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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm. What is the follow-up test in this scenario?
Your Answer: Newborn otoacoustic emission test
Correct Answer: Auditory brainstem response test
Explanation:When a newborn baby’s hearing test at birth shows an abnormal result, they are offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the baby’s scalp to measure their auditory evoked potentials in response to sounds. If there is no response, it may indicate reduced hearing ability.
It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months and requires two staff members. The test involves producing sounds to the right or left of the baby, out of their field of view, and assessing the loudness required for them to react.
Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing in newborns. However, this is only a screening test and further investigations are required to confirm any hearing loss. The test works by generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea.
Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns. This test requires the participant to indicate when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children. Therefore, it is not useful for newborns.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A woman has been started on amiodarone for cardiac arrhythmias.
Which one of the following options are the mandatory blood tests to be conducted on patients taking amiodarone?Your Answer: FBC, U/E and Ca++
Correct Answer: U/E, LFT and TFT
Explanation:Monitoring for Amiodarone Therapy: Recommended Tests and Frequency
Amiodarone is a commonly used medication for treating various arrhythmias, especially in the elderly population. However, it can cause adverse effects on thyroid and liver function, as well as lung toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients regularly before and during therapy.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends conducting baseline tests, including renal, thyroid, and liver function, as well as a chest radiograph and electrocardiogram. Thyroid function should be tested regularly due to the potential for T4 and T3 level changes. Liver function should also be checked every six months, and the dose should be reduced or discontinued if transaminases are elevated or signs of chronic liver disease are present. Lung toxicity is a significant side effect, occurring in 3-17% of patients, and can cause interstitial pneumonitis, lung fibrosis, and bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia (BOOP).
While amiodarone is not known to cause diabetes, it can rarely cause anemia and thrombocytopenia. Calcium uptake is not affected by amiodarone. Therefore, HbA1c and calcium tests are not necessary, but FBC, U/E, and TFT should be monitored regularly.
In summary, monitoring for amiodarone therapy is crucial to ensure patient safety and prevent adverse effects. Regular testing of renal, thyroid, and liver function, as well as FBC and TFT, can help detect any potential issues early on and allow for appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local shopping centre late at night. Apparently, he has attended the Emergency Department on two previous occasions, one when he made a number of cuts to his forearms with a knife, and another when he was drunk and disorderly. When you question him in the Emergency Department, he tells you that he is a spy, that the TVs in the local department store are reading his thoughts and that voices are telling him to kill his mother as she is informing on him. He mentions that this has been going on for two months. He rambles when you talk to him and seems to have created a number of new words to describe his mission.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.6 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 203 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 31 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Manic episode
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differentiating Schizophrenia from Other Mental Health Conditions
The patient’s disordered speech, derogatory hallucinations, and delusions about the television reading his thoughts are indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are often accompanied by thoughts of persecution or paranoia, which are known as first rank symptoms.
A manic episode is less likely as there is no history of overspending, pressured speech, or flight of thoughts. Similarly, endogenous depression is unlikely as neologisms and incoherent speech are not common presenting symptoms.
Drug-induced psychosis is also unlikely as neologisms and delusions about being a spy are not typical symptoms. Alcohol intoxication is also less likely as there is no evidence of alcohol involvement in this presentation or previous visits to Casualty.
Therefore, based on the symptoms presented, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of facial pain and diplopia. Clinical examination reveals CN III, CN IV and CN VI palsies, a Horner’s syndrome, and facial sensory loss in the distribution of the V1 (ophthalmic) and V2 (maxillary) divisions of the trigeminal cranial nerve.
Where is the causative abnormality located?Your Answer: Cavernous sinus
Explanation:Anatomy of Cranial Nerves and the Cavernous Sinus
The cavernous sinus is a crucial location for several cranial nerves and blood vessels. Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI, as well as the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) divisions of the V cranial nerve, pass through the cavernous sinus with the internal carotid artery. The V2 division of the trigeminal nerve exits via the foramen rotundum, while the rest of the cranial nerves enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure.
Damage to these nerves can result in ophthalmoplegia, facial pain, and sensory loss. Involvement of sympathetic nerves around the internal carotid artery can lead to Horner’s syndrome. Tolosa Hunt syndrome is an idiopathic inflammatory process that affects the cavernous sinus and can cause a cluster of these symptoms.
Dorello’s canal carries cranial nerve VI (abducens) from the pontine cistern to the cavernous sinus. The zygomatic branch of the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure. Meckel’s cave houses the trigeminal nerve ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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As a gynaecologist, you are treating a patient on the ward who has been diagnosed with endometrial hyperplasia. Can you identify the medication that is linked to the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Endometrial hyperplasia is caused by the presence of unopposed estrogen, and tamoxifen is a known risk factor for this condition. Tamoxifen is commonly used to treat estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer, but it has pro-estrogenic effects on the endometrium. This can lead to endometrial hyperplasia if not balanced by progesterone. However, combined oral contraceptive pills and progesterone-only pills contain progesterone, which prevents unopposed estrogen stimulation. While thyroid problems and obesity can also contribute to endometrial hyperplasia, taking levothyroxine or orlistat to treat these conditions does not increase the risk.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of menorrhagia. She reports that her periods have been lasting for 10 days and are very heavy. She denies any recent weight loss and her recent sexual health screening was negative. On examination, there are no abnormalities. She has completed her family and has two children. What is the initial treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena coil)
Explanation:For patients with menorrhagia who have completed their family and do not have any underlying pathology, pharmaceutical therapy is recommended. The first-line management for these patients, according to NICE CKS, is the Mirena coil, provided that long-term contraception with an intrauterine device is acceptable.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the greater omentum when asked to identify it during an open repair of a perforated gastric ulcer by the operating surgeon, as observed by a medical student?
Your Answer: It has anterior layers that descend from the lesser curvature of the stomach
Correct Answer: It provides a route of access to the lesser sac
Explanation:The Greater Omentum: An Integral Structure with Surgical Importance
The greater omentum, also known as the gastrocolic omentum, is a double sheet of peritoneum that hangs down like an apron overlying loops of intestine. It is made up of four layers, two of which descend from the greater curvature of the stomach and are continuous with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the stomach. The other two layers run between the anterior layers and the transverse colon, loosely blending with the peritoneum on the anterior and posterior surfaces of the colon and the transverse mesocolon above it.
Contrary to the belief that it has no surgical importance, the greater omentum is of paramount surgical importance. Surgeons use it to buttress an intestinal anastomosis or in the closure of a perforated gastric or duodenal ulcer. It also attempts to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections, earning it the nickname great policeman of the abdomen. The greater omentum is supplied by the right and left gastric arteries, and its blood supply may be cut off if it undergoes torsion.
Furthermore, the greater omentum is often found plugging the neck of a hernial sac, preventing the entry of coils of the small intestine and strangulation of the bowel. In an acutely inflamed appendix, the omentum adheres to the appendix and wraps itself around the infected organ, localizing the infection to a small area of the peritoneal cavity. However, in the first two years of life, the greater omentum is poorly developed and less protective in young children.
In conclusion, the greater omentum is an integral structure with significant surgical importance, providing access to the lesser sac and attempting to limit the spread of intraperitoneal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old, malnourished patient needs to have a nasogastric tube (NGT) inserted for enteral feeding. What is the most important measure to take before beginning the feeding plan?
Your Answer: Abdominal radiograph
Correct Answer: Chest radiograph
Explanation:Confirming Nasogastric Tube Placement: The Role of Chest Radiograph
Confirming the placement of a nasogastric tube (NGT) is crucial to prevent potential harm to the patient. While pH testing was previously used, chest radiograph has become the preferred method due to its increasing availability and negligible radiation exposure. The NGT has two main indications: enteral feeding/medication administration and stomach decompression. A chest radiograph should confirm that the NGT is passed down the midline, past the carina, past the level of the diaphragm, deviates to the left, and the tip is seen in the stomach. Respiratory distress absence is a reliable indicator of correct placement, while aspirating or auscultating the tube is unreliable. Abdominal radiographs are not recommended due to their inability to visualize the entire length of the NGT and the unnecessary radiation risk to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female student visits the dentist complaining of a painful mouth and is given a prescription for an antibiotic to treat a dental abscess. The dentist advises her to avoid consuming any alcohol during the course of the treatment due to the possibility of experiencing severe hangovers. What is the name of the antibiotic prescribed to her?
