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  • Question 1 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a one-week history of dark urine and fatigue. One day before admission, she developed severe abdominal pain and abdominal distension. On examination, she has pallor, jaundice, an enlarged tender liver, and ascites. Her investigations show: Hb: 7.9 g/dL, WCC: 3.2 x 10^9/L, Plts: 89 x 10^9/L, MCV: 101 fL. Peripheral smear: Mild polychromasia, AST: 144 U/L, ALT: 130 U/L, Bilirubin: 54 μmol/L. Urine hemosiderin: ++, Urine urobilinogen +. Abdominal ultrasound reveals an enlarged liver, ascites, and absent flow in the hepatic veins. Which single test would you request to confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inherited thrombophilia screen

      Correct Answer: Flow cytometry for CD55 and CD59 expression

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) complicated by acute hepatic vein thrombosis (Budd–Chiari syndrome).

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combination of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      229.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years...

    Correct

    • A 54 year old male, with a smoking history of 15 pack years presents with worsening dyspnoea, fever and cough. He works at a foundry. Vitals are as follows: Respiratory rate: 28/min Heart rate: 80 bpm Temp: 37.6C Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crepitations throughout the lung fields. Calcified hilar nodules are visible on the chest X-ray. Further evaluation shows an eggshell calcification on HRCT. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Silicosis

      Explanation:

      Silicosis is a common occupational lung disease that is caused by the inhalation of crystalline silica dust. Silica is the most abundant mineral on earth. Workers that are involved for example in construction, mining, or glass production are among the individuals with the highest risk of developing the condition. Acute silicosis causes severe symptoms (e.g., exertional dyspnoea, cough with sputum) and has a very poor prognosis.
      Chronic silicosis has a very variable prognosis and affected individuals may remain asymptomatic for several decades. However, radiographic signs are usually seen early on. Typical radiographic findings are calcifications of perihilar lymph nodes, diffuse ground glass opacities, large numbers of rounded, solitary nodules or bigger, confluent opacities. Avoiding further exposure to silica is crucial, especially since the only treatment available is symptomatic (e.g., bronchodilators). Silicosis is associated with an increased risk of tuberculosis and lung cancer. Berylliosis typically affects individuals who are exposed to aerospace industry. Histoplasmosis and tuberculosis do not form eggshell calcifications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      93.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The patient works in a photograph development laboratory. On admission, she was hypoxic and hypotensive. A provisional diagnosis of cyanide poisoning was made. What is the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      Cyanide poisoning:
      Aetiology:
      Smoke inhalation, suicidal ingestion, and industrial exposure (specific industrial processes involving cyanide include metal cleaning, reclaiming, or hardening; fumigation; electroplating; and photo processing) are the most frequent sources of cyanide poisoning. Treatment with sodium nitroprusside or long-term consumption of cyanide-containing foods is a possible source.
      Cyanide exposure most often occurs via inhalation or ingestion, but liquid cyanide can be absorbed through the skin or eyes. Once absorbed, cyanide enters the blood stream and is distributed rapidly to all organs and tissues in the body. 

      Pathophysiology:
      Inside cells, cyanide attaches itself to ubiquitous metalloenzymes, rendering them inactive. Its principal toxicity results from inactivation of cytochrome oxidase (at cytochrome a3), thus uncoupling mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting cellular respiration, even in the presence of adequate oxygen stores.

      Presentation:
      • ‘Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds
      • Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
      • Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

      Management:
      • Supportive measures: 100% oxygen, ventilatory assistance in the form of intubation if required.
      • Definitive: Hydroxocobalamin (iv) is considered the drug of choice and is approved by the FDA for treating known or suspected cyanide poisoning.
      • Coadministration of sodium thiosulfate (through a separate line or sequentially) has been suggested to have a synergistic effect on detoxification.
      Mechanism of action of hydroxocobalamin:
      • Hydroxocobalamin combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12), which is renally cleared.
      • Alternatively, cyanocobalamin may dissociate from cyanide at a slow enough rate to allow for cyanide detoxification by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanese.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 80 yr. old male was found on the floor. His blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 80 yr. old male was found on the floor. His blood pressure was 100/60 mmHg. His core temperature was 31ºC. His FBC and serum electrolytes were within normal limits. Which of the following would be found in his ECG?

