00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man comes in with complaints of an itchy and irritated foreskin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in with complaints of an itchy and irritated foreskin that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. He admits to feeling embarrassed about seeking medical attention. The patient denies any recent sexual activity or new sexual partner and has never experienced this issue before. Upon examination, the foreskin appears slightly swollen and erythematous, with no signs of urethral discharge or other rashes in the groin or penis area.

      What is the recommended initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Betamethasone dipropionate 0.05% cream daily

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% and clotrimazole cream daily

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from nonspecific balanitis and should be treated with a combination of hydrocortisone and antifungal cream. This treatment may help improve the condition, and if it fails, it can provide diagnostic clues to the underlying cause. Betamethasone dipropionate is not necessary for this condition, but it may be appropriate for more severe conditions like lichen sclerosis. Clotrimazole cream alone may not be effective in relieving the irritation, and hydrocortisone cream alone may not treat a potential fungal cause. Mupirocin is not useful in this situation as it is an antibacterial product used for gram-positive skin infections like impetigo.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      85.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of back pain. He is taking 7.5mg morphine four times a day and 1g paracetamol four times a day as his regular oral analgesic medications. What is the appropriate dose of morphine for breakthrough pain in this case?

      Your Answer: 15mg

      Correct Answer: 5mg

      Explanation:

      The breakthrough dose is calculated as 1/6th of the daily morphine dose, which is equivalent to 5mg (30 mg total daily dose divided by 6).

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 70-year-old male smoker in clinic who describes symptoms of pain...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 70-year-old male smoker in clinic who describes symptoms of pain in his left leg which is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest.

      On examination his pulses are weak in the left leg compared to the right. Suspecting intermittent claudication you arrange leg Dopplers. These show an ABPI (ankle brachial pressure Index) of 0.84.

      What is the appropriate diagnosis for this man based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Correct Answer: Peripheral arterial disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and its Interpretation

      The Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is a ratio that compares the systolic pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. It is a non-invasive test that helps diagnose peripheral arterial disease (PAD), a condition that affects blood flow to the legs and feet.

      An ABPI of less than 0.9 indicates the presence of PAD, while an ABPI of less than 0.8 suggests a higher risk of developing ulcers. An ABPI of less than 0.5 indicates critical ischaemia, a severe form of PAD that can lead to tissue damage and even amputation.

      On the other hand, an ABPI of more than 1.5 is likely due to non-compressible vessels, which means that the arteries are too stiff to be accurately measured. In such cases, the ABPI cannot be relied upon to guide clinical decisions.

      In summary, the ABPI is a useful tool in diagnosing and assessing the severity of PAD. Healthcare professionals should interpret the results carefully and take appropriate action based on the patient’s individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 35 weeks gestation and started on insulin therapy. She has not experienced any hypoglycaemic episodes since starting treatment. As her delivery is expected at around 40 weeks, she has been advised to consult her GP regarding driving. Currently, she holds a group 1 driving licence. What advice should be given to the patient regarding driving?

      Your Answer: Doesn't need to inform the DVLA. However, should check blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey

      Explanation:

      Patients on insulin are not always required to inform the DVLA, except for those on temporary treatment for less than three months or those with gestational diabetes who are taking insulin for less than three months after delivery. If a patient falls under these exceptions, they can continue driving but must follow the guidelines for insulin-taking patients, which include checking their blood glucose two hours before driving and every two hours during the journey. It is incorrect to assume that a patient can continue driving as normal without any stipulations, even if they do not need to inform the DVLA.

      DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus

      The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.

      For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.

      To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old man has noticed tenderness and slight swelling in the lower half of his left testicle for the past 2 weeks. What is the most appropriate course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Testicular Cancer: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Prognosis

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that typically affects young men in their third or fourth decade of life. The most common symptom is a painless, unilateral mass in the scrotum, but in about 20% of cases, scrotal pain may be the first symptom. Unfortunately, in about 10% of cases, a testicular tumor can be mistaken for epididymo orchitis, leading to a delay in the correct diagnosis.

