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  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea....

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      22.9
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  • Question 2 - You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a client who is worried about having coeliac disease. They have recently reintroduced gluten in their diet. How long should the client be consuming gluten before NICE suggests testing for coeliac disease?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Coeliac Disease Testing

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals who are being tested for coeliac disease should have consumed gluten-containing foods equivalent to at least 4 slices of bread over the previous 6 weeks. Additionally, they should be consuming these foods at least twice per day during this time. This is important because consuming gluten is necessary to trigger the immune response that leads to the production of antibodies, which are used to diagnose coeliac disease. Therefore, it is essential that individuals do not follow a gluten-free diet before being tested for coeliac disease. Following these guidelines can help ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment for individuals with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.6
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  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:

      Hb 10.9 g/dl
      Platelets 199 * 109/l
      WBC 7.2 * 109/l
      Ferritin 15 ng/ml
      Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
      Folate 2.1 nmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective exacerbation of irritable bowel syndrome

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.

      It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.

      Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      58
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  • Question 4 - A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg. It has been present for 2 months. She has noticed some abdominal bloating and has lost a little weight. There is no calf tenderness, or erythema. She has well-controlled hypertension and takes amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer: Prescribe furosemide

      Correct Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Causes of Leg Swelling: Importance of History and Examination

      Leg swelling can be caused by a variety of factors, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. Bilateral swelling is often linked to systemic conditions, while unilateral swelling is more commonly due to local causes. In cases of unilateral swelling, a pelvic mass should be considered as a potential cause. While a recent deep vein thrombosis is unlikely in this patient, a careful history and examination, along with appropriate tests, are necessary to determine the underlying cause. Symptomatic treatments should not be used without a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      46.5
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  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.

      What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      51.7
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat liver function tests in 48 hours time

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.

    Her family...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.

      Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.

      What is the underlying cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.

      Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.

      Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      31.2
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  • Question 8 - You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty...

    Incorrect

    • You see an obese 40-year-old gentleman who was incidentally found to have fatty infiltration in his liver while being investigated for a slightly raised ALT. His other blood tests were unremarkable. He is known to have type 2 diabetes and is on metformin 500 mg OD. He doesn't drink alcohol. He is otherwise well in himself.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to hepatology

      Explanation:

      Management of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease

      Patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) should be assessed for the risk of advanced liver fibrosis using a non-invasive scoring system such as the Fibrosis (FIB)-4 Score, according to NICE guidelines. While obesity and metformin use may contribute to NAFLD, changes to glycaemic control should not be made without knowing the patient’s current status. Referral to hepatology is indicated if there is evidence of advanced liver disease or high risk of advanced liver fibrosis based on scoring. Hepatology can perform specialist investigations such as transient elastography and liver biopsy. Additional blood tests, including a liver screen, may be helpful, but an isolated repeat LFT would not be the next most important step in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools. Prior to this he opened his bowels once a day most days and his stools were easily passed and 'soft'. Over the last six weeks he complains of loose 'watery' stools and is opening his bowels four to five times a day. This pattern has been occurring every day for the last six weeks.

      He denies any weight loss, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding or passage of rectal mucous. There is no family history of note. He feels well with no fever or systemic symptoms.

      Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.

      You refer the patient urgently to a lower GI specialist.

      What additional investigation should be arranged at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request tumour markers including CEA

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Patient with Change in Bowel Habit

      This patient requires urgent referral as he is over 60 years old and has experienced a change in bowel habit. According to NICE guidelines, the only test that may be helpful in this case is a full blood count, which can be performed alongside the referral. This will ensure that the result is available for the specialist in clinic.

      NICE guidelines recommend testing for occult blood in faeces to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or are aged 60 and over and have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. However, in this case, there has been no history of weight loss or abdominal pain, and the patient is not known to be anaemic. Therefore, other tests or investigations are not recommended as they will only serve to delay the process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.

      He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.

      Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whiskey

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol

      Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.

      On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.

    He was found...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.

      He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.

      What is the most appropriate method of retesting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saliva assay

      Explanation:

      Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy

      The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.

      If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.

      Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.

      Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.

      Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing epigastric pain after eating for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with increasing epigastric pain after eating for the past month. She has a history of intermittent heartburn and epigastric burning for over a year, which was previously managed with regular alginate. Three months ago, she reported no weight loss or vomiting, and her H. pylori status was checked. On her return visit, it was found that she is H. pylori positive and has experienced a reduced appetite, mild nausea, and some weight loss. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a PPI such as omeprazole 20 mg/day and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Upper GI Cancer in H. pylori Positive Patient

      This patient is showing red flag symptoms and signs that suggest upper GI cancer, including weight loss and poor appetite. Despite being Helicobacter pylori positive, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy or to a specialist in upper GI cancer should not be delayed. An ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and prescribing a PPI should be avoided as it can mask underlying disease. It is important to prioritize urgent referral over prescribing eradication therapy for H. pylori, as the latter may delay the diagnosis of underlying pathology. By promptly referring the patient for further evaluation, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential upper GI cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom

      Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.

      Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.

      For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.

      In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 46-year-old man is a frequent visitor to surgery complaining of pruritus ani.

    You...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man is a frequent visitor to surgery complaining of pruritus ani.

      You have examined him previously and excluded organic causes. He has a love of Indian cuisine. In an attempt to help him cope with the problem, you offer advice.

      Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Briefs are preferable to boxer shorts

      Explanation:

      Tips for Managing Pruritus Ani

      Pruritus ani, or anal itching, can be a bothersome and embarrassing condition. However, there are several ways to manage it. First, it is recommended to wear cotton underwear and looser clothing to prevent irritation. Topical capsaicin in very dilute form has shown to be beneficial, but more concentrated creams may worsen the situation. Certain foods such as tomatoes, citrus fruit, and spicy foods may also exacerbate the condition. Keeping the area dry is crucial, and using a hair dryer can be an efficient way to do so. It is important to note that medication can cause a more generalized pruritus, but products such as colchicine and evening primrose oil have been linked to pruritus ani. By following these tips, individuals can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 48-year-old woman is being investigated for jaundice. She first noticed this symptom...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is being investigated for jaundice. She first noticed this symptom 2 months ago, but for 4 months previously, had been experiencing generalised pruritus. The results of liver function tests are as follows:
      Investigations:
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Serum bilirubin 325 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Aspartate aminotransaminase 55 U/l 15–42 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase 436 U/l 80–150 U/l
      Y-glutamyltransferase 82 U/l 11–51 U/
      Albumin 36 g/l 30-50 g/l
      Total protein 82 g/l 60-80 g/l
      Select from the list the single MOST LIKELY diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase Concentration

      The elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration in a patient suggests cholestatic jaundice. However, the underlying cause of this condition may vary. Alcoholic cirrhosis is a common cause, but it is unlikely in this case due to the only slightly elevated γ-glutamyltransferase. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare tumor that can cause obstructive cholestasis. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is another possible cause, which often presents with weight loss. Autoimmune liver disease is also a possibility, indicated by a high globulin concentration. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a potential diagnosis, but it is more common in men and often associated with inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, primary biliary cholangitis is more common in women. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.

      What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with symptoms of intermittent diarrhoea containing blood and mucous, tiredness and anorexia that have been present for 6 months. Stool samples have been negative for any cultures. The abdomen and rectum examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to gastroenterology

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Suspected Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      If a young person presents with rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and anorexia without an infective cause, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) should be suspected. IBD includes Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, and a definitive diagnosis is necessary for proper management. Colonoscopy and intestinal biopsies are required for diagnosis, while blood tests and fecal calprotectin may aid in the diagnosis but cannot differentiate between the two types of IBD. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is necessary for diagnostic investigations.

      An abdominal X-ray is only indicated if acute bowel obstruction is suspected, which is unlikely in this patient’s case. Blood tests may be appropriate in primary care, including FBC, inflammatory markers, renal profile, TFTs, coeliac screen, and LFTs. However, loperamide should not be prescribed in undiagnosed IBD as it can increase the risk of toxic megacolon.

      Once a confirmed diagnosis is made, referral to a dietician may be beneficial for dietary advice. A 2-week-wait referral to gastroenterology is not necessary in this patient’s case, as she is a young adult and malignancy is less likely to be the cause of her symptoms. Clinical judgement should be used, and the presence of a suspicious rectal or abdominal mass would warrant referral at any age.

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  • Question 19 - A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H....

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old woman presents to you for a medication review. She underwent H. pylori eradication treatment a year ago, but her symptoms of epigastric burning returned within a few months. She has been taking omeprazole 20 mg/day since then. She reports that her symptoms are worsening again and asks if further treatment for Helicobacter pylori would be beneficial. She has lost more than 7 lbs in weight. You urgently refer her for an upper GI endoscopy.