      Your Answer: U waves

      Correct Answer: Long QT interval

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core body temperature of < 35 °C.
      Hypothermia may produce the following ECG changes:
      -Bradyarrhythmia
      -Osborne Waves (= J waves)
      -Prolonged PR, QRS and QT intervals
      -Shivering artefact
      -Ventricular ectopics
      -Cardiac arrest due to VT, VF or asystole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Presence of which of the following indicates a worse prognosis in rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is both common and chronic, with significant consequences for multiple organ systems. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibody testing is particularly useful in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis, with high specificity, presence early in the disease process, and ability to identify patients who are likely to have severe disease and irreversible damage. However, its sensitivity is low, and a negative result does not exclude disease. Anti-CCP antibodies have not been found at a significant frequency in other diseases to date, and are more specific than rheumatoid factor for detecting rheumatoid arthritis. The other factors that are mentioned do not play a key prognostic role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      83.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of pseudomembranous colitis?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by a C. difficile infection that causes membranes to form on the colon wall. It is caused most commonly by broad-spectrum antibiotics. This would include cephalosporins, broad-spectrum penicillin, and clindamycin. Macrolides and quinolones have also been reported as potential aetiologies, but much less commonly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Correct

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where

      a = Number of exposed cases

      b = Number of exposed non-cases

      c = Number of unexposed cases

      d = Number of unexposed non-cases

      OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      113.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Correct

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      262.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year-old active male presents with a three month history of pain in his feet and lower legs. He was previously diagnosed with diabetes at age 14 and treated with insulin. He admits to drinking 30 units of alcohol per week and is a current cannabis smoker. On examination, pain and temperature sensation in his feet are diminished, but joint position and vibratory sensation appear normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic polyneuropathy

      Explanation:

      The given history suggests a small fibre painful peripheral sensory neuropathy, the most common cause of which is diabetes. Joint position sense and vibratory sensation are carried through large fibres, and therefore are not currently affected. Sensory nerves are affected more often than motor, so reflexes usually remain in tact.

      Vitamin B12 deficiency causes impairment of joint position and vibratory sensation.

      Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIPD) causes a large fibre peripheral neuropathy with areflexia.

      In syringomyelia there is impaired pain and temperature noted in the upper limbs.

      Finally, with alcoholic polyneuropathy, all fibre types are affected (sensory and motor loss). It is usually gradual with long term alcohol abuse and may be accompanied by a nutritional deficiency. In addition, pain is a more dominant feature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with type-1 diabetes mellitus on insulin presents in the A&E with fever, cough, vomiting and abdominal pain. Examination reveals a dry mucosa, decreased skin turgor and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Chest examination reveals bronchial breathing in the right lower lobe, and a chest X-ray shows it to be due to a right lower zone consolidation. Other investigations show: Blood glucose: 35 mmol/L, Na+: 132 mmol/L, K+: 5.5 mmol/L, urea: 8.0 mmol/L, creatinine: 120 μmol/L, pH: 7.15, HCO3: 12 mmol/L, p(CO2): 4.6 kPa, chloride: 106 mmol/l. Urinary ketones are positive (+++). The patient is admitted to the hospital and treated. Which of the following should not be used while treating him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Bicarbonate therapy is not indicated in mild and moderate forms of DKA because metabolic acidosis will correct with insulin therapy. The use of bicarbonate in severe DKA is controversial due to a lack of prospective randomized studies. It is thought that the administration of bicarbonate may actually result in peripheral hypoxemia, worsening of hypokalaemia, paradoxical central nervous system acidosis, cerebral oedema in children and young adults, and an increase in intracellular acidosis. Because severe acidosis is associated with worse clinical outcomes and can lead to impairment in sensorium and deterioration of myocardial contractility, bicarbonate therapy may be indicated if the pH is 6.9 or less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic after his second episode of acute pancreatitis. On examination, he has a BP of 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is regular 70 bpm and his BMI is 23. There is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on examination of his skin. It was noted that his fasting triglycerides level is 8.5 mmol/l (0.7-2.1) at his follow up appointment although his LDL level is not particularly raised. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Three classes of medications are appropriate for the management of major triglyceride elevations: fibric acid derivatives, niacin, and omega-3 fatty acids.

      Fibrate is used as a first-line agent for reduction of triglycerides in patients at risk for triglyceride-induced pancreatitis.

