00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      120.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A GP receives notification from the Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm Screening program that one...

    Correct

    • A GP receives notification from the Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm Screening program that one of his elderly patients has been found to have an aneurysm measuring 6.5cm in diameter. What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer to Vascular Outpatients

      Explanation:

      If the aortic diameter is within normal range, the patient is discharged from the screening programme. However, if small or medium AAAs are detected, the patient will be scheduled for regular follow-up appointments with a Nurse Specialist from the screening programme and surveillance scans. In the event of a large AAA (measuring over 5.5 cm in diameter), the patient must be referred to Vascular Outpatients and seen within 2 weeks. While the screening programme will initiate the referral process, the GP will also be urgently contacted to provide additional information such as the patient’s medical history. If surgery is deemed necessary, it should be performed within 8 weeks of the referral.

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a check-up. He experienced a 2-hour episode yesterday where he struggled to find the right words while speaking. This is a new occurrence and there were no other symptoms present. Upon examination, there were no neurological abnormalities and his blood pressure was 150/100 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 75 mg + outpatient CT brain

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg immediately + specialist review within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      This individual has experienced a TIA and is at a higher risk due to their age, blood pressure, and duration of symptoms. It is recommended by current guidelines that they receive specialist evaluation within 24 hours. If their symptoms have not completely subsided, aspirin should not be administered until the possibility of a hemorrhagic stroke has been ruled out. However, since this is a TIA with symptoms lasting less than 24 hours, aspirin should be administered promptly.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Smith is a 58-year-old patient who recently had her annual review with the practice nurse for her type 2 diabetes. During the review, the nurse found that her blood pressure was elevated. Mrs. Smith has since borrowed a friend's BP monitor and has recorded her readings on a spreadsheet, which she has brought to show you. She has already calculated the average BP, which is 142/91 mmHg. Mrs. Smith has been researching on the internet and is interested in starting medication to reduce her cardiovascular risk, especially since she already has diabetes.

      According to NICE, what antihypertensive medication is recommended for Mrs. Smith?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, the recommended first-line medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, regardless of age. Alpha-blockers or beta-blockers are usually considered as a 4th-line option. Calcium channel blockers were previously recommended for patients aged 55 or over, but the updated NICE guidelines prioritize ACE inhibitors or ARBs. It is not appropriate to monitor the patient annually without commencing treatment, as they have confirmed stage 1 hypertension and a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      226.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.

      His recent blood work reveals the following results:

      - Sodium: 142 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 mol/L
      - Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
      - HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
      - LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
      - Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
      - Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L

      Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start atorvastatin 20 mg on

      Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a history of hypertension. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a history of hypertension. He reports experiencing progressive dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea for the past few months. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. Laboratory tests including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP are within normal limits. Spirometry and chest x-ray results are also normal. The physician suspects heart failure. What is the most suitable follow-up test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the initial test for patients with suspected chronic heart failure should be an NT-proBNP test. This should be done in conjunction with obtaining an ECG, and is recommended for patients who have not previously experienced a myocardial infarction.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old woman presented with an ulcer over the left ankle, which had...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presented with an ulcer over the left ankle, which had developed over the previous nine months. She had a history of right deep vein thrombosis (DVT) five years previously.

      On examination she had a superficial slough-based ulcer, 6 cm in diameter, over the medial malleolus with no evidence of cellulitis.

      What investigation is required prior to the application of compression bandaging?

      Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Correct Answer: Bilateral lower limb arteriogram

      Explanation:

      Venous Ulceration and Arterial Disease

      Venous ulcerations are the most common type of ulcer affecting the lower extremities, often caused by venous insufficiency leading to venous congestion. Treatment involves controlling oedema, treating any infection, and compression, but compressive dressings or devices should not be used if arterial circulation is impaired. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any arterial disease, which can be done through the ankle-brachial pressure index. If indicated, a lower limb arteriogram may be necessary.

      In cases where there is no clinical sign of infection, ruling out arterial insufficiency is more important than a bacterial swab. If there is a suspicion of deep vein thrombosis, a duplex or venogram is necessary to determine the need for anticoagulation. By identifying and addressing both venous ulceration and arterial disease, proper treatment can be administered to promote healing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe a different ACE-inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      64.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 79-year-old man is being seen in the hypertension clinic. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is being seen in the hypertension clinic. What is the recommended target blood pressure for him once he starts treatment?

      Your Answer: 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 150/90 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Raj is a 50-year-old man who has been prescribed an Antihypertensive medication for...

    Correct

    • Raj is a 50-year-old man who has been prescribed an Antihypertensive medication for his high blood pressure. He visits you with a complaint of persistent bilateral ankle swelling for the past 3 weeks, which is causing him concern. Which of the following drugs is the probable cause of his new symptom?

      Your Answer: Lacidipine

      Explanation:

      Ankle swelling is more commonly associated with dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers like amlodipine than with verapamil. Although ankle oedema is a known side effect of all calcium channel blockers, there are differences in the incidence of ankle oedema between the two classes. Therefore, lacidipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class, is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil.

      Factors that increase the risk of developing ankle oedema while taking calcium channel blockers include being female, older age, having heart failure, standing upright, and being in warm environments.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 70-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension during his annual review for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). In the clinic, his blood pressure measures 170/100 mmHg, and you initiate treatment with amlodipine 5mg once daily. What guidance should you provide regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No need to notify DVLA unless side-effects from medication

      Explanation:

      If you have hypertension and belong to Group 1, there is no requirement to inform the DVLA. However, if you belong to Group 2, your blood pressure must consistently remain below 180/100 mmHg.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.

    He is usually fit and well...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.

      He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history. His ECG is normal, he has no microalbuminuria, and clinical examination is otherwise unremarkable.

      Assuming there are no contraindications, place the following in the correct order in which they should be initiated to manage his high blood pressure:

      A ACE-inhibitor
      B Calcium channel blocker
      C Thiazide-like diuretic
      D Alpha blocker

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C A B D

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Treatment

      There are established guidelines published by NICE for managing high blood pressure. The guidelines outline a stepwise approach to pharmacological treatment. For patients under 55 years old and not of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin, the first-line treatment is an ACE inhibitor or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist. If additional treatment is needed, a calcium-channel blocker should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If a fourth agent is required, options include a further diuretic, an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker. Spironolactone can be used if the patient’s potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L or less. If not, an alpha- or beta-blocker can be considered.

      For patients of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin of any age (and all those over 55), the first-line antihypertensive treatment is a calcium-channel blocker. If the calcium-channel blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, then a thiazide-like diuretic would be first-line. If additional treatment is required, an ACE-inhibitor (or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist) should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If necessary, a further diuretic (spironolactone), an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and syncopal attacks. He reports that a few of these episodes have occurred while he was getting dressed for church, putting on his shirt and tie; others have happened while he was out shopping, and one at the church itself. He explains that sometimes he doesn't actually lose consciousness, but just feels extremely dizzy, and on other occasions he passes out completely.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, and dyslipidaemia, for which he takes 10 mg of atorvastatin. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/88, his pulse is 65 and regular, and his heart sounds are normal. His chest is clear.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (135-180), a white cell count of 4.9 ×109/L (4-10), platelets of 222 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 139 mmol/L (134-143), potassium of 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 139 μmol/L (60-120). His ECG shows sinus rhythm with an inferior lead Q wave (lead III only), and a 72-hour ECG doesn't identify any significant rhythm disturbance.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sick sinus syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity and Differential Diagnosis

      The history of syncope during dressing for church, particularly when putting on a collared shirt, may suggest the possibility of carotid sinus hypersensitivity. To diagnose this condition, a tilt table test is the optimal method, but it is important to exclude significant carotid artery stenosis before performing carotid sinus massage. In patients with bradycardia carotid sinus hypersensitivity, cardiac pacing is the preferred treatment.

      Ménière’s disease is unlikely to be the cause of syncope in this case, as it typically presents with a triad of dizziness, deafness, and tinnitus. Sick sinus syndrome is also less likely, as it often manifests with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, and alternating bradycardia and tachycardia. However, a Q wave in one inferior lead (III) may be a normal finding.

      In summary, when evaluating syncope, it is important to consider carotid sinus hypersensitivity as a potential cause and to differentiate it from other conditions such as Ménière’s disease and sick sinus syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old businessman has noticed a constricting discomfort in his throat, left shoulder and arm for the past few weeks when he exercises at the gym. He stops exercising and it goes away within five minutes. He has taken glyceryl trinitrate and finds it relieves the pain. His blood pressure is 158/94 mmHg and examination of the cardiovascular system and upper limbs is normal. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      Which of the following investigations is most appropriate to confirm this patient's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Stable Angina: CT Coronary Angiography, Non-Invasive Functional Imaging, ECG, Endoscopy, and Exercise ECG

      Stable angina is suspected when a patient experiences constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms during physical exertion, which is relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate within five minutes. A typical angina diagnosis can be confirmed through a computed tomography (CT) coronary angiography, which should be offered if the patient exhibits typical or atypical angina or if the ECG shows ST-T changes or Q waves. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended if the CT coronary angiography is not diagnostic or if the coronary artery disease is of uncertain functional significance. While ECG changes may suggest coronary artery disease, a normal ECG doesn’t confirm or exclude a diagnosis of stable angina. Endoscopy is used to investigate gastro-oesophageal causes of chest pain, but exercise-induced chest pain is more likely to be cardiac in nature. Exercise electrocardiograms are no longer recommended to diagnose or exclude stable angina in patients without known coronary artery disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension

      Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.

      It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 72 year old woman presents to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old woman presents to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling that has persisted for the past 2 weeks. The swelling is present in both ankles and there is pitting edema up to the mid-shin. She recently had a modification in her medication 2 weeks ago. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Ankle oedema is not a known side effect of bendroflumethiazide. However, it may cause postural hypotension and electrolyte imbalances, particularly hypokalaemia.

      Beta blockers such as bisoprolol do not typically cause ankle oedema. They may cause peripheral coldness due to vasoconstriction, hypotension, and bronchospasm.

      Clopidogrel is not associated with ankle oedema. However, it may cause gastrointestinal symptoms or bleeding disorders in rare cases.

      ACE inhibitors like ramipril may cause hypotension, renal dysfunction, and a dry cough. They are not typically associated with ankle oedema.

      Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, is known to cause ankle oedema, which may not respond fully to diuretics. It may also cause other side effects related to vasodilation, such as flushing and headaches.

      References: BNF

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old heavy smoker with a long history of self-neglect presents to his GP with severe leg pain. On examination there are several, small punched-out ulcers situated on the lower third of both legs. Both dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses appear absent.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple arterial ulcers

      Explanation:

      Arterial Ulceration in Smokers: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Arterial ulceration is a common problem among smokers, which is characterized by intense leg pain and sleep interference. The absence of foot pulses bilaterally indicates peripheral vascular disease, and it is important to assess for ischaemic heart disease and carotid disease as well. Angioplasty or bypass surgery may be appropriate for improving the peripheral blood supply in a limited number of cases only, while peripheral vasodilators are rarely effective. However, other options such as varicose veins, vasculitis, injury, or bites should be ruled out before making a diagnosis. In this article, we will discuss the symptoms and treatment options for arterial ulceration in smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged...

    Incorrect

    • A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction....

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with a persistent cough and difficulty breathing for the past few weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Initially, she thought it was just a cold, but now she has noticed swelling in her feet. Upon examination, she has crackling sounds in both lungs, a third heart sound, and a displaced point of maximum impulse.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Cardiomyopathy and Recent Travel History

      Cardiomyopathy is a myocardial disorder that can range from asymptomatic to life-threatening. It is important to consider this diagnosis in young patients presenting with heart failure, arrhythmias, or thromboembolism. While recent travel history may be relevant to other potential diagnoses, such as atypical pneumonia or thromboembolism, neither of these fully fit the patient’s history and examination. Rheumatic heart disease, pericarditis, and pulmonary embolus can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. The underlying cause and type of cardiomyopathy in this case are unknown but could be multiple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

    Investigations:

    Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

    TSH...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

      Investigations:

      Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)

      She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

      Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.

      Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a follow-up of his hypertension. He is of Caucasian descent. He was diagnosed with essential hypertension six months ago and was prescribed ramipril, which has been increased to 10 mg daily. He also has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and gout, and he takes atorvastatin 20 mg once nightly.

      He provides a set of home blood pressure readings with an average of 140/95 mmHg.

      What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the recommended medication to add would be either a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, since the patient has a history of gout, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine would be the most appropriate choice. Losartan, an A2RB drug, should not be used in combination with ACE inhibitors. The maximum daily dose of ramipril is 10 mg. The target home readings for this patient would be less than 135/85 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is seen in clinic. There is no evidence of diabetic retinopathy, chronic kidney disease or cardiovascular disease in his records.

      He is currently taking the following medications:
      simvastatin 20 mg once daily
      ramipril 10 mg once daily
      amlodipine 5mg once daily
      metformin 1g twice daily

      Recent blood results are as follows:

      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.4 mmol/l
      Urea 7.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 86 µmol/l
      HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)

      The urine dipstick shows no proteinuria. His blood pressure in clinic today is 134/76 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No changes to medication required

      Explanation:

      Since there are no complications from her diabetes, the target blood pressure remains < 140/80 mmHg and her antihypertensive regime doesn't need to be altered. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers. Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight. Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age. The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male smoker comes to see you. His BMI is 35 and has a 60-pack/year smoking history. His uncle and father both died in their 50s of a myocardial infarction.

      He is found to have a blood pressure of 146/92 mmHg in the clinic. He has no signs of end organ damage on examination and bloods, ACR, urine dip and ECG are normal. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is >10%. He has ambulatory monitoring which shows a blood pressure average of 138/86 mmHg.

      As per the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension for the AKT Exam

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) published in September 2019 provide important information for general practitioners on the management of hypertension. However, it is important to remember that these guidelines have attracted criticism from some clinicians for being over complicated and insufficiently evidence-based. While it is essential to have an awareness of NICE guidance, it is also important to have a balanced view and consider other guidelines and consensus opinions.

      One example of a question that may be asked in the AKT exam relates to the cut-offs for high blood pressure on ambulatory monitoring. According to the NICE guidelines, stage 1 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of 135-149/85-94 mmHg and should be treated if there is end organ damage, diabetes, or a 10-year CVD risk of 10% or more. Stage 2 hypertension is defined as blood pressure equal to or greater than 150/95 mmHg and should be treated.

      In the exam, you may be asked to determine the appropriate treatment for a patient with stage 1 hypertension. The NICE guidance suggests a calcium channel blocker in patients above 55 or Afro-Caribbean. However, it is important to note that lifestyle factors are also crucial in risk reduction.

      While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to remember that the AKT exam tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is important to have a broader understanding of the subject matter and consider other guidelines and opinions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (7/13) 54%
Passmed