      Diagnostic ultrasound is the most effective way to confirm the presence of a testicular mass and explore the contralateral testis. It has a sensitivity of almost 100% in detecting a testicular tumor and can determine whether a mass is intra- or extratesticular. Even if a testicular tumor is clinically evident, an ultrasound should still be performed as it is an inexpensive test.

      Serum tumor markers, including αfetoprotein, HCG, and LDH, are important prognostic factors and contribute to diagnosis and staging. In about half of all cases of testicular cancer, markers are increased, but there is variation between different cancers and different markers.

      In conclusion, early detection and diagnosis of testicular cancer are crucial for successful treatment and a positive prognosis. Men should be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She was initiated on methotrexate three months ago and prednisolone was added to achieve quick symptom control. Currently, she is taking methotrexate 15mg once a week and prednisolone 10 mg once daily. However, she is encountering several adverse effects. What is the most probable side effect caused by prednisolone?

      Your Answer: 'Tired all the time'

      Correct Answer: 'My shoulder and leg muscles feel weak'

      Explanation:

      Proximal myopathy is a frequent occurrence in individuals who use steroids for an extended period. It is possible that some of the other adverse effects are a result of either the ongoing rheumatoid disease or the use of methotrexate.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      98.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 64-year-old man who has recently been released from the hospital after being admitted for acute coronary syndrome. He has a medical history of myasthenia gravis and has been taking prednisolone for a long time. However, since his admission, his myasthenia symptoms have significantly worsened, and you observe bilateral ptosis and slurred speech. Which of the newly prescribed medications is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Myasthenic crises are often triggered by beta-blockers like bisoprolol.

      Exacerbating Factors of Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that is characterized by fatigability, which is worsened by exertion. This means that symptoms become more pronounced as the day progresses. In addition to exertion, certain drugs can also exacerbate myasthenia gravis. These drugs include penicillamine, quinidine, procainamide, beta-blockers, lithium, and certain antibiotics such as gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, and tetracyclines. It is important for individuals with myasthenia gravis to be aware of these exacerbating factors and to avoid them whenever possible in order to manage their symptoms effectively. By doing so, they can improve their quality of life and minimize the impact of this condition on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      68.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He recalls waking from sleep, standing up, feeling light-headed and nauseated, lying back on the bed and losing consciousness. He recovered on the floor. He did not bite his tongue, but his head was badly bruised. His wife was woken by him falling to the ground and mentions that he was pale and sweaty before giving a loud moan followed by ‘spasms’ of his arms and legs lasting about 20 seconds. He was rousable after a minute.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Collapse: A Differential Diagnosis

      When a patient presents with a history of collapse, it is important to consider various possible causes. One potential cause is vasovagal syncope, which is characterized by a prodrome of nausea and light-headedness, often associated with postural change, and a rapid recovery. Jerking movements may occur but do not necessarily indicate epilepsy. Another possibility is cardiac arrhythmia, which may be associated with chest pain or palpitations and can occur during exercise or while lying down. Epileptic seizures are less likely to be triggered by postural change and may involve tongue biting or incontinence. Hypoglycaemia typically presents with trembling, sweating, palpitations, and paraesthesiae before progressing to confusion and coma. Finally, psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may have a gradual onset, fluctuating course, and violent thrashing movements with side-to-side head movement. It is important to consider these and other potential causes when evaluating a patient with a history of collapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      226.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and he suspects she may be teething. He has been using over-the-counter pain relief and giving her teething rings to chew on, but he is worried that she may need additional treatment.

      Upon examination, the baby is found to have normal vital signs and no fever, and the diagnosis of teething is confirmed.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a topical anaesthetic preparation

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother and tell her to continue existing treatments

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe oral choline salicylate gels to teething children as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. However, in this case, reassurance is appropriate as the child’s symptoms are mild and self-limiting. Simple measures such as allowing the child to bite on a cool, clean object and administering paracetamol/ibuprofen suspension for those aged three months and older can be helpful. It is not recommended to use topical anaesthetics or herbal teething powders as they may have adverse effects.

      Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.

      During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.

      In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 64-year-old man is seen by the District Nurse at home, where he...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old man is seen by the District Nurse at home, where he is being looked after by his family as he has advanced prostate cancer with bone metastases. His pain has been well controlled; he has a catheter in situ and can take oral medication. In the last week, he has not been eating and drinking much. His urine output is reduced; hence, his urine looks concentrated.

      Over the last two days, he has become very confused, especially in the evening. He has been trying to get out of his bed and he has been pulling his catheter. He has been shouting at the family. His wife is very distressed. She asks for some sedation.

      On examination by the District Nurse, his temperature is 37 oC. His pulse is 90 bpm and regular, while his blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. His oxygen saturation is 96% on air. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.

      What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: 0.5 mg haloperidol orally

      Explanation:

      Medication Options for Delirium in Palliative Care

      When managing delirium in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the appropriate medication options. For a patient experiencing symptoms of delirium, such as confusion and agitation, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of haloperidol. The initial dose should be 0.5-1.0 mg at night and every two hours as needed, with the option to increase the dose in 0.5-1.0 mg increments up to a maximum of 10 mg per day (or 5 mg per day for elderly patients).

      While benzodiazepines may be used for delirium management, temazepam and diazepam are not recommended by NICE. Instead, lorazepam would be the preferred benzodiazepine option. Zopiclone, a hypnotic used for insomnia, is not indicated for delirium treatment in palliative care.

      It is important to consider the patient’s ability to take medication orally and the availability of a syringe driver when selecting a medication option. Administering subcutaneous medication may delay the management of delirium if the patient is still able to take medication orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      1674
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - For a mother who is breastfeeding, which medication should be avoided? ...

    Incorrect

    • For a mother who is breastfeeding, which medication should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline and Other Drugs to Avoid During Pregnancy and Breastfeeding

      Tetracycline is a medication that should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers due to the risk of staining the infant’s teeth. Other drugs to avoid during pregnancy and breastfeeding include amiodarone, lithium, chloramphenicol, and vitamin A derivatives. The FDA has assigned tetracycline to pregnancy category D, as it has been associated with congenital defects and maternal hepatotoxicity. When used during tooth development in the second half of pregnancy, tetracycline can cause permanent yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth and enamel hypoplasia. Therefore, the use of tetracycline during pregnancy is generally not recommended, especially during the last half of pregnancy.

      Tetracycline is excreted into human milk in small amounts, which may pose theoretical risks of dental staining and inhibition of bone growth, although these risks are unlikely. It is important for pregnant and breastfeeding women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a long history of type 2 diabetes associated with obesity would like to participate in an exercise program.

      Which of the following would be a relative contraindication to him exercising?

      Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease

      Correct Answer: Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Exercise Recommendations for Different Diabetic Complications

      Untreated diabetic proliferative retinopathy can lead to haemorrhage, which is why patients with this condition should avoid strenuous exercise until they have received photocoagulation therapy. On the other hand, exercise is actually encouraged for patients with peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. It is important to understand the different exercise recommendations for various diabetic complications in order to promote optimal health and prevent further complications. By following these guidelines, patients can improve their overall well-being and reduce their risk of developing additional health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to clinic as his parents are concerned about changes in his behaviour.

      Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Grandiose ideations

      Correct Answer: Feelings of panic in buses and shops

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Schizophrenia, Anxiety Disorder, and Mania

      Incongruity of affect is a symptom of schizophrenia where the emotion expressed is inappropriate to the circumstances. Although it is not considered a primary symptom, it is consistent with the diagnosis. Auditory hallucinations, particularly third person, are typical of schizophrenia, but clouding of consciousness is not. On the other hand, panic in crowds is indicative of an anxiety disorder, while grandiose ideations suggest mania. It is important to note that these symptoms may overlap and coexist in some cases, making it crucial to seek professional help for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Correct

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with prostate cancer is suffering from severe hot flashes due to his goserelin treatment.
      What medication can be prescribed to alleviate this issue?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Correct Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Hormone Therapies for Prostate Cancer Management

      Goserelin is a type of hormone therapy used to manage prostate cancer. However, it can cause side-effects such as hot flashes. To address this, medroxyprogesterone acetate can be prescribed at a 20 mg dosage per day for 10 weeks. If this is not effective or not tolerated, cyproterone acetate at 50 mg twice a day for 4 weeks can be considered.

      Denosumab is another treatment option for men on androgen deprivation therapy who have osteoporosis and cannot take bisphosphonates. On the other hand, finasteride is an enzyme inhibitor that is indicated for benign prostatic hyperplasia and androgenic alopecia.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, has no role in managing hot flashes but can be used in treatment regimens for metastatic prostate cancer. Lastly, tamoxifen is a treatment option for gynaecomastia in men undergoing long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby...

    Correct

    • During a routine postnatal check, a 27-year-old woman who is breastfeeding her baby and follows a vegan diet asks for advice on ensuring her milk provides the necessary nutrients for her child. As she has no underlying medical conditions, what daily supplement does the NHS recommend for women who follow a vegan diet while breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may require a B12 supplement as this vitamin is primarily present in meat and dairy products. Vegans can obtain vitamin B12 from fortified breakfast cereals and yeast extracts like Marmite. Additionally, the NHS recommends that all breastfeeding women, regardless of their dietary preferences, should take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10 mcg to promote bone health for themselves and their baby. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may receive free supplements, and their Health Visitor can provide guidance on this matter.

      Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a cofactor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.

      However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind spot in the visual field of his left eye. The problem appeared overnight and has worsened slightly since then. He has also experienced mild pain behind his left eye, which intensifies when he moves it. He has noticed that colors, particularly red, appear washed-out. When he covers his left eye, his right eye's vision seems normal. He has been feeling generally lethargic for the past few days but is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis, characterized by visual loss, eye pain, and red desaturation, is a typical indication of multiple sclerosis (MS) and is often the first symptom. Early MS may also cause lethargy, which is a nonspecific symptom.

      It is highly unlikely for a 34-year-old to have temporal arteritis.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man returned from a vacation visiting his parents in Pakistan on a long-haul flight 4 weeks ago. He is experiencing a persistent productive cough, haemoptysis and night sweats.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Persistent cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and fever are classic symptoms of tuberculosis (TB), which accounts for 60% of respiratory cases in the UK. Acute bronchitis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a viral infection and resolves without treatment within three weeks. Lung cancer may present with productive cough and haemoptysis, but the patient’s age and immigrant status make TB more likely. Pulmonary embolism is a minor risk factor in this case, and whooping cough is a respiratory tract infection that affects both children and adults. Paroxysmal coughing followed by a whoop is a characteristic feature of whooping cough. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and risk factors when making a differential diagnosis of respiratory symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to you with a purpuric rash and symptoms and signs that strongly indicate Meningococcal meningitis. He has no known allergies.

      What immediate steps should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give an injection of parenteral ampicillin after phoning 999 for an ambulance

      Explanation:

      Emergency Treatment in Primary Care

      Potentially life-threatening situations are rare in primary care, but prompt action by a vigilant GP can save lives. Both NICE/CKS and the BNF are reference sources for the AKT exam, and they recommend admitting the person to the hospital as an emergency by calling 999. Treatment should not delay transfer to the hospital, and a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin should be administered as soon as possible, provided that it doesn’t delay urgent transfer to the hospital.