      High-dose niacin (vitamin B-3) (1500 or more mg/d) decreases triglyceride levels by at least 40% and can raise HDL cholesterol levels by 40% or more. Niacin also reliably and significantly lowers LDL cholesterol levels, which the other major triglyceride-lowering medications do not.

      Omega-3 fatty acids are attractive because of their low risk of major adverse effects or interaction with other medications. At high doses (>4 g/d), triglycerides are reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV is a common virus in the herpesvirus family that can cause serious illness in newborns when contracted congenitally from the mother during pregnancy. Congenital CMV infection can lead to various neurological manifestations, including hydrocephaly (enlargement of the fluid-filled spaces within the brain), seizures, and chorioretinitis (inflammation of the retina in the eye). These symptoms can result in significant morbidity and long-term complications for the affected infant.

      Other congenital infections such as toxoplasmosis, rubella, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and syphilis can also cause similar symptoms in newborns. However, given the presentation described, CMV is the most likely infectious agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Three days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction, a male patient complains...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction, a male patient complains of sudden change in vision. The medical registrar examines the patient and finds that the patient’s vision in both eyes is significantly reduced although the patient still claims that he can see. The pupils are equal in size, and the pupil responses are normal with normal fundoscopy. Significantly, the patient has now developed atrial fibrillation. A referral is made to the ophthalmologist who confirms bilateral blindness. Despite this, however, the patient fervently believes that he can see and has taken to describing objects that he has never seen previously, in discriminating detail. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral occipital cortex infarction

      Explanation:

      Bilateral occipital cortex infarction will produce varying degrees of cortical blindness, wherein the patient has no vision but fundoscopy findings are normal. When there are extensive lesions, patients my present with denial of their condition, known as Anton’s Syndrome, and begin to describe objects that they have never seen before.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presented to the clinic with a long term history of pins and needles sensation in both hands. He also has prognathism. He also gives a history of recent onset right upper quadrant pain after being started on a new medication for his condition. Which of the following medications acting on his endocrine system can be responsible for this adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      The patient (known case of acromegaly) seems to have developed cholelithiasis (presenting with right upper quadrant pain) probably due to octreotide.

      It is a long-acting analogue of somatostatin which is released from D cells of the pancreas and inhibits the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin.

      Uses
      – Acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
      – Acromegaly
      – Carcinoid syndrome
      – Prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
      – VIPomas
      – Refractory diarrhoea

      Adverse effects
      Gallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)

      Other options:
      – Bromocriptine – a dopamine agonist with side effects arising from its stimulation of the brain vomiting centre.
      – Desmopressin – predominantly used in patients with diabetes insipidus by increasing the presence of aquaporin channels in the distal collecting duct to increase water reabsorption from the kidneys. The main side effects include headache and facial flushing due to hypertension.
      – Metformin – mainly reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis in patients with type 2 diabetes, common side effects include diarrhoea, vomiting, and lactic acidosis
      – Levothyroxine – synthetic thyroxine used in patients with hypothyroidism, common side effects result from incorrect dosing and mimic the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Urine sodium 2 mmol/L, Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
      – In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
      – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 17 - 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a...

    Incorrect

    • 170 patients are enrolled in a study to assess the addition of a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for those who've had a stroke. Out of 170 patients, 120 received the aspirin in addition to the new drug with the remaining 50 patients receiving just aspirin. After 5 years, 18 out of the 120 patients receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and 10 out of the 50 patients receiving just aspirin, had had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is valuable information in treatment decisions. NNT is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (1/ARR) between two treatment options. Control event rate = 10 / 50 = 0.2
      Experimental event rate = 18 / 120 = 0.15

      Absolute risk reduction = 0.2 – 0.15 = 0.05
      Number needed to treat = 1 / 0.05 = 20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose aspirin as secondary prevention. Which of the following, describe the action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to inhibition of platelet function by acetylation of the platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) at the functionally important amino acid serine529. This prevents the access of the substrate (arachidonic aid) to the catalytic site of the enzyme at tyrosine385 and results in an irreversible inhibition of platelet-dependent thromboxane formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications is most useful for helping to prevent attacks of Meniere’s disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Betahistine is a histamine analogue that has been the mainstay treatment drug for Meniere’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following his collapse in a night club. His friends who accompanied him admit that, of recent, he has been using increasing amounts of cocaine. Which among the following is commonly associated with cocaine overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic acidosis is associated with cocaine overdose.
      In overdose, cocaine leads to agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, sweating, hallucinations, and finally convulsions.
      Metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, and ventricular arrhythmias also occur.
      Chronic use may be associated with premature coronary artery disease, dilated cardiomyopathy, and increased risk of cerebral haemorrhage.
      There are 3 stages for acute cocaine toxicity:
      Stage I: CNS symptoms of headache, vertigo, pseudo hallucinations, hyperthermia, hypertension.
      Stage II: increased deep tendon reflexes, tachypnoea, irregular breathing, hypertension.
      Stage III: Areflexia, coma, fixed and dilated pupils, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, apnoea, and respiratory failure.

      Treatment:
      – Airway, breathing, and circulation to be secured. The patient’s fever should be managed, and one should rule out hypoglycaemia as a cause of the neuropsychiatric symptoms.
      – Cardiovascular toxicity and agitation are best-treated first-line with benzodiazepines to decrease CNS sympathetic outflow.
      – The mixed beta/alpha blocker labetalol is safe and effective for treating concomitant cocaine-induced hypertension and tachycardia.
      – Non-dihydropyridine calcium channels blockers such as diltiazem and verapamil have been shown to reduce hypertension reliably, but not tachycardia.
      – Dihydropyridine agents such as nifedipine should be avoided, as reflex tachycardia may occur.
      – The alpha-blocker phentolamine has been recommended but only treats alpha-mediated hypertension and not tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden. Following blood results are obtained: Plts: 220 x 10^9/L, PT: 11 secs, APTT: 76 secs, Factor VIIIc activity: Normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is admitted to the acute medical unit for pneumonia. This is his fourth admission for pneumonia in the past six months. Which of the following factors is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypogammaglobulinaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

      CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

      Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10–15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, on the acute oncology ward, is a known case of colorectal cancer. He was diagnosed one month ago after participating in a screening test—faecal occult blood test. Following the positive test result, colonoscopy was performed demonstrating a malignant lesion in the descending colon. CT staging showed lymph node involvement but no distant metastases. The patient has undergone a left hemicolectomy and is due to start adjuvant chemotherapy with a combination of fluorouracil (5-FU) and oxaliplatin. During his work-up, his consultant had explained that he would need to be monitored for disease recurrence. Which of the following is important in monitoring the disease activity in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a known tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not used diagnostically, but in patients with a known diagnosis of colorectal cancer associated with raised CEA levels, it can be used to monitor disease activity and help with the early identification of disease recurrence.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He has been complaining of headaches for the past 2 weeks, although he has been able to continue working at his job. Upon examination, he has mild left hemiparesis and bilateral extensor plantar responses. General examination is otherwise unremarkable. An urgent CT scan of the brain shows a 5cm multicentric mass lesion in the right frontal lobe with surrounding vasogenic oedema and some hemisphere shift. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, also considered as grade IV astrocytoma, is the most malignant form of the tumour and accounts for about 20% of all cerebral tumours. These often remain clinically silent until they have reached a large enough size. In adults, glioblastoma multiforme usually occurs in the cerebral hemispheres, especially the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. About half occupy more than one hemisphere at presentation, and some are multicentric. Biopsy shows high cellularity with mitoses, pleomorphism, and vascular hyperplasia. Prognosis is extremely poor, with only 20% surviving beyond 1 year and 10% beyond 2 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment,...

    Incorrect

    • You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment, which would also lower HbA1c. Which study design would you choose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superiority trial

      Explanation:

      When the aim of the randomized controlled trial (RCT) is to show that one treatment is superior to another, a statistical test is employed and the trial (test) is called a superiority trial (test).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presented in the ophthalmology ward complaining of blurry vision for 4 days. Fundoscopy of both eyes revealed cotton wool spots in both the retinas. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CMV infection

      Explanation:

      Fundoscopy findings of cotton wool spots and retinal tears, accompanied by a history of blurred vision, are characteristic of retinitis. Cytomegalovirus is known to cause retinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      Perinatal transmission is the most common cause of Hepatitis B infection worldwide. Post-exposure prophylaxis should be provided, which consists of hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. Without this, about 40% will develop chronic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
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