      What advice would you give her while waiting for the investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase her omeprazole to 40 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Importance of Stopping Acid Suppression Medication Prior to Endoscopy

      In urgent cases where endoscopy is required, it is recommended to stop acid suppression medication for at least two weeks before the procedure. This is because acid suppression medication can hide serious underlying conditions that need to be addressed. However, there may be situations where stopping the medication is difficult due to symptoms, and clinical judgement must be used.

      For instance, if a patient experiences unintentional weight loss, it is a red flag symptom for upper GI malignancy, and urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. In such cases, the benefits of stopping acid suppression medication should be weighed against the potential risks of continuing it. Ultimately, the decision should be made based on the patient’s individual circumstances and the urgency of the situation. Proper evaluation and management can help ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
      On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
      What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison

      There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.

      Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.

      In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today

      Explanation:

      Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment

      Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.

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  • Question 22 - A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

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  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: [13C] urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.

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  • Question 25 - A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test

      Overview:
      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      Colonoscopy:
      Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

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  • Question 26 - You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.

      Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection

      Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.

      If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man reports that he has noticed black tarry stools over the last 2 weeks. He has vomited a small amount of blood.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melaena can result from oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melaena: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Melaena is a medical condition characterized by black tarry stools, which is often caused by an acute upper gastrointestinal bleed. The bleeding can occur in the oesophagus, stomach, duodenum, small bowel, or right side of the colon, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause. In some cases, melaena may be the only symptom of bleeding from oesophageal varices, which are associated with portal hypertension.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention, as it can be life-threatening. Patients who are haemodynamically unstable should undergo endoscopy within 2 hours after resuscitation, while other patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. It is important to note that proton pump inhibitors should not be given before endoscopy.

      Patients who are at higher risk of complications include those aged over 60 years and those with co-morbidities. The mortality rate for patients with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding in hospital is around 10%. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention promptly if you experience symptoms of melena or haematemesis.

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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old overweight woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper-quadrant pain after eating. She drinks around 13 units of alcohol per week.
      She undergoes some blood tests:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      γ-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 90 IU/l 11–50 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 48 IU/l 4–45 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 48 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 240 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 23 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12 s 12–14.8 s
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Liver Enzyme Results: Differential Diagnosis

      When interpreting liver enzyme results, it is important to consider the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient with elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) levels:

      Gallstones: A cholestatic picture with a more significant rise in ALP and GGT over alanine transaminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST) suggests an obstructive or cholestatic condition. Accompanied by right upper-quadrant pain after eating, gallstones are the most likely diagnosis.

      Alcohol abuse: Disproportionate elevation of GGT compared to other liver enzymes may indicate alcohol abuse or alcoholic liver disease. In this case, the ALP is also elevated to the same extent as the GGT, but the patient drinks below the recommended alcohol intake per week.

      Paget’s disease: Paget’s disease may cause bone pain and elevated ALP levels. However, the accompanying rise in GGT provides a sensitive indicator of hepatobiliary disease, which is not associated with skeletal disease.

      Pancreatitis: Although raised GGT levels have been reported in pancreatic disease, the accompanying derangement of other liver enzymes suggests a liver or biliary cause.

      Viral hepatitis: A cholestatic picture with more significant rises in ALP and GGT over ALT and AST is not typical of acute hepatitis, which presents with a hepatocellular picture.

      In summary, interpreting liver enzyme results requires careful consideration of the pattern of elevation and accompanying symptoms to arrive at a differential diagnosis.

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  • Question 30 - You see a 49-year-old gentleman with a change in bowel habit. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 49-year-old gentleman with a change in bowel habit. He has had routine blood tests which were all normal. He reports no rectal bleeding. On examination, his abdomen is soft, non-tender and the rectal examination was normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway

      Explanation:

      Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer Screening

      Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who exhibit symptoms that may indicate colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. These tests are also used for routine screening. However, it is crucial to consider the criteria for suspected lower GI cancer referrals when deciding to use this test. For instance, if a patient is 60 years or older and has experienced a change in bowel habit, they should be referred using a suspected lower GI cancer pathway instead of undergoing a faecal occult blood test. Proper screening and referral protocols can help ensure timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment of colorectal cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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Gastroenterology (2/7) 29%
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