Your Answer: cephalexin
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Disulfiram-like Reaction with Metronidazole and Alcohol
A disulfiram-like reaction may happen when metronidazole is taken with alcohol, leading to an unpleasant systemic response caused by the buildup of acetaldehyde in the body. This reaction can result in symptoms such as facial flushing, headache, palpitations, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. In severe cases, large doses of alcohol can cause arrhythmias, hypotension, and even collapse. It is important to avoid consuming alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent this reaction from occurring. Proper communication with healthcare providers and adherence to medication instructions can help prevent adverse reactions and ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a severe throbbing headache that is most intense in the morning. Despite taking paracetamol, the symptoms have persisted for several weeks. She also experiences vomiting in the mornings and has noticed blurry vision. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive, and there are no abnormalities in her systemic examination. What would you anticipate observing during fundoscopy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blurring of optic disc margin
Explanation:Papilloedema is characterized by a blurry appearance of the optic disc margin during fundoscopy.
The patient in question is experiencing elevated intracranial pressure, the cause of which is uncertain. Their symptoms, including a morning headache, vision impairment, and vomiting, are indicative of papilloedema. As such, it is expected that their fundoscopy would reveal signs of this condition, such as a blurred optic disc margin.
Other potential indicators of papilloedema include a loss of optic cup and venous pulsation. However, increased arterial reflex is more commonly associated with hypertensive retinopathy, while retinal pigmentation is a hallmark of retinitis pigmentosa.
Understanding Papilloedema: Optic Disc Swelling Caused by Increased Intracranial Pressure
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition is typically bilateral and can be identified through fundoscopy. During this examination, venous engorgement is usually the first sign observed, followed by loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and the presence of Paton’s lines, which are concentric or radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may also be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia, or vitamin A toxicity.
Overall, understanding papilloedema is important for identifying potential underlying conditions and providing appropriate treatment to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An Emergency Department receives a 70-year-old man who slipped on ice and fell backwards, hitting his head on the kerb and landing on his right arm. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is currently taking bisoprolol and warfarin. His INR was 2.2 four days ago. There are no visible injuries on his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old nulliparous woman has presented to her General Practitioner (GP), requesting an appointment to discuss contraceptive options. She has previously relied on condoms for contraception but would now prefer alternative means of contraception. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. Her previous cervical smears were normal, and she denies any symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. She has a past medical history of epilepsy, for which she takes regular carbamazepine, and menorrhagia secondary to several large uterine fibroids, for which she takes tranexamic acid. She does not wish to have children in the near future. She does not smoke. The GP decides to take a blood pressure reading and calculates the patient’s body mass index (BMI):
Investigation Result
Blood pressure 132/71 mmHg
BMI 28 kg/m2
Which of the following would be the contraceptive most suited to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: progesterone-only injectable
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Patients with Uterine Fibroids and Carbamazepine Use
Patients with uterine fibroids and concurrent use of carbamazepine may have limited contraceptive options due to drug interactions and uterine cavity distortion. The progesterone-only injectable is a suitable option as it does not interact with enzyme inducers and is not affected by uterine cavity distortion. The copper intrauterine device and levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system are not recommended in this case. The progesterone-only implant and combined oral contraceptive pill have severe interactions with carbamazepine, reducing their efficacy. It is important to consider individual patient factors and discuss all available contraceptive options with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A preterm baby is admitted to the hospital with signs of heart failure shortly after birth. The infant is experiencing poor feeding, excessive sweating, and fatigue, resulting in inadequate weight gain. The parents also report irritability and episodes of apnea. During the examination, a continuous machinery murmur and bounding peripheral pulses are detected. An echocardiogram reveals left ventricular enlargement and a shunt between two of the great vessels, indicating a possible patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). What non-surgical intervention can be utilized to manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indomethacin
Explanation:To promote duct closure in patent ductus arteriosus, indomethacin or ibuprofen is used.
The incomplete closure of the ductus arteriosus after birth is known as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is causing the patient’s symptoms. During fetal development, this vessel allows blood to bypass the immature fetal lungs. However, if the duct remains open after birth, a large amount of blood can bypass the functioning lungs, resulting in reduced oxygen saturation and a murmur.
Prostaglandin E2 maintains the ductus arteriosus, so medications like indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, can be effective in closing the duct. However, in some cases, surgery may be necessary to close particularly large PDAs.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the primary factor used to determine the majority of deaths?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The absence of vital signs
Explanation:Diagnosing Death: The Commonest Mode
Diagnosing death is typically done by checking for the absence of vital signs, which includes the absence of a pulse, heart sounds, respiratory activity, and pupillary light reflex. Brain stem tests are usually only performed in cases where the patient is on a ventilator and organ transplantation is a possibility. It is important to note that doctors are typically the ones who diagnose death, not the coroner who provides a verdict on the cause of death. Overall, the absence of vital signs is the most common way to diagnose death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals a right pleural effusion. Following the removal of an ovarian mass, it is determined to be benign on histology. What is the name of this syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meig's syndrome
Explanation:Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of a non-cancerous ovarian tumor, as well as ascites and pleural effusion. This condition is uncommon and typically affects women who are 40 years of age or older, with the ovarian tumor usually being a fibroma. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor, although drainage of the ascites and pleural effusion may be necessary beforehand to alleviate symptoms and improve lung function prior to anesthesia. The prognosis for Meig’s syndrome is favorable due to the benign nature of the tumor.