      Emergency treatment is a crucial topic for the exam, and candidates have performed poorly in the past. It is essential to have benzylpenicillin, a suitable diluent, needles and syringes, and to be familiar with the correct doses for the age range. It is also crucial to ensure that the medicines in the emergency drug bag have not expired and to know who pays for them. More general GP admin and management issues appear to be a weak area for Registrars. If you are unsure about any of the questions posed, ask your trainer who pays for emergency drugs and whether the cost can be claimed back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought in by her father with symptoms of croup. You decide to administer dexamethasone. Her weight is 12kg.

      The British National Formulary recommends:

      Dexamethasone (for croup):
      A single dose of 150 micrograms/kg by mouth is effective
      Oral solution, sugar-free, dexamethasone (as sodium phosphate) 2 mg/5ml

      What is the accurate dosage of dexamethasone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.75ml

      Explanation:

      According to instructions, a dose of dexamethasone can be administered at a rate of 150 micrograms per kilogram. This is equivalent to 0.15 milligrams per kilogram. The patient weighs 10 kilograms, so they require a single dose of 1.5 milligrams. The medication is available in an oral suspension form with a concentration of 2 milligrams per 5 milliliters. Therefore, 1.5 milligrams divided by 2 milligrams equals 0.75. Multiplying 0.75 by 5 milliliters gives a single dose of 3.75 milliliters.

      Drug Dose Calculations Made Simple

      Drug dose calculations are becoming increasingly important due to the rise of prescription errors. These errors can result in serious harm to patients, which is why it is crucial to ensure that the calculations are correct. Although the calculations themselves are relatively straightforward, it is easy to make a mistake.

      Most calculations involve drugs given as solutions or infusions. To calculate the correct dose for a patient’s weight, you need to multiply the weight by the recommended dosage. For example, if a child weighs 18kg and the recommended dosage for paracetamol is 20 mg/kg, the calculation would be 18 x 20 = 360mg.

      Paracetamol oral suspension is available in a concentration of 120mg/5ml. To determine the amount of oral suspension to give, divide the total dose by the concentration of the oral suspension. In this case, 360 mg divided by 120 mg equals 3. Multiply this by the volume of the oral suspension, which is 5ml, to get the final dose of 15ml.

      By following these simple steps, you can ensure that drug dose calculations are accurate and prevent any potential harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings

      A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up after being hospitalized for erysipelas of his leg. He was feeling ill and needed intravenous antibiotics. He is now finishing his course of oral antibiotics. He has no reported allergies to medications.

      What medication is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      For individuals with cellulitis or erysipelas, an antibiotic is necessary. These conditions are characterized by acute inflammation and swelling, with erysipelas having more superficial lesions with a distinct raised margin.

      When selecting an antibiotic, consider the severity of symptoms, the location of the infection, the risk of complications, and previous antibiotic use. If the individual was admitted to the hospital due to systemic illness, oral flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment for erysipelas. However, co-amoxiclav should be used for cellulitis near the eyes or nose.

      Ciprofloxacin should only be used for specific indications due to its association with Clostridium difficile infection. Doxycycline is not the first choice, and if there is a penicillin allergy, clarithromycin or erythromycin should be used instead of flucloxacillin for erysipelas or cellulitis.

      Erythromycin is not the first-line choice, but it may be appropriate if there is a history of penicillin allergy.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman,...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to conduct a home visit for Edna, a 72-year-old woman, who reports sudden onset of dizziness that started four days ago. The dizziness has been constant since then and causes her to feel unsteady while walking. She has a medical history of migraines and rheumatoid arthritis but has never experienced similar episodes before. She consumes 21 units of alcohol per week and has never smoked.

