myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack, is a serious medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the heart is blocked, leading to tissue damage and potentially life-threatening complications. The pathological progression of myocardial infarction follows a predictable sequence of events, with macroscopic and microscopic changes occurring over time.

      Immediately after the infarct occurs, there are usually no visible changes to the myocardium. However, within 3-6 hours, maximal inflammatory changes occur, with the most prominent changes occurring between 24-72 hours. During this time, coagulative necrosis and acute inflammatory responses are visible, with marked infiltration by neutrophils.

      Between 3-10 days, the infarcted area begins to develop a hyperaemic border, and the process of organisation and repair begins. Granulation tissue replaces dead muscle, and dying neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Disintegration and phagocytosis of dead myofibres occur during this time.

      If a patient survives an acute infarction, the infarct heals through the formation of scar tissue. However, scar tissue does not possess the usual contractile properties of normal cardiac muscle, leading to contractile dysfunction or congestive cardiac failure. The entire process from coagulative necrosis to the formation of well-formed scar tissue takes 6-8 weeks.

      In summary, understanding the timeline of changes that occur during myocardial infarction is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment. By recognising the macroscopic and microscopic changes that occur over time, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb)...

    Correct

    • A young marine biologist was snorkelling among giant stingrays when the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays suddenly pierced his chest. The tip of the barb pierced the right ventricle and the man instinctively removed it in the water. When he was brought onto the boat, there was absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      What was the most likely diagnosis for the young marine biologist who was snorkelling among giant stingrays and had the tail (barb) of one of the stingrays pierce his chest, causing the tip of the barb to pierce the right ventricle? Upon being brought onto the boat, the young man exhibited absence of heart sounds, reduced cardiac output and engorged jugular veins.

      Your Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a patient with chest trauma

      When evaluating a patient with chest trauma, it is important to consider various potential diagnoses based on the clinical presentation and mechanism of injury. Here are some possible explanations for different symptoms:

      – Cardiac tamponade: If a projectile penetrates the fibrous pericardium, blood can accumulate in the pericardial cavity and compress the heart, leading to decreased cardiac output and potential death.
      – Deep vein thrombosis: This condition involves the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein, often in the leg. However, it does not typically cause the symptoms described in this case.
      – Stroke: A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is disrupted, usually due to a blockage or rupture of an artery. This is not likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
      – Pulmonary embolism: If a clot from a deep vein thrombosis travels to the lungs and obstructs blood flow, it can cause sudden death. However, given the history of trauma, other possibilities should be considered first.
      – Haemothorax: This refers to the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity around a lung. While it can cause respiratory distress and chest pain, it does not typically affect jugular veins or heart sounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22
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  • Question 15 - A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 40s comes to you with a rash. Upon examination, you notice that he has eruptive xanthoma. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Familial hypertriglyceridaemia

      Explanation:

      Eruptive Xanthoma and its Association with Hypertriglyceridaemia and Diabetes Mellitus

      Eruptive xanthoma is a skin condition that can occur in individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Hypertriglyceridaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of triglycerides in the blood, which can be caused by a number of factors including genetics, diet, and lifestyle. Eruptive xanthoma is a type of xanthoma that appears as small, yellowish bumps on the skin, often in clusters.

      Of the conditions listed, familial hypertriglyceridaemia is the most likely to be associated with eruptive xanthoma. This is a genetic condition that causes high levels of triglycerides in the blood, and can lead to a range of health problems including cardiovascular disease. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by high blood sugar levels, can also be a risk factor for eruptive xanthoma.

      It is important for individuals with hypertriglyceridaemia or diabetes mellitus to manage their condition through lifestyle changes and medication, in order to reduce the risk of complications such as eruptive xanthoma. Regular monitoring and treatment can help to prevent the development of this skin condition and other related health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 63-year-old man who has been admitted overnight following a road traffic accident. He sustained extensive bruising to his chest from the steering wheel. The nurses are concerned as he has become hypotensive and tachycardic. There is a history of a previous inferior myocardial infarction some 7 years ago, but nil else of note. On examination his BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse is 95/min and regular. He looks peripherally shut down. There are muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus.
      Investigations – arterial blood gas - reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      pH 7.29 7.35–7.45
      pO2 11.9 kPa 11.2–14.0 kPa
      pCO2 6.1 kPa 4.7–6.0 kPa
      ECG Widespread anterior T wave inversion
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Muffled Heart Sounds Following a Road Traffic Accident: Cardiac Tamponade, Myocarditis, NSTEMI, Pericarditis, and STEMI

      A 67-year-old man presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and poor peripheral perfusion following a road traffic accident with a steering wheel injury. On examination, muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus are noted, and an ECG shows widespread anterior T-wave inversion. The patient has a history of inferior wall MI seven years ago. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals respiratory acidosis.

      The differential diagnosis includes cardiac tamponade, myocarditis, NSTEMI, pericarditis, and STEMI. While myocarditis can cause similar symptoms and ECG changes, the presence of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus suggests fluid in the pericardium and cardiac tamponade. NSTEMI and STEMI can also cause acute onset of symptoms and ECG changes, but the absence of ST elevation and the history of trauma make cardiac tamponade more likely. Pericarditis can cause muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, but the absence of peripheral hypoperfusion and the presence of non-specific ST-T changes on ECG make it less likely.

      In conclusion, the clinical scenario is most consistent with traumatic cardiac tamponade, which requires urgent echocardiography for confirmation and possible guided pericardiocentesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents with a blood pressure reading of 170/100 mmHg. Upon examination, he exhibits a prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs are heard over the ribs anteriorly and over the back. Additionally, he reports experiencing mild claudication with exertion and has feeble pulses in his lower extremities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Coarctation of the aorta is a condition that can present with various symptoms. These may include headaches, nosebleeds, cold extremities, and claudication. However, hypertension is the most typical symptom. A mid-systolic murmur may also be present over the anterior part of the chest, back, spinous process, and a continuous murmur may also be heard.

      One important radiographic finding in coarctation of the aorta is notching of the ribs. This is due to erosion by collaterals. It is important to diagnose coarctation of the aorta early on, as it can lead to serious complications such as heart failure, stroke, and aortic rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested by a nurse to assess a 66-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is 1-day postoperative, having undergone a laparoscopic cholecystectomy procedure for cholecystitis. She has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease. Blood tests taken earlier in the day revealed electrolyte imbalances with hyperkalaemia.
      Which of the following ECG changes is linked to hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) Changes Associated with Hypo- and Hyperkalaemia

      Hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause significant changes in the ECG. Hypokalaemia is associated with increased amplitude and width of the P wave, T wave flattening and inversion, ST-segment depression, and prominent U-waves. As hypokalaemia worsens, it can lead to frequent supraventricular ectopics and tachyarrhythmias, eventually resulting in life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia is associated with peaked T waves, widening of the QRS complex, decreased amplitude of the P wave, prolongation of the PR interval, and eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation. Both hypo- and hyperkalaemia can cause prolongation of the PR interval, but only hyperkalaemia is associated with flattening of the P-wave. In hyperkalaemia, eventually ventricular tachycardia/ventricular fibrillation is seen, while AF can occur in hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with rheumatic fever has ongoing shortness of breath following her infection. You suspect she may have mitral stenosis.
      What is the most suitable surface anatomical landmark to listen for this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: At the apex beat

      Explanation:

      Surface Locations for Cardiac Auscultation

      Cardiac auscultation is a crucial part of a physical examination to assess the heart’s function. The surface locations for cardiac auscultation are essential to identify the specific valve sounds. Here are the surface locations for cardiac auscultation:

      1. Apex Beat: The mitral valve is best heard over the palpated apex beat. If it cannot be felt, then it should be assumed to be in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.

      2. Fifth Intercostal Space, Mid-Axillary Line: This location is too lateral to hear a mitral valve lesion in a non-dilated ventricle.

      3. Second Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The pulmonary valve is located in the second intercostal space, left of the sternum.

      4. Fourth Intercostal Space, Left of the Sternum: The tricuspid valve is located in the fourth intercostal space, left of the sternum.

      5. Xiphisternum: The xiphisternum is not used as a marker for cardiac auscultation, though it is used to guide echocardiography for certain standard views.

      Knowing the surface locations for cardiac auscultation is crucial to identify the specific valve sounds and assess the heart’s function accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later,...

    Incorrect

    • At 15 years of age a boy develops rheumatic fever. Thirty-five years later, he is admitted to hospital with weight loss, palpitations, breathlessness and right ventricular hypertrophy. On examination he is found to have an audible pan systolic murmur.
      Which heart valve is most likely to have been affected following rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Valve Involvement

      Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from acute rheumatic fever and causes progressive damage to the heart valves over time. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve, with damage patterns varying by age. Younger patients tend to have regurgitation, while those in adolescence have a mix of regurgitation and stenosis, and early adulthood onwards tend to have pure mitral stenosis. Aortic valve involvement can also occur later in life. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing mitral regurgitation, causing palpitations and breathlessness. While the pulmonary valve can be affected, it is rare, and tricuspid involvement is even rarer and only present in advanced stages. Aortic valve involvement can produce similar symptoms, but with different murmurs on examination. When the aortic valve is involved, all leaflets are affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital with sudden central chest pain. An ECG is done and shows ST elevation, indicating an infarct on the inferior surface of the heart. The patient undergoes primary PCI, during which a blockage is discovered in a vessel located within the coronary sulcus.
      What is the most probable location of the occlusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Affected Artery in a Myocardial Infarction

      Based on the ECG findings of ST elevation in the inferior leads and the primary PCI result of an occlusion within the coronary sulcus, it is likely that the right coronary artery has been affected. The anterior interventricular artery does not supply the inferior surface of the heart and does not lie within the coronary sulcus. The coronary sinus is a venous structure and is unlikely to be the site of occlusion. The right (acute) marginal artery supplies a portion of the inferior surface of the heart but does not run within the coronary sulcus. Although the left coronary artery lies within the coronary sulcus, the ECG findings suggest an infarction of the inferior surface of the heart, which is evidence for a right coronary artery event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
      Right arm 152/100
      Left arm 138/92
      What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings

      In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.

      When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.

      Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old Caucasian man with type II diabetes is seen for annual review....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old Caucasian man with type II diabetes is seen for annual review. His blood pressure is 174/99 mmHg, and his 24-hour urine collection reveals moderately increased albuminuria (microalbuminuria). Blood results show Na+ 140 mmol/l, K+ 4.0 mmol/l, urea 4.2 mmol/l and creatinine 75 μmol/l.
      Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate to use first line to treat the hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients: Ramipril

      Ramipril is the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to its ability to reduce proteinuria in diabetic nephropathy, in addition to its antihypertensive effect. Calcium channel blockers, such as amlodipine, may be preferred for pregnant women or patients with hypertension but no significant proteinuria. Bendroflumethiazide may be introduced if first-line therapy is ineffective, while atenolol can be used in difficult-to-treat hypertension where dual therapy is ineffective. Furosemide is usually avoided in type II diabetes due to its potential to interfere with blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. The patient’s mother is concerned about any potential lasting damage to the heart.
      What is the most common cardiac sequelae of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Fever and its Effects on Cardiac Valves

      Rheumatic fever is a condition caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. To diagnose it, the revised Duckett-Jones criteria are used, which require evidence of streptococcal infection and the presence of certain criteria. While all four cardiac valves may be damaged as a result of rheumatic fever, the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, with major criteria including carditis, subcutaneous nodule, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham’s chorea. Minor criteria include arthralgia, fever, raised CRP or ESR, raised WCC, heart block, and previous rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the most common result of rheumatic fever, but it is becoming less frequently seen in clinical practice. Pulmonary regurgitation, aortic sclerosis, and tricuspid regurgitation are also possible effects, but they are less common than mitral valve damage. Ventricular septal defect is not commonly associated with rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and angina arrives at the Emergency Department with severe chest pain that radiates down his left arm. He is sweating heavily and the pain does not subside with rest or sublingual nitroglycerin. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST segment elevation in leads II, III and avF.

      What is the leading cause of death within the first hour after the onset of symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      After experiencing an inferior-wall MI, the most common cause of death within the first hour is a lethal arrhythmia, such as ventricular fibrillation. This can be caused by various factors, including ischaemia, toxic metabolites, or autonomic stimulation. If ventricular fibrillation occurs within the first 48 hours, it may be due to transient causes and not affect long-term prognosis. However, if it occurs after 48 hours, it is usually indicative of permanent dysfunction and associated with a worse long-term prognosis. Other complications that may occur after an acute MI include emboli from a left ventricular thrombus, cardiac tamponade, ruptured papillary muscle, and pericarditis. These complications typically occur at different time frames after the acute MI and present with different symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presents with a 6-hour history of gradual-onset central chest pain. The chest pain is worse on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward. He reports recently suffering a fever which he attributed to a viral illness. He has no significant past medical history; however, both his parents suffered from ischaemic heart disease in their early 60s. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals PR depression and concave ST-segment elevation in most leads. He is haemodynamically stable.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis: Understanding the Clinical Scenario

      Acute pericarditis can be caused by a variety of factors, including infection, inflammation, and metabolic issues. The condition is typically characterized by gradual-onset chest pain that worsens with inspiration and lying flat, but improves with leaning forward. ECG findings often show concave ST-segment elevation and PR depression in certain leads, along with reciprocal changes in others.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP after being discharged from the hospital. She was admitted three weeks ago due to chest pain and was diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During her hospital stay, she was prescribed several new medications to prevent future cardiac events and is seeking further guidance on her statin dosage. What is the most suitable advice to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg od

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Statin Dose for Secondary Prevention of Coronary Events

      All patients who have had a myocardial infarction should be started on an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a beta-blocker, a high-intensity statin, and antiplatelet therapy. Before starting a statin, liver function tests should be checked. The recommended statin dose for secondary prevention, as per NICE guidelines, is atorvastatin 80 mg od. Simvastatin 40 mg od is not the most appropriate drug of choice for secondary prevention, and atorvastatin is preferred due to its reduced incidence of myopathy. While simvastatin 80 mg od is an appropriate high-intensity statin therapy, atorvastatin is still preferred. Atorvastatin 20 mg od and 40 mg od are too low a dose to start with, and the dose may need to be increased to 80 mg in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s was diagnosed with disease of a heart valve located between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta. Which of the following is most likely to describe the cusps that comprise this heart valve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right, left and posterior cusps

      Explanation:

      Different Cusps of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through the chambers. Each valve is composed of cusps, which are flaps that open and close to allow blood to pass through. Here are the different cusps of each heart valve:

      Aortic Valve: The aortic valve is made up of a right, left, and posterior cusp. It is located at the junction between the left ventricle and the ascending aorta.

      Mitral Valve: The mitral valve is usually the only bicuspid valve and is composed of anterior and posterior cusps. It is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

      Tricuspid Valve: The tricuspid valve has three cusps – anterior, posterior, and septal. It is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

      Pulmonary Valve: The pulmonary valve is made up of right, left, and anterior cusps. It is located at the junction between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

      Understanding the different cusps of heart valves is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance

      The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:

      1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.

      2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.

      3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.

      4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.

      5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl with a stab wound...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is discovered following a street brawl with a stab wound on the left side of his chest to the 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line. He has muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins, and a systolic blood pressure of 70 mmHg. What is the most accurate description of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beck’s triad

      Explanation:

      Medical Triads and Laws

      There are several medical triads and laws that are used to diagnose certain conditions. One of these is Beck’s triad, which consists of muffled or distant heart sounds, low systolic blood pressure, and distended neck veins. This triad is associated with cardiac tamponade.

      Another law is Courvoisier’s law, which states that if a patient has a palpable gallbladder that is non-tender and is associated with painless jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones.

      Meigs syndrome is a triad of ascites, pleural effusion, and a benign ovarian tumor.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a set of signs and symptoms that occur due to prolonged use of corticosteroids, including hypertension and central obesity. However, this is not relevant to the patient in the question as there is no information about steroid use and the blood pressure is low.

      Finally, Charcot’s triad is used in ascending cholangitis and consists of right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (12/15) 80%
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