00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his father's fluoxetine tablets about four hours ago.

      Which of the following symptoms is consistent with his reported ingestion?

      Your Answer: Pupillary constriction

      Correct Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Safety and Adverse Effects of Fluoxetine Overdose

      Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is considered safe in overdose and has minimal adverse effects compared to tricyclic antidepressants. However, there have been rare reports of tachycardia occurring alongside symptoms such as tremors, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. If pupillary constriction or respiratory suppression is present, it may suggest an opiate overdose. On the other hand, a prolonged QRS complex is consistent with a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Despite these potential symptoms, fluoxetine remains a relatively safe option for treating depression and anxiety disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture followed by CT head

      Correct Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department

      For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.

      The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.

      Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.

      In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Cerebral infarction

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy

      A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.

      In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old accountant presents to the Emergency department with a sudden and severe headache that started six hours ago. She also reports feeling nauseous and has vomited three times. Upon examination, she has neck stiffness and photophobia, but her GCS is 15 and she has no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningitis

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Severe Headaches: Subarachnoid Hemorrhage and Differential Diagnosis

      The sudden onset of a severe headache is a strong indication of subarachnoid hemorrhage, which can be confirmed through a head CT scan. If the scan is normal, a lumbar puncture should be performed to check for red blood cells and xanthochromia. Bacterial meningitis is also a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with other symptoms of sepsis such as fever. Migraines, on the other hand, are usually preceded by an aura and visual disturbances, and are often associated with prior history and risk factors. Sinusitis and cluster headaches are not suggested by the patient’s history.

      Overall, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses when evaluating severe headaches, as prompt and accurate diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been brought to the hospital after collapsing at his workplace. Upon examination, he is found to be in a comatose state without response to visual stimuli, but he does extend his limbs in response to painful stimuli and occasionally makes incomprehensible sounds. His blood pressure is 164/88 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 beats per minute, and he exhibits hyperreflexia on the left side with bilateral extensor plantar responses. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing critically ill patients. It helps determine the severity of a patient’s condition and has prognostic implications. The GCS score is calculated based on the patient’s eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 to 15, with a lower score indicating a worse prognosis.

      The GCS score is determined by assigning points for each of the three categories. The highest score for eye opening is 4, for verbal response is 5, and for motor response is 6. A patient who is dead would still have a GCS score of 3. The lowest possible score is 3, which indicates no response in any of the categories.

      The GCS score is important for healthcare professionals as it helps them determine the level of care a patient needs. A lower score indicates a more severe injury or illness and may require more intensive treatment. The GCS score is also used to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to assess the effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      65.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use has been diagnosed with hepatitis B. His blood tests show positive results for hepatitis B surface antigen and hepatitis B core antibodies. However, he tests negative for IgM anti Hbc and anti-hepatitis B surface antibody. What is the man's current disease status?

      Your Answer: Acutely infected

      Correct Answer: Chronically infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is discovered by her roommates in a confused, drowsy, and sweaty state in her bedroom. She is unable to provide a clear medical history. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.3°C, a heart rate of 110 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, and appears to be short of breath with a respiratory rate of 30. There is no stiffness in her neck, and her chest sounds clear upon auscultation. An arterial blood gas test taken with 15 l/min oxygen shows a pH of 7.29 (7.35-7.45), Pa O2 of 37 kPa (11-14), PaCO2 of 2.1 kPa (4.5-6), and lactate of 2.4 mmol/L (0.1-2.5). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cocaine use

      Correct Answer: Aspirin overdose

      Explanation:

      Signs of Aspirin Toxicity

      Aspirin toxicity can be identified through several symptoms such as fever, sweating, tachypnoea, and acidosis. These signs indicate that the body is experiencing an overdose of aspirin. The presence of confusion is a clear indication of severe overdose. On the other hand, hypoxia is expected in severe asthma and Legionella pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      84.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his mother who reports that he has put a small bead into his ear. Upon examination, you confirm the presence of a plastic bead lodged deep in the external canal of his left ear.

      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical antibiotic drops

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient for review in ENT clinic

      Explanation:

      Ear foreign bodies are common and can be removed by skilled ENT staff using appropriate equipment. If unsuccessful, a general anaesthetic may be required. In cases of infection or trauma, referral as an emergency is necessary. Antibiotics are only needed if there is evidence of infection. Foreign bodies should not be left in the ear to prevent infection and ensure no associated injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse...

    Correct

    • As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?

      Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients

      In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.

      D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.

      In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      44
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to the general medical clinic with a complaint of progressive diffuse myalgia and weakness that had been ongoing for three months. She reported experiencing difficulty walking up and down stairs due to weakness in her shoulder muscles and thighs. Her medical history included hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she took atenolol and simvastatin regularly. On examination, there were no abnormalities in the cranial nerves or detectable neck weakness. However, there was general myalgia in the upper limbs and proximal weakness of 3/5 with preserved distal power. A similar pattern of weakness was observed in the lower limbs with preserved tone, reflexes, and sensation.

      The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, ESR (Westergren), serum sodium, serum potassium, serum urea, serum creatinine, plasma lactate, serum creatine kinase, fasting plasma glucose, serum cholesterol, plasma TSH, plasma T4, and plasma T3. Urinalysis was normal.

      Based on these findings, what is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitochondrial myopathy

      Correct Answer: Statin-induced myopathy

      Explanation:

      Statins and Muscle Disorders

      Myalgia, myositis, and myopathy are all known side effects of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, commonly known as statins. The risk of these muscle disorders increases when statins are taken in combination with a fibrate or with immunosuppressants. If therapy is not discontinued, rhabdomyolysis may occur, which can lead to acute renal failure due to myoglobinuria. Inclusion body myositis is a type of inflammatory myopathy that causes weakness in a distal and asymmetric pattern. On the other hand, McArdle’s disease is an autosomal recessive condition that typically presents in children with painful muscle cramps and myoglobinuria after intense exercise. This condition is caused by a deficiency in myophosphorylase, which impairs the body’s ability to utilize glucose. There are no additional neurological symptoms to suggest a mitochondrial disorder, and the plasma lactate level is normal. Finally, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by a group of...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department by a group of individuals who quickly leave before medical staff can speak with them. The patient is barely conscious, with a respiratory rate of 8/min, blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg, and a pulse of 60 bpm. Needle track marks are visible on his arms, and his pupils are constricted. What is the first treatment you would provide?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Opiate Toxicity and the Role of Naloxone

      Opiate toxicity is a common occurrence among individuals who abuse street drugs like heroin. This condition is characterized by respiratory depression and small pupils, which can lead to unconsciousness. To address this issue, naloxone is often administered as it is an opiate receptor antagonist that can quickly relieve the symptoms of opiate toxicity. However, it is important to note that naloxone has a shorter half-life than many opiates, which means that multiple doses may be necessary to fully address the issue. Overall, naloxone plays a crucial role in addressing opiate toxicity and can help save lives in emergency situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for an hour. Upon examination, he is tall and slim with a blood pressure reading of 135/80 mmHg and an early diastolic murmur. The electrocardiogram reveals 1 mm ST elevation in II, III, and aVF. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Transfer to CCU for thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan of chest

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Chest Pain

      This patient’s presentation of chest pain may not be typical and could potentially be caused by an inferior myocardial infarction or aortic artery dissection. However, thrombolysis could be dangerous and should be avoided until a proper diagnosis is made. Due to the patient’s young age, a wide range of potential diagnoses should be considered.

      The patient’s physical characteristics, including being tall and slim with an aortic diastolic murmur, suggest the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection. To confirm this diagnosis, a thorough examination of all peripheral pulses should be conducted, as well as checking for discrepancies in blood pressure between limbs. Additionally, a plain chest x-ray should be scrutinized for signs of a widened mediastinum, an enlarged cardiac silhouette, or pleural effusions.

      In summary, a young patient presenting with chest pain requires a thorough differential diagnosis to determine the underlying cause. Careful examination of physical characteristics and diagnostic tests can help identify potential conditions such as Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection, and avoid potentially harmful treatments like thrombolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      73.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing lethargy. She has a history of drinking a bottle of vodka daily and has been experiencing persistent vomiting for the past week.

      On examination, her pulse is 96/min and blood pressure is 109/70 mmHg. The following blood results are obtained:

      - pH 7.32 (7.36-7.44)
      - PaO2 12.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      - PaCO2 3.1 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      - Standard bicarbonate 10 mmol/L (20-28)
      - Base excess −8 mmol/L (+/−2)
      - Lactate 1.2 mmol/L (0.5-2.2)
      - Sodium 142 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium 3.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine 72 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Plasma glucose 3.4 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      - Urine analysis Ketones +++

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV normal saline with 40 mmoles KCL followed by thiamine

      Correct Answer: IV thiamine followed by 5% dextrose plus 40 mmoles potassium chloride

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Starvation Ketosis in Alcoholic Abuse Patients

      Alcoholic abuse patients with starvation ketosis exhibit low pH, low bicarbonate, low base excess, and compensatory low PaCO2. The appropriate treatment for this condition is intravenous (IV) dextrose. However, it is important to note that glucose can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain’s ability to process information. Therefore, before administering IV dextrose, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require initial treatment with IV Pabrinex.

      In summary, patients with alcoholic abuse and starvation ketosis require prompt medical attention to prevent further complications. The treatment involves administering IV Pabrinex before IV dextrose to avoid triggering Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This approach can help stabilize the patient’s condition and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      151.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 85-year-old woman presents to the surgical admissions unit after being referred by her GP due to a two-day history of increasing pain and swelling in the right groin area. Upon examination, there is a firm and red swelling that extends from the pubic tubercle downwards and outwards. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Femoral hernia

      Explanation:

      Types of Hernias and their Characteristics

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of hernia in adults, while femoral hernias are more commonly seen in elderly females. The femoral canal is formed by several ligaments and opens at the femoral ring, which is located inferolaterally to the pubic tubercle. On the other hand, inguinal hernias open at the superficial inguinal ring, which is found superolateral to the pubic tubercle. Therefore, options A and D are incorrect.

      Incisional hernias occur at a previous site of surgery where the underlying tissue has been weakened. This type of hernia can occur anywhere on the abdomen where surgery has taken place. However, in the absence of any previous surgery or scar, it is not the correct answer.

      Spigelian hernias occur in the abdominal wall within the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally. They do not present with a groin swelling.

      In summary, there are different types of hernias, each with its own characteristics and location. It is important to correctly identify the type of hernia to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have...

    Correct

    • You are the foundation year doctor on the medical admissions unit and have been asked to review a 60-year-old female who has been referred to the unit for palpitations.

      The venous gas has been performed by the nurse and has revealed a potassium of 6.5 mmol/L. The patient's ECG shows tented T waves.

      What is the most important first drug intervention?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate 10% 10 ml

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is a potentially life-threatening condition with a strict definition of K+ > 5.5 mmol/L. The underlying causes can be divided into renal, intracellular shift out, increased circulatory K+, and false positives. In severe cases with symptomatic and ECG changes, calcium chloride should be given first to stabilise the myocardium. The conventional treatment is a combination of insulin and dextrose infusions, with salbutamol nebulisers and sodium bicarbonate as additional options. Sodium bicarbonate should be used in discussion with a renal physician.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are requested by the medical registrar to assess a 65-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • You are requested by the medical registrar to assess a 65-year-old man who has been admitted to the hospital with fevers, pleuritic chest pain, and a productive cough. The emergency department has initiated initial management, but the registrar wants you to ensure that all the necessary investigations recommended by the surviving sepsis guidelines have been requested. The patient's vital signs are HR 110 regular, BP 80/50 mmHg, O2 90% room air. Currently, a complete blood count, blood cultures, renal and liver function tests have been ordered, and intravenous fluids have been started. What other investigation is required according to the sepsis guidelines?

      Your Answer: Lactate

      Explanation:

      Early Goal-Directed Therapy for Severe Sepsis and Septic Shock

      Patients with severe sepsis and septic shock have a high mortality risk. However, early goal-directed therapy can significantly reduce mortality rates. This therapy involves two bundles of care that should be performed within six and 24 hours. Hospitals have integrated these bundles into their policies, and all clinicians should be aware of the necessary investigations and management steps.

      Routine blood tests are always performed in sick patients, but it is important to have a robust set of investigations. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and C reactive protein are often performed, but the commonly overlooked test is a serum lactate. Raised lactate levels indicate tissue hypoperfusion, and tracking trends in lactate can guide the clinician in resuscitating the patient. Clotting and D-dimer tests are also relevant investigations, as derangement of these parameters could indicate evolving disseminated intravascular coagulation. Troponin is classically performed for myocardial infarction, but it may be raised in other conditions. Cultures of sputum are often helpful to isolate the precipitant, but this is a lower priority in the investigation hierarchy.

      Within the first six hours, five sections should be completed: measure serum lactate, take blood cultures prior to antibiotics, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within three hours of ED attendance, give 20 ml/kg crystalloid and apply vasopressors if hypotensive and/or serum lactate is greater than 4, and place a central line and aim for CVP greater than 8 and ScvO2 greater than 70 if ongoing hypotension. Though the latter parts of this bundle can appear daunting to junior doctors, appropriate early blood sampling, antibiotic delivery, and fluid resuscitation can make a significant difference to patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess...

    Incorrect

    • As the foundation year doctor in general surgery, you are called to assess a patient who has suddenly become unresponsive at 4 am. The patient is a 45-year-old female who has been admitted for an elective cholecystectomy scheduled for 8 am.

      Upon examination, the patient appears sweaty and clammy and is hypoventilating. She is only responsive to painful stimuli.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 115, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, respiratory rate of 8, oxygen saturation of 99%, and blood glucose level of 1.1.

      What would be your next step in initiating drug therapy?

      Your Answer: Glucagon 1 mg IM

      Correct Answer: Dextrose 20% 100 ml IV

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia: The Importance of Early Recognition and Management

      Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness in patients. The diagnosis of hypoglycaemia is made when there is evidence of low blood sugar, associated symptoms, and resolution of symptoms with correction of hypoglycaemia. The management of hypoglycaemia should be prompt and involves administering 100 ml of 20% dextrose, as opposed to 50%, which can be too irritating to the veins. Repeat blood sugar measurements should be taken to ensure that levels remain above 3.0.

      In patients who are fasting overnight for surgery, intravenous fluids should be prescribed with close monitoring of blood sugars to determine whether slow 5% dextrose is required to maintain an acceptable blood sugar level. Glucagon and Hypostop are alternative therapies used to increase glucose levels, but they are not rapid rescue drugs for the correction of low sugars in symptomatic patients.

      To identify the cause of hypoglycaemia, the acronym EXPLAIN is used. This stands for Exogenous insulin administration, Pituitary insufficiency, Liver failure, Alcohol/Autoimmune/Addison’s, Insulinoma, and Neoplasia. All episodes of hypoglycaemia require an explanation, and further endocrine workup may be necessary if no cause is identified.

      In conclusion, early recognition and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial in preventing further deterioration of the patient’s condition. Clinicians should always consider hypoglycaemia as a potential cause of acute unresponsiveness and promptly administer appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and skin flap after injuring her leg on furniture at home. She is currently taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. What is the optimal approach to managing this injury?

      Your Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      Management of Pretibial Lacerations in Different Patient Populations

      In managing Pretibial lacerations, the approach may vary depending on the patient’s age and skin condition. For young patients with good skin, suturing with non-absorbable sutures is usually done and removed after seven to 10 days. However, for elderly patients with thin skin or those taking warfarin or steroids, suturing may not be possible due to fragile skin. In this case, the wound is cleaned thoroughly and steristripped meticulously to promote skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and light bandage are applied, and the patient is advised to elevate the leg.

      After a week, patients should be reviewed to monitor the wound’s progress. It is important to note that Pretibial lacerations may take several months to heal, and some may require skin grafting procedures. By tailoring the management approach to the patient’s specific needs, optimal wound healing can be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      382.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What factor is linked to a higher likelihood of developing hepatocellular carcinoma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor is linked to a higher likelihood of developing hepatocellular carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Risk of Hepatocellular Carcinoma in Cirrhosis Patients with Hepatitis C

      Cirrhosis patients with hepatitis C have a 2% chance of developing hepatocellular carcinoma. This means that out of 100 people with cirrhosis caused by hepatitis C, two of them will develop liver cancer. It is important for these patients to receive regular screenings and follow-up care to detect any signs of cancer early on. Early detection can improve the chances of successful treatment and increase the likelihood of survival. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis from hepatitis C to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and reduce their risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      81.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female is found in a confused and drowsy state. Her friend discovered her this morning after a night of drinking, but also mentions that she was upset about her recent breakup. Upon examination, she has a Glasgow coma scale rating of 10/15, a blood pressure of 138/90 mmHg, a temperature of 37.5°C, large pupils that react slowly to light, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and exaggerated reflexes with Downgoing plantar responses. Additionally, a palpable bladder is found during abdominal examination. What substance is she most likely to have taken?

      Your Answer: Ecstasy

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic Overdose and Treatment

      Anticholinergic overdose can be identified by symptoms such as drowsiness, irritability, large pupils, pyrexia, and tachycardia. Tricyclics, commonly used as antidepressants, can be lethal in overdose. Patients with anticholinergic overdose should be closely monitored for ventricular arrhythmias and seizures, which can be treated with phenytoin and lidocaine, respectively. Additionally, metabolic acidosis should be corrected with bicarbonate.

      Paracetamol overdose may not present with many symptoms or signs initially, but can later lead to fulminant hepatic failure. Opiates typically cause small pupils and depressed respirations, while benzodiazepines usually only result in marked drowsiness. Ecstasy, on the other hand, often causes excitability, tachycardia, and hypertension, except in cases of severe hyponatremia associated with excessive water consumption.

      In summary, anticholinergic overdose requires close monitoring and prompt treatment to prevent potentially lethal complications. Other types of overdose may present with different symptoms and require different interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man who has been physically active throughout his life experiences a sudden onset of severe chest pain that spreads to his back, causing him to lose consciousness within minutes. He has a medical history of hypertension, but a recent treadmill test showed no signs of cardiac disease. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral artery embolus

      Correct Answer: Tear in the aortic intima

      Explanation:

      Aortic Dissection: A Probable Cause of Sudden Collapse with Acute Chest Pain

      The given history suggests that aortic dissection is the most probable cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain radiating to the back. Although other conditions may also lead to sudden collapse, they do not typically present with acute chest pain radiating to the back in the presence of a recent normal exercise test. While acute myocardial infarction (MI) is a possible cause, it is not the most likely in this scenario.

      References such as BMJ Best Practice, BMJ Clinical Review, and eMedicine support the diagnosis and management of aortic dissection. Therefore, it is crucial to consider this condition as a potential cause of sudden collapse with acute chest pain and seek immediate medical attention. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis and prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted. He states...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after being assaulted. He states that he was hit in the nose, resulting in swelling, deformity, and a small nosebleed. He also reports difficulty breathing through his left nostril. Upon examination, there is no active bleeding, but there is some deviation of the nasal bones to the left and no septal haematoma. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that his symptoms will resolve as the swelling subsides and needs no further action

      Correct Answer: Arrange an ENT follow up appointment for within the next one week

      Explanation:

      Emergency Admission for Isolated Nasal Injuries

      Isolated nasal injuries are a common occurrence that often presents in the Emergency department. However, emergency admission is rarely necessary for these cases. There are only three exceptions to this rule, which are patients with a septal haematoma, a compound nasal fracture, or associated epistaxis.

      It is important to note that nasal bone x-rays are not required for diagnosis, as it can be determined entirely through clinical examination. For uncomplicated cases, patients are best reviewed after five days in the ENT clinic when associated swelling has subsided. This allows for a better assessment of whether manipulation of the fracture is necessary.

      Traumatic epistaxis can be a serious complication and may require packing if there is active bleeding. It is crucial to monitor patients with this condition closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent further complications. Overall, while isolated nasal injuries are common, emergency admission is only necessary in specific cases, and proper diagnosis and management are essential for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old man with a history of asthma is admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with a history of asthma is admitted to the hospital for a left lower lobe pneumonia. He is prescribed amoxicillin, but within two minutes of taking the antibiotic, he complains of feeling unwell. A rapidly developing, erythematosus, macular rash appears on his trunk and limbs, along with large wheals on his torso. He also experiences lip and tongue swelling and a harsh wheeze is heard when his chest is auscultated. His blood pressure is 84/39 mmHg, and his heart rate is 167 bpm, which is determined to be a sinus tachycardia when connected to cardiac monitoring. His oxygen saturation levels are at 90% on air, so he is put on high flow oxygen.

      What is the most appropriate drug to administer next?

      Your Answer: Metoprolol 5 mg intravenous

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 1:1000 0.5 ml (500 mcg equivalent) intramuscular

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes a classical anaphylactic reaction, possibly caused by recent administration of penicillin. Anaphylaxis is characterized by massive mast cell degranulation and cytokine release, leading to rash, swelling, mucous membrane swelling, airway obstruction, hypotension, tachycardia, and wheezing. Treatment includes hydrocortisone, chlorphenamine, and adrenaline, which acts as an agonist at all subtypes of the adrenergic receptor to maintain blood pressure and alleviate wheezing. Intravenous adrenaline is not recommended outside of the intensive care setting, but may be used in life-threatening situations such as cardiac arrest. Intravenous fluids should also be considered. Metoprolol, a β-1 antagonist drug, is not part of the anaphylaxis algorithm and is contraindicated in asthmatic patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old female collapses at home and is referred to the medical team....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female collapses at home and is referred to the medical team. She has had two episodes of haematemesis in the emergency department, but no melaena. Her family denies any history of alcohol excess, and she has been otherwise healthy.

      Upon examination, the patient appears pale and sweaty with a pulse of 110 bpm. Her lying blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, which drops by 30 mmHg systolic upon standing. Palmar erythema, purpura, and spider naevi are noted. There is no hepatomegaly, but a fullness is present in the left hypochondrium.

      What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Emergency ultrasound scan of abdomen

      Correct Answer: Emergency upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding with Haemodynamic Compromise

      This patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding and is showing signs of significant haemodynamic compromise, as indicated by her hypotension and postural drop. The most likely cause of this bleeding is variceal bleeding, which is often associated with chronic liver disease and portal hypertension. Urgent endoscopy is necessary in this case, as over 50% of patients with variceal bleeding require intervention such as banding or sclerotherapy, and the condition is associated with a high mortality rate. The underlying cause of the portal hypertension is unknown, so there is no need for vitamin supplementation unless alcohol excess is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      255.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the resuscitation nurse...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the resuscitation nurse to prescribe Tazocin in accordance with departmental policy for a 50-year-old patient with COPD who was previously seen by your colleague and is currently undergoing treatment for severe sepsis. However, ten minutes later, you receive a fast bleep to the resuscitation room where the patient is now experiencing hypotension, tachycardia, and developing a urticarial rash and wheezing. The patient's medical records indicate that they have an allergy to penicillin. What is the next therapeutic measure you will prescribe?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 200 mg intravenously

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 500 mcg 1:1000 intramuscularly

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis: A Life-Threatening Hypersensitivity Reaction

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that affects the airway, breathing, and circulation of an individual. It is crucial for clinicians to keep this diagnosis in mind as it has a lifetime prevalence ranging from 0.05-2%, and most clinicians will encounter this condition at some point in their career. The most common precipitants of anaphylaxis are antibiotics and anaesthetic drugs, followed by stings, nuts, foods, and contrast agents.

      In a scenario where a patient has been prescribed a penicillin-based antibiotic despite having a documented penicillin allergy, the acute onset of life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulation issues, along with a rash, are classic symptoms of anaphylaxis. In such cases, adrenaline must be administered urgently, preferably intramuscularly, at a dose of 500 mcg 1:1000, repeated after five minutes if there is no improvement. Hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine are also given, but their effects are seen approximately four to six hours post-administration. It is essential to note that these drugs should not delay the administration of adrenaline in suspected anaphylaxis.

      It is crucial to review patient notes and drug charts carefully before prescribing drugs, especially when taking over care of patients from other clinicians. It is the responsibility of the prescriber and the nurse administering the medication to check and re-check the patient’s allergy status. Finally, the Tazocin must be stopped as soon as possible, and an alternative antibiotic prescribed according to local sepsis policies. However, this is a secondary issue to the acute anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A middle-aged homeless man in his early 50s is brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged homeless man in his early 50s is brought to the emergency department with a six hour history of profuse vomiting. He complains of nausea and headache.

      The history available is sketchy. He is of no fixed abode and denies having any previous medical problems. He appears unkempt and is confused - oriented to person but not time or place. He is afebrile. His breath smells of ketones.

      Twelve hours after admission his condition deteriorates. He complains of blurred vision and his pupils are fixed and dilated; his respiratory rate increases sharply over the next few minutes and he becomes unconscious.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 138 g/L (130-180)
      WCC 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 401 ×109/L (150-400)
      Plasma sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
      Plasma potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Plasma urea 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Plasma creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      Plasma chloride 100 mmol/L (95-107)
      Plasma bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (20-28)
      Plasma glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)
      Plasma lactate 4.1 mmol/L (0.6-1.7)
      PaO2 12 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 4.2 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      pH 7.22 (7.36-7.44)
      Urine microscopy Crystals seen

      What is the calculated anion gap in this case?

      Your Answer: 88 mmol/L

      Correct Answer: 28 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Methanol Toxicity: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Methanol toxicity is the most likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and confusion. Early signs of toxicity are caused by methanol, while later signs are due to its metabolite, formic acid. The laboratory data shows a high gap metabolic acidosis, which can be diagnosed early by measuring the serum methanol and serum formate levels. Anion gap, which is the difference between positively charged ions and negatively charged ions in the blood, is elevated but lactate levels do not account for it.

      Treatment for methanol toxicity involves eliminating formic acid through alkaline diuresis or haemodialysis, correcting acidosis with IV bicarbonate, and preventing the metabolism of methanol to formic acid by administering IV ethanol. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further complications such as metabolic acidosis and retinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness within...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness within 24 hours. Based on your initial assessment, you suspect Bell's palsy and proceed to conduct a thorough examination to confirm your diagnosis.
      What specific finding would support a diagnosis of Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Right sided facial paralysis with sparing of right-side (occipito-)frontalis

      Correct Answer: Right sided facial paralysis with weakness of right-side (occipito-)frontalis

      Explanation:

      Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a condition that causes paralysis of the VII cranial nerve, also known as the facial nerve. The onset of Bell’s palsy is typically sudden and complete within 24 hours, although it can also develop progressively over a few days. The condition is almost always unilateral, and may be preceded by post-auricular pain that develops over a 48-hour period.

      The most common symptoms of Bell’s palsy include paralysis of the upper and lower facial muscles, drooping of the eyebrow, and the inability to frown or raise the eyebrows. In cases where there is an upper motor neurone lesion affecting the facial nerve, the ability to wrinkle the brow is preserved. However, in Bell’s palsy, the eye cannot be closed and the eyeball rotates upwards and outwards when asked to close the eyes and show the teeth, which is known as Bell’s phenomenon.

      Bell’s palsy also affects taste to the anterior 2/3 of the affected side of the tongue. It is important to note that weakness of the tongue does not occur in Bell’s palsy, as the muscles of the tongue are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. Upon conducting...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. Upon conducting a lymph node biopsy, it is revealed that she has nodular sclerosing Hodgkin's disease. What characteristic is indicative of a worse prognosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Features in Hodgkin’s Disease

      Hodgkin’s disease (HD) is a type of cancer that has important prognostic features. These features include the presence of stage B symptoms, which are fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Additionally, a mass of more than 10 cm in size is also considered a poor prognostic factor. While fatigue and pruritus are common symptoms of HD, they do not have any prognostic significance. It is worth noting that EBV infection is commonly associated with HD, but it does not have any prognostic significance. Therefore, it is important to consider these prognostic features when diagnosing and treating HD. Proper management of these features can help improve the prognosis and overall outcome for patients with HD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine blood pressure check. As she waits in the reception area, she suddenly experiences severe breathlessness with stridor. She had mentioned to someone else in the room that she was stung by an insect on her way to the clinic. Based on your assessment, you determine that she is having an anaphylactic reaction to the sting. What would be the appropriate dose and route of administration for adrenaline in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular 1:1000 (500 micrograms)

      Explanation:

      Recommended Injection Route for Anaphylactic Reactions

      Anaphylactic reactions require immediate treatment, and one of the most effective ways to administer medication is through injection. The recommended route of injection is intramuscular, which involves injecting the medication into the muscle tissue. While the subcutaneous route can also be used, it is not as effective as the intramuscular route. In some cases, intravenous adrenaline 1:10000 may be used, but only under the supervision of a specialist. It is important to follow the guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) for the emergency treatment of anaphylactic reactions. By administering medication through the recommended injection route, healthcare providers can effectively manage anaphylactic reactions and potentially save lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (12/28) 43%
Passmed