Types of Ovarian Tumours
Ovarian tumours can be classified into four main types: surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastatic tumours. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. Examples of surface derived tumours include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour.
Germ cell tumours, which are more common in adolescent girls, account for 15-20% of tumours and have similar cancer types to those seen in the testicle. Examples of germ cell tumours include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma.
Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples of sex cord-stromal tumours include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma.
Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and occur when cancer cells from other parts of the body spread to the ovaries. An example of a metastatic tumour is Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma that results from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.
Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.
Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.
Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.
Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.
In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is currently undergoing clomiphene treatment.
What is the primary outcome of clomiphene treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induction of ovulation
Explanation:Clomiphene: An Anti-Oestrogen for Fertility Disorders
Clomiphene is a medication that falls under the category of anti-oestrogens. Its primary function is to prevent oestrogen binding in the anterior pituitary, which in turn, stops negative feedback. This leads to an increase in the production of LH and FSH, which induces ovulation and boosts oestrogen production. Clomiphene is commonly used to treat fertility disorders caused by anovulation.
Moreover, this medication also promotes the development and maturation of multiple follicles, which can be harvested for in vitro fertilisation. Clomiphene is a popular choice for women who are struggling with infertility, as it helps to regulate their menstrual cycle and increase their chances of conceiving. With its ability to stimulate ovulation and promote the growth of multiple follicles, clomiphene has become a valuable tool in the field of reproductive medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor
Explanation:Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers
Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Perthes disease is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Twice as common in girls
Explanation:Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits the GP clinic with her partner as they are facing difficulty in conceiving. Despite having regular sexual intercourse for a year, they have not been successful. What would be the initial investigation recommended in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Day 21 progesterone
Explanation:If a woman of reproductive age has been having unprotected vaginal sexual intercourse for a year without conceiving and there is no known cause of infertility, NICE guidance recommends that she and her partner undergo further clinical assessment and investigation. The most appropriate initial investigation for this patient is a day 21 progesterone test, which is non-invasive and can determine if the patient is ovulating. Serum prolactin and thyroid function tests are not recommended unless there is a specific reason for testing, such as a pituitary tumor or overt thyroid disease. Transvaginal or abdominal ultrasounds are unlikely to reveal the cause of subfertility and are therefore not necessary. As part of the initial assessment, the male partner should also undergo a semen analysis.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of vomiting and crying which she believes may be due to a tummy ache. The mother reports that her baby vomits after most feeds and cries constantly, even when laid down. The vomiting is non-projectile and non-bilious. The baby was born at 39 weeks via vaginal delivery, and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. The baby lives with both parents. On examination, the baby's weight is appropriate for their growth chart. Their heart rate is 140 bpm, O2 saturation is 97%, respiratory rate is 42/min, and temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for an infant under 8 weeks old who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, especially when laid flat, and excessive crying is gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD). This is because the symptoms are typical of GORD, with non-projectile and non-bilious vomits and normal observations. Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a possible differential, but there is no history of stool changes or rashes, and it usually presents earlier in life. Duodenal atresia is unlikely as it typically presents with projectile and bilious vomiting and earlier in life. Gastroenteritis is also less likely as it is commonly caused by a viral infection with associated fever and tachycardia, and there is no mention of stool changes in the history.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A three-week-old preterm baby boy is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by his mother due to concerns of increasing lethargy and refusal to feed over the past 3 days. On examination, the baby's respiratory rate is 66 breaths/min, oxygen saturations are 95% on air, heart rate is 178 bpm, blood pressure is 64/48 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5ºC. The only notable findings are lethargy and signs of dehydration. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal sepsis
Explanation:Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of Crohn's disease for many years visits a Crohn's clinic with complaints of pain, swelling, and pus around the anus. The patient reports being stable otherwise, and their vital signs are normal. During a rectal exam, the patient experiences pain, and an inflamed opening is visible in the skin surrounding the anus, leading to a suspicion of an anal fistula. What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic MRI
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have been diagnosed with anal fistula, the priority is to determine the course of the fistula. This information is crucial in deciding whether surgery is necessary and what type of surgery would be most appropriate. Surgical exploration may be necessary in emergency situations, but it is generally not advisable to perform surgery without first understanding the structure and course of the fistula. The most effective way to characterise the fistula course is through an MRI, as CT scans and x-rays are not as effective in visualising the soft tissue of the fistula. Blood tests are not useful in providing information about the structure and course of the fistula. Currently, the patient is stable and in good health.
Fistulas are abnormal connections between two epithelial surfaces, with the majority arising from diverticular disease and Crohn’s in the abdominal cavity. They can be enterocutaneous, enteroenteric or enterocolic, enterovaginal, or enterovesicular. Conservative measures may be the best option for management, but high output fistulas may require octreotide and TPN for nutritional support. Surgeons should avoid probing perianal fistulae with acute inflammation and use setons for those secondary to Crohn’s disease. It is important to delineate the fistula anatomy using barium and CT studies for intraabdominal sources and recalling Goodsall’s rule for perianal fistulae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Since yesterday, she has developed a fever (38.5ºC) and become progressively short of breath. On examination, she appears unwell with stridor and drooling. Her past medical history is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the most probable causative organism for this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae B
Explanation:Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae B (HiB) bacteria. It is characterized by a sudden onset of fever, stridor, and drooling due to inflammation of the epiglottis. It is important to keep the affected child calm and seek specialist input from anaesthetics and paediatrics. In the UK, the current vaccination against HiB has made epiglottitis uncommon. Bordetella pertussis, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Parainfluenza virus are incorrect answers as they do not produce the same presentation as acute epiglottitis.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer is referred to the Palliative Care team for assessment and planning of further care.
Which of the following best describes the role of palliative care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptom control
Explanation:The Focus of Palliative Care: Symptom Control
Palliative care is a specialized medical care that aims to improve the quality of life of patients with serious or life-threatening illnesses. The primary focus of palliative care is on anticipating, preventing, diagnosing, and treating symptoms experienced by patients, regardless of their diagnosis. Unlike hospice care, palliative care does not depend on prognosis.
The goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family. Palliative care aims to treat symptoms rather than modify the disease, and it is not focused on curative or life-prolonging care. Pain management is an important aspect of palliative care, but the control of all disease symptoms is the best answer. Overall, the focus of palliative care is on symptom control to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence
Explanation:Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml
Explanation:Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload
When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.
However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.
Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.
It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are an FY1 doctor working in colorectal surgery. You are looking after a patient following an lower anterior resection of the patients rectum with a defunctioning loop ileostomy to remove a large adenocarcinoma in the proximal third of the rectum. The patient is now 65 years old and is nearly ready for discharge. Your consultant says they will review the patient in three weeks following discharge. They would like you to organise an investigation in two weeks time to ensure that the anastomosis performed to join the colon to the remaining portion of rectum has healed and is not leaking, prior to reversing the ileostomy. Please choose the most appropriate investigation from the options below.
MRI
11%
Transrectal ultrasound scan
6%
Gastrografin enema
30%
CT colon
25%
Barium enema
28%
A gastrografin enema involves passing a water soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum, then taking radiographs to assess the rectum. If there are any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid should show up as free fluid in the abdomen. As this is a possibility gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less toxic if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrografin enema
Explanation:To evaluate the rectum, a gastrografin enema is performed by administering a water-soluble radiopaque liquid into the rectum and taking X-rays. In case of any leaks in a colorectal anastomosis, the radiopaque liquid will appear as free fluid in the abdomen. Gastrografin is preferred over barium as it is less harmful if it leaks into the abdominal cavity.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdominoperineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileocolic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with proteinuria at 1500 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, her urine reveals the presence of significant amounts of large proteins, including albumin and transferrin. What could be the possible reason for her proteinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glomerular proteinuria
Explanation:Glomerular Proteinuria
Although a small amount of protein is typically found in urine, an elevated level of protein indicates a potential health issue. The diagram below illustrates the various sources of protein in urine, with glomerular proteinuria being the likely cause in this case due to the presence of larger proteins. This type of proteinuria can result in significant loss of protein through urine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of glomerular proteinuria and seek appropriate medical treatment to prevent further damage to the kidneys. Proper management can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin
Explanation:Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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