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Question 1
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A 23-year-old male patient visits the clinic with a complaint of loss of smell. He mentions that he enjoys playing rugby and has suffered some nose injuries in the past. Despite this, he can still detect strong odors like ammonia. Can you identify the location of the olfactory neuroepithelium?
Your Answer: Upper area of each nasal chamber
Explanation:The Location and Function of the Olfactory Nerve
The olfactory nerve is located in the upper area of each nasal chamber, adjacent to the cribriform plate, superior nasal septum, and superior-lateral nasal wall. Its main function is to detect smells and send signals to the brain for interpretation. However, there are also additional branches of the trigeminal nerve that can detect very noxious smells, even when the olfactory nerve is damaged.
These nerves project into each of the olfactory bulbs, which then carry impulses to the olfactory cortex for further processing. The olfactory nerve plays a crucial role in our sense of smell and is responsible for detecting a wide range of scents, from pleasant aromas to unpleasant odors. Despite its importance, the olfactory nerve is often overlooked and taken for granted in our daily lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis and is scheduled for a review before starting drug therapy. It is crucial to check his visual acuity during this consultation as one of the medications that will be prescribed can lead to visual disturbances. What is the name of this medication that may cause such an adverse effect?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Correct Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:Before starting treatment for tuberculosis with ethambutol, it is crucial to test the patient’s visual acuity to prevent the development of optic neuritis, a serious side effect. The other options listed are associated with different adverse effects: isoniazid with hepatitis and agranulocytosis, pyrazinamide with hepatitis, arthralgia, myalgia, and gout, and clarithromycin with gastrointestinal upset and cholestatic jaundice, commonly used for mycoplasma infections such as mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.
Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.
Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.
Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.
In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A toddler is brought to the clinic with severe eczema. What is the appropriate treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Might benefit from a diet free of cow's milk
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Infants
Eczema is a common skin condition in infants that can cause discomfort and distress. Cow’s milk allergy may trigger severe eczema, but switching to a soy-based formula may help alleviate symptoms. While complete cure may not be possible, appropriate preventative measures and topical preparations can minimize the condition’s impact. Most infants outgrow eczema by the age of 2-3 years.
There is no evidence to suggest that infants with eczema should not receive measles or pertussis immunization, but they should avoid immunization if they have a concurrent skin infection. Oral steroids are a last resort and are rarely used in infants with severe eczema. By following these guidelines, parents and caregivers can help manage eczema in infants and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old is brought to the ICU following a severe head injury from a car crash. The patient arrives agitated and hypoxic, requiring intubation and ventilation. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the patient has an elevated intracranial pressure. How does altering the ventilation rate aid in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Hypoventilation -> increased CO2 -> vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries -> reduced ICP
Correct Answer: Hyperventilation -> reduce CO2 -> vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries -> reduced ICP
Explanation:Controlled hyperventilation can be employed for patients with elevated ICP by increasing CO2 expiration. This leads to constriction of cerebral arteries due to low blood CO2 levels. As a result, blood flow decreases, reducing the volume inside the cranium and ultimately lowering intracranial pressure. Therefore, the other options are incorrect.
Understanding Raised Intracranial Pressure
As the brain and ventricles are enclosed by a rigid skull, any additional volume such as haematoma, tumour, or excessive cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP). In adults, the normal ICP is between 7-15 mmHg in the supine position. The net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain is known as cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which can be calculated by subtracting ICP from mean arterial pressure.
Raised intracranial pressure can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic intracranial hypertension, traumatic head injuries, infections, meningitis, tumours, and hydrocephalus. Its symptoms include headache, vomiting, reduced levels of consciousness, papilloedema, and Cushing’s triad, which is characterized by widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular breathing.
To investigate the underlying cause, neuroimaging such as CT or MRI is key. Invasive ICP monitoring can also be done by placing a catheter into the lateral ventricles of the brain to monitor the pressure, collect CSF samples, and drain small amounts of CSF to reduce the pressure. A cut-off of >20 mmHg is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP.
Management of raised intracranial pressure involves investigating and treating the underlying cause, head elevation to 30º, IV mannitol as an osmotic diuretic, controlled hyperventilation to reduce pCO2 and vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries, and removal of CSF through techniques such as drain from intraventricular monitor, repeated lumbar puncture, or ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with syncope, which was preceded by palpitations. He has no past medical history and is generally fit and well. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a positive delta wave in V1.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Brugada syndrome
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White (WPW) syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating ECG Features of Various Heart Conditions
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a congenital heart condition characterized by an accessory conduction pathway connecting the atria and ventricles. Type A WPW syndrome, identified by a delta wave in V1, can cause supraventricular tachycardia due to the absence of rate-lowering properties in the accessory pathway. Type B WPW syndrome, on the other hand, causes a negative R wave in V1. Radiofrequency ablation is the definitive treatment for WPW syndrome.
Maladie de Roger is a type of ventricular septal defect that does not significantly affect blood flow. Atrioventricular septal defect, another congenital heart disease, can cause ECG features related to blood shunting.
Brugada syndrome, which has three distinct types, does not typically present with a positive delta wave in V1 on ECG. Tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, presents earlier with symptoms such as cyanosis and exertional dyspnea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?
Your Answer: Right middle cerebral
Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate
Explanation:Pure Motor Stroke
A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.
If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.
the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of widespread bone pain and increased difficulty in performing daily activities, such as climbing stairs, due to muscle weakness. The patient reports that her symptoms worsen at night or after exertion. She also mentions experiencing sleep difficulties and fatigue. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the spine and muscle weakness in the arms and legs. The patient has been avoiding leaving her house due to the pandemic. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The diagnosis of osteosarcoma is highly unlikely as the majority of cases occur between 13 and 16 years of age, and the patient’s symptoms and systemic features suggest osteomalacia instead. Polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with pain and stiffness in the shoulder and hip girdle lasting for more than 1 hour in the morning, which is not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture. While Paget’s disease can cause bone pain, it is usually asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray, and it would not cause proximal myopathy, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?
Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring
Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring
Explanation:Inguinal Hernias
An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.
The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.
There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.
In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?
Your Answer: New-onset confusion with AMTS of 9
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute
Explanation:Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score
The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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What structures are located inside the carpal tunnel?
Your Answer: Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation:Anatomy of the Carpal Tunnel
The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway located in the wrist that contains several important structures. These include the median nerve, which provides sensation to the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger, as well as motor function to some of the muscles in the hand. Additionally, the carpal tunnel houses the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis muscles, which are responsible for flexing the fingers. The flexor pollicis longus, which controls movement of the thumb, is also found within the carpal tunnel, along with its synovium.
In the most radial (first) dorsal wrist compartment, the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis are located. These structures are responsible for abduction and extension of the thumb, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In a city with a population of 2.5 million, 292 patients were diagnosed with Disease X in a 7-day period. Disease X has an average annual incidence of 1.5 per 100,000 people. What term can explain this increase in point prevalence of Disease X?
Your Answer: Sporadic disease
Correct Answer: Epidemic disease
Explanation:Understanding Epidemic Disease: Definition and Examples
Epidemic disease refers to a sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a population of a particular area. This can result in a significant increase in disease burden over a short period of time. For instance, if the incidence of a disease increases from 1.5 per 100,000 to 11.68 per 100,000 within a short period, it can be classified as an epidemic.
It is important to note that epidemic disease is different from endemic disease, which refers to the constant presence and/or usual prevalence of a disease or infectious agent in a population within a geographic area. Hyperendemic disease, on the other hand, refers to persistent, high levels of disease occurrence.
Pandemic disease is another term that is often confused with epidemic disease. However, pandemic refers to an epidemic that has spread over several continents and countries, typically affecting significant numbers of people. In contrast, sporadic disease occurs infrequently and irregularly, without any specific pattern or trend.
Examples of epidemic diseases include the recent COVID-19 outbreak, the Ebola outbreak in West Africa, and the Zika virus outbreak in South America. By understanding the definition and examples of epidemic disease, we can better prepare and respond to outbreaks in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. Once she is observed and tested, she is diagnosed with febrile convulsions. What advice should be given to her parents before they take her home?
Your Answer: If the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes, they should call an ambulance
Explanation:Paracetamol is commonly used to treat fever and pain in children. While there is a small chance of developing epilepsy, the risk is minimal. Additionally, there is no proof that paracetamol reduces the likelihood of future seizures.
Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is admitted to the psychiatric ward. She has been awake for 4 days and is convinced that she will become the next big pop star by recording 3 albums simultaneously. When asked about her emotions, she immediately talks about her music projects, providing intricate details about each album, her plans for distribution, and her future as a famous musician. She then mentions that her mood has been fantastic because of these topics. When the conversation shifts, she continues to respond in a similar fashion. What term best describes this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Flight of ideas
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Circumstantiality is the appropriate term to describe this patient’s response. They provide excessive and unnecessary detail before eventually answering the question about their mood. Flight of ideas, Knight’s move, and perseveration are not applicable in this case as the patient eventually returns to the original topic and follows along with subsequent topic changes.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A concerned mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy who has been experiencing recurrent eye problems. The baby has been having persistent sticky discharge and the mother has tried various drops and cleaning methods without success. Upon examination, the baby's pupils are equal and reactive, the conjunctiva shows no signs of inflammation, the sclera is white, and the eyelids appear healthy. The baby has a normal gaze, a normal red reflex, and tracks objects in their visual field appropriately.
Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the best advice to offer the mother?Your Answer: The condition usually self-resolves by 1 year
Explanation:Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.
To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old sexually active, unmarried man comes in with a painful sore on the glans of his penis. He reports experiencing discomfort and swelling in both of his groin areas. Upon examination, a tender ulcer with distinct, undermined borders that bleeds easily is discovered. Additionally, bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy is observed during the examination, and a small sinus is visible above one of the lymph nodes, with pus easily expressed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Chancroid, Chlamydia, Syphilis, HIV, and gonorrhoeae
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, is a common STD that presents with painful genital ulcers and tender lymphadenopathy. Treatment involves a single dose of azithromycin. Chlamydia, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, may be asymptomatic or present with penile/vaginal discharge or pain. Syphilis, on the other hand, presents with painless genital pustules that eventually ulcerate and does not typically involve lymphadenopathy. HIV, although associated with an increased risk of STDs, does not present with genital ulcers. gonorrhoeae, caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, usually presents with penile/vaginal discharge, dysuria, and pelvic pain, but can also be asymptomatic. It is important to practice safe sex and get tested regularly for STDs to prevent their spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What would be considered an 'abnormal' characteristic of the CTG tracings?
Your Answer: A single prolonged deceleration lasting 3 minutes or more
Explanation:Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old female who is 8 weeks pregnant and experiencing severe vomiting, making it difficult for her to retain fluids. What is the best method to determine the severity of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) scoring system
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Predominant symptoms were auditory hallucinations and delusions
Correct Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms
Explanation:The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female without significant medical history was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis without any known risk factors or precipitating events. The patient was successfully treated with dalteparin and subsequent thrombophilia screening revealed moderately elevated anticardiolipin antibodies on two separate occasions, twelve weeks apart. What is the most suitable long-term plan for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and a history of unprovoked thrombosis should receive lifelong warfarin as the preferred long-term anticoagulant. While unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin may be used for acute episodes of thrombosis, they are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this condition. Failure to provide anticoagulation therapy to these patients is inappropriate due to their high risk of recurrent thrombosis. Additionally, the MHRA has advised against the use of direct-acting oral anticoagulants like rivaroxaban for long-term therapy in antiphospholipid syndrome patients due to an increased risk of thrombotic events compared to warfarin. Therefore, rivaroxaban is not a suitable management option.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?
Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers
Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.
Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Correct
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In a study investigating the prevalence of vitamin D deficiency in the elderly, 1200 individuals with vitamin D deficiency were found among a group of 8000 Caucasians. Additionally, 800 individuals with vitamin D deficiency were identified among 3000 Asians. What is the overall prevalence of vitamin D deficiency in this elderly population?
Your Answer: 18%
Explanation:Prevalence and Incidence in Medical Studies
In medical studies, prevalence refers to the total number of cases of a particular disease within a specific population at a given time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of the same disease that occur within the same population during a specified period.
For instance, in a study involving 11,000 patients, 2,000 patients were found to have vitamin D deficiency, resulting in a prevalence rate of 18%. Among the Asian population, the prevalence rate was 27%, while it was 15% among Caucasians.
the difference between prevalence and incidence is crucial in medical research. Prevalence provides an overall picture of the disease burden within a population, while incidence helps to determine the risk of developing the disease over time. By analyzing both prevalence and incidence rates, researchers can gain valuable insights into the prevalence and incidence of diseases, which can help in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this, he fell four weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.
Four weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.
The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 85-year-old man?Your Answer: Computed tomograms of the head
Explanation:Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly
The confusion and neurological symptoms that developed after a fall in the past suggest that the patient may have chronic subdural haematoma. The best way to investigate this condition is through a CT scan, which is the preferred diagnostic tool. A skull x-ray may also be useful in detecting any fractures.
Chronic subdural haematoma is a condition that commonly affects elderly individuals. It occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This can cause pressure on the brain, leading to a range of symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination.
It is important to diagnose and treat chronic subdural haematoma promptly, as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Treatment may involve draining the blood from the affected area, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the patient’s chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of demeclocycline?
Your Answer: Sodium-chloride symporter agonism
Correct Answer: Vasopressin antagonism
Explanation:Treatment Options for SIADH
SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and hyponatremia. When fluid restriction alone fails to manage the condition, other treatment options are available. Demeclocycline induces free water excretion, which can help manage SIADH by causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist, while mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. Amiloride acts via epithelial sodium channels, and thiazides act on the sodium chloride symporter, leading to sodium and water excretion. Among these options, demeclocycline is an important treatment option for patients with SIADH who do not respond to fluid restriction alone. It is essential to understand the mechanism of action of each treatment option to choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 56-year-old teacher presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. She has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. She does not smoke but drinks up to 20 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends. Observations are as follows:
Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, heart rate is 90 bpm and regular.
On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Urea 8.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 190 µmol/l
(bloods carried out one year
previously showed a creatinine
of 80) 50–120 µmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?Your Answer: Oliguria
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
Renal failure can be acute or chronic, and it is important to differentiate between the two. Acute renal failure may present with symptoms such as acute lethargy, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may present with symptoms such as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, and reduced appetite. A history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension is also a risk factor for chronic kidney disease.
Oliguria is a clinical hallmark of renal failure and can be one of the early signs of acute renal injury. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, while peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Nocturia or nocturnal polyuria is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease, while in acute injury, urine output tends to be reduced rather than increased. Small kidneys are seen in chronic renal failure, while the kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.
Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 25
Correct
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You are a healthcare professional working in the emergency department during the winter season. A patient, who is in his 50s, is brought in by air ambulance after being involved in a car accident. The trauma team assesses him and conducts the necessary tests. The patient is found to have a fracture in his right radius and small frontal contusions on his CT scan. Both injuries are treated conservatively, and he is admitted to the observation ward. However, after a few days of observation, the patient remains confused, and his family reports that he has not spoken a coherent sentence since his arrival. What investigation is the most appropriate given the possibility of diffuse axonal injury?
Your Answer: MRI brain
Explanation:Diffuse axonal injury can be diagnosed most accurately through MRI scans, which are highly sensitive. To monitor the progression of contusions, repeat CT scans can be helpful. Electro-encephalograms are recommended for patients with epilepsy, while CT angiograms are useful in identifying the cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage. For detecting tumors or potential abscesses, CT scans with contrast are a valuable tool.
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of glaucoma presents to the emergency department with sudden blurring and subsequent loss of vision in his left eye. He reports no pain or discharge. Fundoscopy reveals extensive flame haemorrhages and cotton wool spots, and there is a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) on examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)
Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO)
Explanation:If a patient has a history of glaucoma and experiences sudden, painless vision loss accompanied by severe retinal haemorrhages and RAPD, it is likely that they are suffering from central retinal vein occlusion. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.
Amaurosis fugax, on the other hand, is characterized by brief episodes of sudden, painless vision loss that typically last for only a few seconds to minutes and resolve on their own. This condition is often indicative of underlying vascular disease.
Central retinal artery occlusion also causes sudden, painless vision loss, but it is typically described as a descending curtain. On fundoscopy, a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea centralis and atheromatous plaques are visible, and RAPD is also present.
Lens subluxation, which is often caused by trauma, does not typically result in severe vision loss or changes in visual acuity unless the condition is severe.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of experiencing cold hands and feet over the last two weeks. Her medications have been recently altered, with a new medication introduced to improve her blood pressure management. Which of the following medications is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-blockers are frequently prescribed for hypertension treatment, but they can lead to cold extremities as a side effect. Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide commonly cause constipation, diarrhea, dizziness, and dry mouth. Angiotensin receptor blockers such as candesartan and losartan do not typically result in cold peripheries.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient, four hours post total thyroidectomy, presents with acute shortness of breath and visible distress. Upon examination, the patient exhibits stridor and a large haematoma is discovered deep to the wound. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Washout of haematoma in theatre
Correct Answer: Immediate removal of the skin clips and deep sutures at the bedside
Explanation:Immediate Management of Stridor Following Thyroidectomy
An unrecognised or rapidly expanding haematoma can lead to airway compromise and asphyxiation after thyroidectomy. Therefore, it is crucial to take immediate action in case of stridor. The first step is to remove the skin clips and sutures to relieve pressure on the trachea. Failure to do so can result in tracheal occlusion and death. It is important to act quickly and avoid delays in getting the patient to the operating theatre, as this may lead to an avoidable death.
Once the neck has been opened on the ward, the patient should be transferred to the operating theatre for a thorough examination of the neck and meticulous control of bleeding before closing the neck wound. This is necessary to ensure that any bleeding is properly managed and the wound is closed without any complications. By following these steps, the risk of airway compromise and asphyxiation can be minimized, and the patient can recover safely from the surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma
Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.
Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.
Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.
Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 33-year-old paediatric nurse presents with complaints of fatigue, joint discomfort throughout her body, and a rash on her face that has worsened since returning from a recent trip to Portugal. On examination, there is no evidence of small joint synovitis, but the facial rash is prominent. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 103 g/l, MCV of 88.8 fl, platelet count of 99 × 109/l, and a WCC of 2.8 × 109/l. What is the most appropriate treatment option at this stage?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with mild symptoms, primarily affecting the joints and skin. The first-line treatment for this type of SLE is hydroxychloroquine, which can induce remission and reduce recurrence. However, patients on this medication must be monitored for drug-induced retinopathy. Methotrexate may be used in more severe cases with active joint synovitis. Sun avoidance is important to prevent flares, but it is not enough to treat the patient’s current symptoms. Infliximab is not typically used to treat SLE, and rituximab is reserved for last-line therapy. Azathioprine is commonly used as a steroid-sparing agent in SLE, but hydroxychloroquine is more appropriate for this patient’s current presentation. The main adverse effect of azathioprine is bone marrow suppression, which can be life-threatening in some patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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