      During the examination, she can stand and walk but requires support from furniture. You attempt to perform a Romberg test, but she starts to sway as soon as she closes her eyes. Both tympanic membranes appear normal. Cranial nerve examination is unremarkable except for marked nystagmus on vertical gaze. The rest of her neurological examination is normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Explanation:

      When experiencing sudden dizziness, it can be challenging to determine if it is caused by a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). To differentiate between central (related to the central nervous system) and peripheral (related to the inner ear) causes of vertigo, doctors look for the presence of vertical nystagmus. If present, it indicates a central cause. Other signs of a central cause include the presence of other neurological symptoms and risk factors for CVAs. Labyrinthitis and benign paroxysmal positional vertigo are peripheral causes of vertigo that would cause lateral nystagmus. A space occupying lesion may cause central vertigo, but symptoms would likely have a more gradual onset. Vestibular migraines are a central cause that can cause vertical nystagmus, but the vertigo typically lasts for 4-72 hours, so the persistence of symptoms would not fit this diagnosis.

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man with poorly controlled diabetes presents to his General Practitioner with periorbital and pedal oedema and ‘frothy urine'. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
      Which of the following is the most characteristic finding you could expect from a blood test in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased serum cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abnormal Lab Results in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema. Abnormal lipid metabolism is common in patients with renal disease, particularly in nephrotic syndrome. This can result in marked elevations in the plasma levels of cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides, and lipoprotein A. However, fibrinogen levels tend to be increased rather than decreased in nephrotic syndrome. Hypocalcemia is also more common in patients with nephrotic syndrome due to loss of 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 in the urine. The ESR is typically elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome or end-stage renal disease. It is important to understand these abnormal lab results in order to properly diagnose and manage nephrotic syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
      Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics

      Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic seeking advice on contraception. They are currently using condoms.

      Which of the following topical agents would you recommend as safe to use with latex condoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dalacin cream

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Proper Condom Use

      The use of condoms is crucial in reducing the risk of venereal infections, especially in controlling the spread of HIV. However, occasional failures may occur due to defective sheaths, not wearing them in the earlier phases of coitus, or slipping from the penis after ejaculation. It is also important to note that spermicides should not be used with latex condoms as they do not offer additional contraceptive efficacy. Moreover, certain topical, vaginal, and rectal preparations can destroy the integrity of latex condoms, rendering them ineffective. For instance, baby oil can destroy 90% of a latex condom’s strength within 15 minutes. Therefore, it is essential to be aware of the potential interaction between latex condoms and certain topical preparations, such as dalacin and clotrimazole. Professor John Guillebaud’s book Contraception: Your Questions Answered provides a more exhaustive list of preparations that should be avoided and are regarded as unsafe to use with latex condoms. Proper condom use is crucial in protecting oneself and one’s partner from sexually transmitted infections and unwanted pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects

      Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.

      While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with pain in her left hip. She was evaluated by a colleague who suspected that her symptoms were likely due to osteoarthritis and since then she has had some plain films of her hip which confirm significant changes of osteoarthritis.

      She has been attempting to remain active and has increased her daily exercise to try and help with her symptoms and also lose weight. To manage any pain she experiences, she has been using heat and cold packs which provide some relief when her pain is bothersome.

      What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoarthritis Symptoms: Core Strategies and Pharmacological Treatments

      In managing osteoarthritis symptoms, core strategies such as weight loss, appropriate exercise, and suitable footwear can be effective. Local application of heat and cold packs or TENS may also be helpful for some patients. Pharmacological treatments can be considered alongside these core strategies and used as adjuncts to manage symptoms.

      Oral paracetamol is a recommended first-line drug as it provides a good balance of efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and tolerability. It can be used as needed or regularly and is available over-the-counter, making it easier for patients to manage their symptoms independently. Topical capsaicin can also be used in some patients with knee and hand osteoarthritis, but its use must be complied with and may cause a burning sensation at the start of treatment.

      If paracetamol is ineffective in managing symptoms, other options such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids may be considered further up the treatment ladder. It is important to note that oral paracetamol is most effective when taken regularly, and the dose may need to be reduced in older patients. Patients should be counseled on the need for regular use and that it may take up to two weeks to feel the analgesic benefit of capsaicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (1/2) 50%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/2) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed