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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the customs of a community?
Your Answer: Ethnography
Explanation:Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research
Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.
Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of long-standing intermittent abdominal distension and bloating, which changes with her menstrual cycle, and is interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She works as a teacher in a busy school and finds work stressful. She has previously taken a course of fluoxetine for depression or anxiety. Examination of the abdomen is normal.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a prevalent gastrointestinal disorder affecting 10-20% of the UK population, with a higher incidence in females and those with underlying anxiety. Symptoms include abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit lasting for at least six months. Defecation may provide relief, while eating can exacerbate symptoms. Other common symptoms include lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder problems. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, as examination and investigations are typically normal.
Ulcerative colitis is a potential differential diagnosis if the patient presents with pain or blood in their stool. However, the long history of symptoms without significant systemic illness, normal examination, and links to stress/menstruation in this case suggest IBS. Normal inflammatory markers would support this diagnosis.
Chronic pancreatitis is characterized by persistent inflammation or damage, often linked to alcohol excess. The primary symptom is significant pain, which is not present in this case.
Diverticulitis is an acute presentation, with left iliac fossa pain, change in bowel habit, bleeding per rectum, and systemic illness. The chronic course, combination of symptoms, and normal examination make this diagnosis unlikely.
Peptic ulcer disease is also unlikely, as it typically causes pain linked to eating, nausea or vomiting, and is acute or progressive in nature. While stress can be a trigger, it is not the primary cause of this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation with a patient who is 60 years old and has a PSA level of 10.5 ng/ml. What would be the next course of action that the urologist is likely to suggest?
Your Answer: Staging CT scan
Correct Answer: Multiparametric MRI
Explanation:The first-line investigation for suspected prostate cancer has been replaced by multiparametric MRI, replacing TRUS biopsy. This change was made in the 2019 NICE guidelines for investigating suspected prostate cancer in secondary care.
Investigation for Prostate Cancer
Prostate cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men. The traditional investigation for suspected prostate cancer was a transrectal ultrasound-guided (TRUS) biopsy. However, recent guidelines from NICE have now recommended the increasing use of multiparametric MRI as a first-line investigation. This is because TRUS biopsy can lead to complications such as sepsis, pain, fever, haematuria, and rectal bleeding.
Multiparametric MRI is now the first-line investigation for people with suspected clinically localised prostate cancer. The results are reported using a 5-point Likert scale. If the Likert scale is 3 or higher, a multiparametric MRI-influenced prostate biopsy is offered. If the Likert scale is 1-2, then NICE recommends discussing with the patient the pros and cons of having a biopsy. This approach helps to reduce the risk of complications associated with TRUS biopsy and ensures that patients receive the most appropriate investigation for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Reassure the patient that irregular bleeding is common whilst taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and follow-up in 3 months
Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen
Explanation:Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to your clinic after cutting her hand while preparing dinner. Upon examination, you note a three inch laceration on her left hand which is cleaned and sutured. She recalls receiving a tetanus booster shot approximately 10 years ago and has received a total of five tetanus vaccines throughout her life. What is the appropriate recommendation for tetanus prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be given tetanus immunoglobulin
Explanation:Tetanus Vaccination Not Required for Low-Risk Wound
This woman’s wound is clean and low-risk, with a very low chance of being contaminated with tetanus bacteria. Fortunately, she has already received five doses of the tetanus vaccine in the past, which means she should not require any further vaccination. It is important to note that tetanus vaccination is crucial for individuals who have not received the vaccine or have not completed the recommended doses. However, in this case, the woman can rest assured that she is protected against tetanus and can focus on proper wound care to promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has reached out for a telephone consultation regarding her recent cervical smear results. She underwent the routine screening programme and is currently not experiencing any symptoms. Her last cervical smear was conducted 3 years ago and was reported as normal. She has not been vaccinated against human papillomavirus (HPV). The results of her recent test are as follows:
- High-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV): POSITIVE.
- Cytology: ABNORMAL (high-grade dyskaryosis).
What would be the next course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to colposcopy for consideration of large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ)
Explanation:The appropriate technique to treat cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN2 or CIN3) is urgent large loop excision of the transformation zone (LLETZ). This procedure is commonly performed in the same appointment or in a prompt subsequent appointment. Cryotherapy may also be an option to remove the abnormal cells. Offering the HPV vaccination is not a correct answer as it is only offered to girls and boys aged 12 to 13. A repeat cervical smear within 3 months is also not a correct answer, as it is only offered if the high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) test result is unavailable or cytology is inadequate. Routine referral to gynaecology is also not indicated, as the patient would already be followed up by the colposcopy service.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has been experiencing bloody, serous discharge from her left nostril for the past three weeks and reports that her nose feels constantly congested. The patient has a 30-year history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day and a medical history of COPD. On examination, her blood pressure is 132/72 mmHg, pulse is regular at 85 beats per minute, and she is unable to breathe through her left nostril. Laboratory results show a hemoglobin level of 120 g/L (normal range 115-160), white blood cell count of 7.0 ×109/L (normal range 4.5-10), and platelet count of 199 ×109/L (normal range 150-450). Her sodium level is 138 mmol/L (normal range 135-145), potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L (normal range 3.5-5.5), and creatinine level is 105 µmol/L (normal range 70-110). An electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ENT referral within 2 weeks
Explanation:Suspected Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
The suspicion is that the patient may have an underlying nasopharyngeal carcinoma, likely related to smoking, which is causing a blocked left nostril and bloody, serous discharge. It is important not to delay referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist by performing investigations through the GP outpatient radiology service. Imaging of the sinuses may be appropriate to determine the extent of any tumor, but this would be done as part of the pre-surgery workup rather than as outpatient GP investigations. A trial of intranasal steroids is not appropriate as a diagnosis of allergic rhinitis is unlikely, and this would waste valuable time in addressing any underlying tumor. Nasopharyngeal cancers are more common in people from southern China, including Hong Kong, Singapore, Vietnam, Malaysia, and the Philippines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You encounter a 45-year-old man who complains of a painful mouth. He reveals that he has been experiencing a mouth ulcer for about 3 weeks. It started as a small painless sore but has now grown in size and is causing him discomfort. Despite trying various mouthwashes, he has not found any relief. He is in good health and has no other symptoms. Although he is not overly concerned about the ulcer, he would like you to prescribe something to help it heal.
Upon examination, you notice a 4mm ulcer in his oral cavity, surrounded by a white plaque. There is no lymphadenopathy.
How would you approach the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently (for an appointment within 2 weeks) to ENT
Explanation:If a person has had a mouth ulcer for more than three weeks, it is important to refer them to secondary care urgently. In cases where there is unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck, a suspected cancer pathway referral should be considered for an appointment within two weeks. This is also true for patients with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity, or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia, who should be urgently referred for assessment for possible oral cancer by a dentist within two weeks. In this particular case, the patient with a solitary ulcer for more than three weeks should be seen by an ENT specialist within two weeks.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male with a 13 year history of type 1 diabetes presents with a three month history of deteriorating pain and stiffness of the right shoulder.
On examination he has some painful limitation of internal rotation and very limited painful external rotation. He can abduct the right arm to only 90 degrees. Flexion is relatively unimpaired. There is some weakness of movement of that shoulder with slight wasting of shoulder muscles. He has some reduced vibration sensation in both hands.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Frozen Shoulder
This patient presents with typical symptoms of a frozen shoulder, including global reduction in shoulder movements and slight muscle wasting due to pain and reduced use. While frozen shoulder typically results in limitations in both rotational directions and abduction, the shorter history of symptoms in this case may result in less severe signs. Additionally, the patient’s age is a factor to consider.
Brachial plexopathy, on the other hand, involves specific dermatomal loss of sensation and strength, such as wrist drop or ulnar nerve palsy, rather than the shoulder. The reduced vibration sense in both hands may indicate early stages of diabetic peripheral neuropathy, but is not directly related to the frozen shoulder diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis
Explanation:Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks
Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auscultation of the heart
Explanation:Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.
Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with type 2 diabetes is seen for review. To manage his diabetes he currently takes metformin 500 mg BD and has been doing so for over a year. His latest HbA1c is 63 mol/mol and so it is agreed to add in a second agent to better manage his glycemic control.
His eGFR is 40 mL/minute/1.73 m2.
According to the British National Formulary, which of the following should be avoided because it is ineffective as add-on therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Medication Use in Renal and Hepatic Impairment
Dapagliflozin, canagliflozin, and empagliflozin should not be initiated or continued if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 60 mL/minute/1.73m2. Gliclazide can be used in renal impairment with careful blood glucose monitoring. Pioglitazone should be avoided in hepatic impairment but can be used in renal impairment. Repaglinide can be used with caution in renal impairment. Sitagliptin can be used in renal impairment with dose adjustment based on eGFR. It is important to consider renal and hepatic function when prescribing medications for diabetes management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline
Explanation:How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.
Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.
It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.
If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.
In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What are the two components that the 'Personal Independence Payment' benefit is split into and assessed for a 59-year-old woman named Sarah who has relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis and is applying for the benefit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily living component and mobility component
Explanation:The Personal Independence Payment is a benefit for those aged 16 to 64 who have long-term ill health or disability that affects their daily living or mobility for at least 3 months and is expected to last for 9 months. The daily living component covers assistance with tasks such as eating, bathing, dressing, communication, medication management, and financial decision-making. The mobility component covers assistance with moving around and going out. There are standard and enhanced levels for each component based on the level of need. Terminally ill patients automatically receive the enhanced level of the daily living component.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with complaints of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes.
Based on the probable diagnosis, what advice would you give the patient to prevent future episodes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her three-week-old baby boy who was delivered vaginally at term without any complications. She is worried about his frequent feeding, especially in the evenings when he can nurse for hours and seems a bit more fussy than during the day. However, he has no vomiting and is producing an adequate amount of wet and dirty diapers. The mother wants to continue breastfeeding and reports that she feels comfortable during feedings with no pain. Upon examination, the baby appears well-hydrated and is not jaundiced. His temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal range for his age. There are no concerns about his weight.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer reassurance, encourage continuing to breastfeed and offer signposting to local breastfeeding team for further support
Explanation:Frequent feeding in a breastfed baby doesn’t necessarily indicate low milk supply in the mother. It is uncommon for a mother to have low milk supply, and if the baby is growing well and producing enough urine, it is a good sign that the milk supply is sufficient. In fact, frequent feeding or cluster feeding is normal in the early weeks and helps to establish a good milk supply. Breastfeeding mothers should be encouraged to seek support from local and national breastfeeding groups and consult with a trained professional to ensure proper infant positioning and latch.
There is no need to refer the baby to a pediatrician at this stage. It is not recommended to supplement breastfeeding with formula, especially in the early weeks, as this can decrease milk supply. It is important to feed the baby on demand to stimulate milk production. If milk is not removed from the breast, milk production will decrease.
While maternal prolactin deficiency is a rare cause of low milk supply, testing for it is not necessary in this scenario. If there are signs of low milk supply, such as a baby failing to thrive or becoming dehydrated, and after addressing positioning and latch issues, maternal prolactin deficiency may be considered. Factors that increase the likelihood of this condition include a history of maternal thyroid disorder, eating disorder, hypoplastic breasts, or breast surgery.
For more information on breastfeeding problems, refer to the NICE clinical knowledge summary.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on his trunk. Some of the macules have a little scale on them. He had noticed a single larger lesion that appeared a few days earlier but thought little of it. He is otherwise well.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Pityriasis Rosea, Guttate Psoriasis, Drug Eruption, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Viral Exanthema
Pityriasis rosea is characterized by a larger herald patch followed by a rash on the trunk with pink macules and fine scale. The rash will resolve on its own in 6-12 weeks, but emollients or steroid treatments can help relieve itch. Guttate psoriasis typically presents with small lesions preceded by a sore throat, which is not seen in this scenario. Drug eruption causes a maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and moves to the extremities, but there is no mention of medication in this case. Pityriasis versicolor causes large macules with fine scale on the trunk, which can become confluent, but this is not seen here. A viral exanthem is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever or malaise, which are absent in this case. Knowing the distinguishing features of these skin conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. You order immediate blood tests and the results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 85 g/L
White blood cells 2.5 x 10^9/L
Platelets 17 x 10^9/L
Abnormal clotting
Blood smear shows bilobed large mononuclear cells
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:The image depicts bone marrow failure caused by acute myeloid leukemia, which occurs when abnormal white blood cells accumulate in the bone marrow, replacing normal blood cells. This type of leukemia is more common in individuals over the age of 45, whereas acute lymphoblastic leukemia is mostly seen in children. Unlike lymphoma, which typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes, acute myeloid leukemia can lead to bone marrow failure. Von Willebrand’s disease may cause severe cases of epistaxis and bleeding gums, but abnormalities in blood test results are rare.
Acute myeloid leukaemia is a prevalent form of acute leukaemia in adults that can occur as a primary disease or as a result of a myeloproliferative disorder. The condition is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can lead to anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include being over 60 years old, having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemotherapy, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7.
Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia that is associated with t(15;17) and the fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes. This type of leukaemia typically presents at a younger age than other types of AML, with an average age of 25 years old. Auer rods, which are visible with myeloperoxidase stain, are often present, and patients may experience DIC or thrombocytopenia at presentation. However, the prognosis for acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is generally good.
The French-American-British (FAB) classification system categorizes acute myeloid leukaemia into seven subtypes based on the degree of maturation of the cells: MO (undifferentiated), M1 (without maturation), M2 (with granulocytic maturation), M3 (acute promyelocytic), M4 (granulocytic and monocytic maturation), M5 (monocytic), M6 (erythroleukaemia), and M7 (megakaryoblastic).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with periodic spontaneous attacks of vertigo, nausea, tinnitus and reduced hearing in the left ear. She has had these attacks for the last 1-2 years. She has a feeling of aural fullness and discomfort in the left ear in advance of an attack which persists during an attack. Attacks can last up to 2-3 hours each time and occur in clusters over a few weeks. After an attack she feels worn out for a day or two and slightly unsteady.
When seen she is asymptomatic and head and neck examination is normal. No current hearing impairment is reported or apparent.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management approach?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist
Explanation:Meniere’s Disease: Symptoms and Diagnosis
This patient is presenting with symptoms consistent with Meniere’s disease, including episodic spontaneous vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and aural fullness. Meniere’s disease is characterized by acute attacks lasting a few hours, occurring in clusters, and followed by periods of remission. While there are no specific diagnostic tests for the condition, audiometric testing can be helpful in demonstrating sensorineural low-to-mid frequency hearing loss. Referral to ENT services is recommended to confirm the diagnosis.
Brandt-Daroff exercises are not recommended for managing Meniere’s disease, as they are used for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo. An MRI brain scan would not be an appropriate next step in primary care based on this presentation. While audiometric assessment can be useful, it is not the best option as ENT services can arrange any necessary testing and appropriately investigate the condition. Attacks in Meniere’s disease typically settle within 24 hours, and prolonged attacks should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Referral to ENT services can provide support and input on a multidisciplinary level, which can be key if worsening symptoms, such as persistent hearing impairment, develop over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.
What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age
Explanation:Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions
Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.
On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ºC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis
Explanation:Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.
Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.
Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.
Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)
Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.
The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.
It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student nurse has come to you feeling depressed. She has had a number of health related problems in the recent past and feels that they may be a contributing factor because she has taken a lot of sick leave and now has to meet with the head of human resources.
She suffers from asthma, thyroid disease and acne. She thinks that one of her medicines may be contributing to her depression.
Which of the following is most likely to cause depression?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Medications and Depression
Depression caused by medication is not a common occurrence. However, certain medications have been linked to depression. These include isotretinoin, lipid soluble beta blockers like propranolol, methyldopa, and opioid analgesics. Steroids have been associated with mania, but levothyroxine treatment doesn’t cause depression. Antihistamines are rarely linked to depression. Out of the medications listed, isotretinoin is the most likely to cause depression. It is important to discuss any concerns about medication and mental health with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.
What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain
Explanation:The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.
When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.
It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.
To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.
Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.
There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.
In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman complains of infrequent periods, weight loss, tremor and sweating. She feels her symptoms gradually have worsened over several months. On examination she has a normal blood pressure and resting pulse of 100.
Select the following investigation that is the most appropriate in this patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSH and T4 levels
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which often includes menstrual irregularity or amenorrhoea. Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalaemia due to disturbances in aldosterone and renin levels. Phaeochromocytoma, on the other hand, is associated with elevated urinary catecholamines and typically presents with intermittent symptoms such as headache, sweating, tremor, palpitations, and paroxysmal hypertension. Pituitary failure, which may be caused by a pituitary adenoma or pituitary apoplexy, can result in hypothyroidism as part of panhypopituitarism and is best diagnosed with MRI scanning. While anaemia (full blood count and ferritin) can cause tachycardia, it is unlikely to cause tremor and weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.
Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations
Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.
It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her doctor with jaundice, anorexia, nausea, and mild tenderness in the right upper abdomen. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and feeling ill. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Liver Disorders During Pregnancy: Causes and Consequences
During pregnancy, the liver can be affected by various disorders that can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy:
1. Viral Hepatitis: Hepatitis B is the most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy, especially in developing countries. While most viral hepatitis infections are not affected by pregnancy, hepatitis E can be fatal for pregnant women.
2. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy: This rare disorder can progress to liver failure and usually occurs late in pregnancy. Early delivery can lead to complete recovery.
3. Gallstones: This is the second most common abdominal emergency in pregnant women and can cause severe pain in the right upper quadrant.
4. Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: This disorder is characterized by itching and elevated serum bile acids and can lead to serious complications for the fetus, including stillbirth.
5. Pre-eclamptic Liver Disease and HELLP Syndrome: Jaundice may occur in 3-10% of pre-eclamptic pregnancies, and prompt delivery is the most effective treatment for HELLP syndrome.
It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these liver disorders and to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent serious complications for both the mother and the fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents with sudden difficulty breathing and a known history of asthma. You are evaluating the severity of his asthma attack and suspect it may be classified as acute severe. What is a characteristic of this classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to complete full sentences
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP to inquire about screening for haemochromatosis, as his brother was diagnosed with the condition 3 years ago. The patient is asymptomatic and appears to have no signs of haemochromatosis. What is the most suitable test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HFE gene analysis
Explanation:When screening for haemochromatosis, the general population should undergo a transferrin saturation test, which involves checking the level of iron in the blood compared to the amount of transferrin. However, if the patient has a family member with haemochromatosis, the most appropriate test would be a genetic analysis of the HFE gene. In practice, this would be done in conjunction with iron studies.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with acute urinary retention. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Causes of Urinary Retention: Understanding the Common Triggers
Urinary retention is a condition that affects many people, and it can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause of urinary retention is benign prostatic hyperplasia, which accounts for over half of all cases. Prostate cancer is another potential cause, although it is less common, accounting for only 13% of cases.
In addition to these conditions, drugs can also cause urinary retention in some cases. Anticholinergics, antihistamines, calcium channel blockers, nasal decongestants, opioids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents, benzodiazepines, and alcohol are all potential culprits. Spinal cord compression, such as intervertebral disc lesions and spinal tumors, can also lead to urinary retention, although this is a less common cause.
Finally, acute urinary retention is often seen after surgery. This can be due to pain from traumatic instrumentation, bladder overdistension, or drugs. Understanding the various causes of urinary retention can help individuals and healthcare providers identify potential triggers and develop effective treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who was discharged from hospital 4 weeks ago following a hip replacement surgery. Her GP last saw her during a home visit 3 days after discharge. She had been regularly seen by the district nurse since then. Unfortunately, she had declined significantly since her hospital admission and was found dead by her daughter this morning.
What is the appropriate course of action for the GP regarding Sophie's death certificate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not examined the deceased within 28 days prior to their death, the case must be referred to the coroner. This time frame was extended from 14 days due to the COVID pandemic.
While it may be appropriate to list myocardial infarction as the cause of death in section 1a, the GP is not authorized to issue the death certificate in such cases. It is generally not recommended to cite old age as the cause of death.
Only a medical practitioner who is registered can complete a death certificate.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.
Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otitis media
Explanation:Benefits of Breastfeeding
Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.
Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.
Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful throat. She has been experiencing a sore throat and painful swallowing for the past few days, but her symptoms have worsened over the last 24 hours. She now has neck pain and difficulty opening her mouth fully.
Upon examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her throat shows a displaced uvula, an enlarged right tonsil, and swelling around the right tonsil.
What is the best initial management strategy for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission
Explanation:Peritonsillar Abscess: A Serious Complication of Sore Throat
When evaluating a patient with a sore throat, it is crucial for clinicians to be aware of any potential serious causes or complications. One such condition is a peritonsillar abscess, which requires hospital admission and immediate treatment.
A peritonsillar abscess can lead to airway obstruction, deeper spread of infection, and abscess rupture. Therefore, it is important to check for clinical features such as difficulty swallowing, fever, and severe throat pain.
The initial management for a peritonsillar abscess is to arrange hospital admission. Once admitted, the patient can receive inpatient treatment in a safe environment with immediate care and monitoring. Treatment typically involves aspiration or drainage of the abscess, along with antibiotic use and pain relief.
In summary, a peritonsillar abscess is a serious complication of sore throat that requires prompt recognition and management. Hospital admission is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.
As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture
Explanation:Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer
Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 3 days history of dysuria accompanied by urinary frequency and urgency. He reports pain in the suprapubic region but denies having fevers or chills. He has not experienced any loss of weight or appetite. There are no known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases.
Upon examination, his vital signs are normal and the abdomen is soft with no palpable mass. However, the suprapubic region is tender upon palpation. The patient is suspected to have acute cystitis and a midstream urine sample is obtained for culture and susceptibility testing.
What is the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allow him to go home on oral antibiotics according to local guidelines for 7 days
Explanation:Men with lower UTI should be offered an immediate antibiotic prescription, unlike women who are not pregnant who may be given a backup antibiotic prescription. UTIs in men are considered complicated and require at least 7 days of antibiotic therapy. Pregnant women and men with lower UTI should be given an immediate antibiotic prescription, taking into account previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as previous antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. The choice of antibiotic should be reviewed when microbiological results are available. The patient doesn’t need to be admitted or referred at this time as he is clinically well and has no underlying condition. Women with lower UTI who are not pregnant may be considered for a back-up antibiotic prescription if symptoms do not improve within 48 hours or worsen at any time.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.
Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotional lability
Explanation:Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia
Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.
On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You admit a woman who is 32 weeks pregnant to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 160/92 mmHg. What antihypertensive medication is most likely to be prescribed for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, age over 40, high BMI, family history of pre-eclampsia, and multiple pregnancy. To reduce the risk of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, women with high or moderate risk factors should take aspirin daily. Management involves emergency assessment, admission for severe cases, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 40
Incorrect
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On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.
Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia
It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.
NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Finger clubbing
Explanation:Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations
Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male visits his GP 3 weeks after a car accident, worried about experiencing heightened anxiety, fatigue, and headaches. He had undergone a CT scan of his brain immediately after the incident, which showed no anomalies. After 6 months, his symptoms have disappeared. What was the probable cause of his initial symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post-concussion syndrome
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder typically has a delayed onset of symptoms and a protracted course.
Understanding Post-Concussion Syndrome
Post-concussion syndrome is a condition that can occur after a person experiences even a minor head injury. It is characterized by a range of symptoms that can persist for weeks or even months after the initial injury. The most common symptoms of post-concussion syndrome include headaches, fatigue, anxiety or depression, and dizziness.
Individuals who experience post-concussion syndrome may find that their symptoms interfere with their daily activities and quality of life. They may struggle to concentrate or remember things, and they may feel irritable or moody. In some cases, post-concussion syndrome can also cause sleep disturbances or sensitivity to light and noise.
While the exact cause of post-concussion syndrome is not fully understood, it is believed to be related to changes in brain function that occur after a head injury. Treatment for post-concussion syndrome may involve a combination of medications, therapy, and lifestyle changes to manage symptoms and promote healing. With proper care, many people with post-concussion syndrome are able to recover fully and return to their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner three weeks after an Eastern Mediterranean holiday with her family, during which they ate out a lot. She complains of malaise, lack of appetite, jaundice and dark urine. She thinks she was febrile at the start, but the fever subsided once the jaundice appeared. On examination, she has a palpable liver and is tender in the right upper quadrant.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 132 µmol /l < 21 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 4104 IU/l < 40 IU/l
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 3476 U/l < 33 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 184 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flu-like Symptoms and Jaundice
Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable infection commonly acquired during travel. It spreads through contaminated food and presents with flu-like symptoms followed by jaundice and dark urine. Biliary colic may cause right upper quadrant pain but is unlikely to cause fever or significantly raised liver transaminase levels. Hepatitis B is transmitted through sexual contact, needle sharing, blood transfusions, organ transplantation, or from mother to child during delivery. Pancreatic carcinoma presents with weight loss, obstructive jaundice, mid-epigastric or back pain, and disproportionately raised alkaline phosphatases levels. Salmonella enteritidis causes food poisoning with diarrhea, fever, and colicky abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.
What is the most probable reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge
Explanation:Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women
This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.
In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.
It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male presents with sudden loss of vision in his left eye, associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect.
He has poorly controlled systemic hypertension and raised cholesterol.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion
Explanation:Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam
When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it can be easy to feel overwhelmed and unsure of how to proceed. However, there are strategies you can use to help narrow down your options and improve your chances of selecting the correct answer.
One approach is to look for key information in the question stem, such as the presence of certain risk factors or the sudden onset of symptoms. By considering which answer option is most likely given this information, you can eliminate some of the less plausible choices.
It’s important to remember that you won’t know the answer to every question in the exam, and that’s okay. By using these strategies and taking a methodical approach, you can increase your hit rate and feel more confident in your overall performance.
To see an example of this approach in action, check out the Endgames scenario on sudden unilateral painless loss of vision in the BMJ article linked above. With practice and preparation, you can tackle even the trickiest questions on the AKT exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Substance Abuse
Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.
When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.
While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who has had asthma since childhood is seen in the asthma clinic. His asthma has been poorly controlled over the last two years and he has seen a number of different practitioners. In an attempt to gain control over his asthma, his inhaled steroids have been increased on several occasions and he has had several prolonged courses of oral steroids. He comments that he has put on a lot of weight over the last four years and bruises easily. He finds that he is tired all the time and finds it difficult to get out of a chair. On examination, he has purple striae over his abdomen and urinalysis is positive to glucose.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cushing syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Cushing Syndrome and its Differential Diagnosis
Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by excessive levels of cortisol in the body. It can be caused by prolonged use of oral corticosteroids or, in rare cases, by a tumor in the adrenal gland. Patients with Cushing syndrome may present with symptoms such as weight gain, moon face, buffalo hump, easy bruising, and thinning of the skin.
It is important to differentiate Cushing syndrome from other conditions with similar symptoms. Addison’s disease, for example, is caused by adrenal failure and presents with weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. Conn syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by hypertension and hypokalemia due to excess aldosterone secretion from an adrenal adenoma.
Diabetes mellitus is a common complication of Cushing syndrome, as it can impair glucose metabolism. Hypothyroidism, while also causing fatigue and weight gain, doesn’t typically present with striae or glycosuria.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose Cushing syndrome and differentiate it from other conditions with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner (GP) reporting discomfort and swelling in his ankles, and was prescribed Drug X alongside his current medication. After two weeks, he experiences nausea, diarrhoea, and reports seeing yellow. What is the probable identity of Drug X?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Medications and their interactions in a case of digoxin toxicity
Digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that can present with gastrointestinal upset, changes to vision, hypokalaemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. Co-prescribing of a thiazide or loop diuretic can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity by reducing potassium levels. Other risk factors for digoxin toxicity include age, poor renal function, and calcium-channel blockers.
Amiodarone can be used in atrial fibrillation but should only be prescribed in secondary care and would not be prescribed for the ankle swelling that may have led to the digoxin prescription. Propranolol and sotalol do not interact with digoxin and would not have caused the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Warfarin doesn’t interact with digoxin and would not be prescribed to treat the original symptoms of ankle swelling. It is important to consider medication interactions and risk factors when prescribing medications to avoid adverse effects such as digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a headache that woke her up from sleep this morning and blurred vision. She reports experiencing similar headaches with nausea and vomiting for the past two years, which have not responded to over-the-counter medications. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication.
During the examination, her vital signs are stable, and her neurological examination is unremarkable. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:If a young, obese female complains of headaches, blurred vision, and nausea/vomiting, it is likely that she is suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension. This condition may cause symptoms to improve during the day when the patient is upright, but worsen when they bend down.
While acute angle glaucoma can also cause headaches and blurred vision, it typically presents with unilateral eye pain and abnormal pupillary reflexes on neurological examination.
Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis is less likely as a cause of the patient’s symptoms, as it typically presents with headache as the primary symptom, along with focal or generalized neurological features such as seizures. Risk factors for clot formation should be considered in the patient’s history.
Although migraines are a common cause of recurrent headaches, the patient’s high BMI and generalized nature of the headache, along with the positional element, suggest idiopathic intracranial hypertension as the most likely cause.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic with a complaint of amenorrhea for the past eight months. She reports weight gain and decreased libido during this time and has noticed milk production from her breasts. Her last sexual encounter was about seven months ago. On examination, vital signs are normal, and there are no abnormalities on abdominal examination. Galactorrhea is confirmed on expression. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Signs and Symptoms of Hyperprolactinaemia
This patient is presenting with several signs and symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia, including weight gain, loss of libido, menstrual disturbance, and galactorrhoea. While conditions such as PCOS, depression, and Cushing’s can cause weight gain and menstrual changes, galactorrhoea is only associated with pregnancy, prolactinoma, certain medications, and hypothyroidism.
It is important to note that the patient’s normal abdominal examination after ten months of amenorrhea, with her last sexual encounter occurring nine months prior, rules out pregnancy as a potential cause for her symptoms. Further investigation and testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of her hyperprolactinaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to you seeking contraception. She is eager to begin immediately as she has no desire to conceive. Her last instance of unprotected sexual intercourse was five days ago. She has a history of migraines with aura. After assessment, you determine that the progesterone-only pill would be the most suitable option. What guidance should you provide regarding the commencement of her pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can start contraception straight away, as long as she is aware that there is a possibility of pregnancy
Explanation:Starting Contraception: Important Considerations
When starting contraception, it is important for the clinician to ensure that the woman is likely to continue to be at risk of pregnancy or has expressed a preference to begin contraception immediately. Additionally, the woman should be aware that she may be pregnant and that there are theoretical risks from contraceptive exposure to the fetus, although evidence indicates no harm. It is also important to note that pregnancy can only be excluded once a pregnancy test is negative at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the woman should be advised to carry out a pregnancy test at least three weeks after the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse and advised on additional contraception. While a negative pregnancy test is not required before starting contraception, the clinician should be reasonably sure that the woman is not pregnant or at risk of pregnancy. It is important to keep in mind that this practice may be outside the product licence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
Which of the following complications of sickle cell disease in a boy of this age most likely to experience?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Priapism
Explanation:Sickle cell disease can cause priapism, a painful and persistent erection that occurs without sexual stimulation. This is due to vaso-occlusive obstruction of the venous drainage of the penis and is most common in males with sickle cell disease under the age of 20. Priapism can be classified as prolonged or stuttering, with prolonged episodes requiring urgent medical intervention and both types potentially leading to impotence. Sickle cell disease also increases susceptibility to infection, particularly from Streptococcus pneumoniae, and can cause hand-foot syndrome in infants due to vaso-occlusion. Acute stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, with a prevalence of 10% by age 50, and regular blood transfusions may be necessary for those with abnormal findings on transcranial Doppler ultrasonography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman developed sudden-onset severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. She has diminished bowel sounds exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and guarding. Her pulse is 110 and BP 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea but last took it the day before the pain began.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:NSAIDs and Peptic Ulceration: Risks and Symptoms
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are a common cause of gastric and duodenal ulceration, second only to Helicobacter pylori. The inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) by NSAIDs reduces the production of gastric mucosal prostaglandins, leading to decreased cytoprotection. This can result in peptic ulceration, with at least one-third to one-half of ulcer perforations being associated with NSAIDs.
Patients at high risk of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration include the elderly, those with a history of peptic ulcer disease, and those with serious co-morbidities such as cardiovascular disease, diabetes, renal or hepatic impairment. The risk varies between individual NSAIDs and is also dose-related.
Symptoms of acute complications of NSAID-induced peptic ulceration can include peritonitis, which requires urgent surgical referral. Acute pancreatitis may present with similar symptoms, but tenderness may be less and there may be a history of Gallbladder disease or alcohol abuse. Gastritis typically doesn’t involve altered bowel sounds or signs of peritoneal irritation, while cholecystitis and appendicitis present with tenderness in the right upper quadrant and right iliac fossa, respectively.
In summary, NSAIDs can pose a significant risk for peptic ulceration, particularly in high-risk patients. It is important to be aware of the symptoms of acute complications and to promptly refer patients for appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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You have recommended a patient in their 60s to purchase vitamin D over-the-counter at a dose of 800 units. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the equivalent dose in micrograms since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
Which of the following is equal to 800 units of vitamin D?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 mcg
Explanation:Converting Vitamin D Units to Micrograms
Many CCG pathways recommend taking vitamin D supplements in units, but the packaging of many vitamin D suppliers lists the dose in micrograms. To convert units to micrograms for vitamin D, simply divide by 40. For example, 400 units of vitamin D is equivalent to 10 micrograms. Remember to check the packaging for the correct dosage and always consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new supplement regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in a specific ethnic population that is larger than that of the general population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard deviation
Explanation:Understanding Standard Deviation
Standard deviation is a statistical measure that helps to determine the spread of observations around the mean. It is calculated by finding the deviation of each observation from the mean value, squaring each value, summing them up, and dividing the total by the number of observations minus one. The standard deviation is then obtained by taking the square root of this value. In essence, standard deviation provides a measure of how much the observations deviate from the mean, and it is a useful tool for analyzing data in various fields, including finance, science, and engineering. By understanding standard deviation, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the variability of data and make informed decisions based on their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 59
Incorrect
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You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer
Explanation:The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.
While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A carer calls you to see a 70-year-old lady and says There is a pressure sore down below which is not getting better. There is an associated itch and occasionally she sees blood spots on her underwear.
She has been using over-the-counter antifungal creams from the chemist for the last six weeks but it is not helping. On examination there is a shallow ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, on the labia majora. The rest of the examination is normal.
How would you manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Unexplained Vulval Lump or Non-Responsive Ulceration
Any woman who discovers a new, unexplained lump or experiences ulceration that doesn’t respond to treatment should be referred urgently. It is important to note that the term pressure sore should be used with caution, as it may not accurately describe the condition.
If the ulcer appears to be caused by thrush, fluconazole may be considered. However, if the ulcer doesn’t arise from typical intertriginous areas and lacks satellite lesions or white discharge, a fungal infection is unlikely.
While primary syphilis can cause a solitary painless genital ulcer, it tends to resolve within four to eight weeks. Therefore, it is unlikely that this would be the first presentation of a lady with primary syphilis.
If the condition is suspected to be a pressure ulcer on the sacrum or another pressure point, a tissue viability nurse may be consulted. However, based on the given history, this seems unlikely. Referring to dermatology is not appropriate for a strongly suspected case of vulval carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for a 4-year-old child with eczema on both lower legs (excluding the feet) for a two-week period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 g
Explanation:How to Apply Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are medications that are applied to the skin to treat various skin conditions. It is important to spread the cream or ointment thinly on the affected area, but enough to cover it completely. To determine the right amount to use, the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu). One ftu is approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g, which is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand.
When applying to a child’s lower legs, two ftus or 1 g per daily dose is recommended. To treat both lower legs for two weeks, a prescription for 15g is required. It is important to start with the lowest effective dose and apply once daily. Only if there is no improvement should the treatment be increased to twice daily. By following these guidelines, topical corticosteroids can be used safely and effectively to treat skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 62
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream
Explanation:Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.
Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.
To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.
Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.
What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Explanation:Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient presents with Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the most indicative factor of an underlying connective tissue disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent miscarriages
Explanation:Bilateral symptoms in young women may indicate primary Raynaud’s disease. Recurrent miscarriages may be a sign of systemic lupus erythematous or anti-phospholipid syndrome. Chilblains, which are painful and itchy purple swellings on the fingers and toes after exposure to cold, are sometimes linked to underlying connective tissue disease, although this is uncommon.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in for surgery. Her mother reports that her stools have always been firm and for the past two weeks, she has been taking a combination of lactulose (10ml bd) and senna (2 tablets od) prescribed by a colleague. However, she is still only passing a hard stool every 2-3 days. The clinical examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch the lactulose for a macrogol (Movicol Paediatric Plain)
Explanation:Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.
What should be the next course of action in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.
Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.
Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.
Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 67
Incorrect
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You have diagnosed measles in a 7-year-old child who did not receive the MMR vaccine when younger.
The child's father has called the clinic to inquire about when his child can return to school because he needs to plan for childcare arrangements and it is affecting his work schedule.
What is the recommended duration for a measles case to stay away from school or work?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 days after the onset of the rash
Explanation:Measles Exclusion Guidelines for Schools and Workplaces
Measles is a highly infectious disease that spreads through airborne or droplet transmission. To prevent the spread of the disease, individuals who have contracted measles should be excluded from school or work for four days after the onset of the rash. This exclusion period is outlined in the infection control guidelines published by Public Health England for schools and other childcare settings.
It is important to note that individuals are infectious from the beginning of the prodromal period, when the first symptoms appear, until four days after the onset of the rash. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the exclusion guidelines to prevent the spread of measles in schools and workplaces. By doing so, we can protect the health and well-being of everyone in the community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 68
Incorrect
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What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement
Explanation:NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis
Explanation:Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage
Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.
The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.
Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.
It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman complains of a continuous watery left eye that has been bothering her for the last 4 days. Upon examination, there is redness and puffiness in the inner corner of her left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dacryocystitis
Explanation:Lacrimal Duct Problems: Dacryocystitis and Congenital Obstruction
Lacrimal duct problems can manifest in two ways: dacryocystitis and congenital obstruction. Dacryocystitis is an infection of the lacrimal sac that causes a watering eye (epiphora) and swelling and redness at the inner corner of the eye. Treatment involves systemic antibiotics, and intravenous antibiotics may be necessary if there is associated periorbital cellulitis.
On the other hand, congenital lacrimal duct obstruction affects 5-10% of newborns and is bilateral in 20% of cases. It causes a watering eye, even when the baby is not crying, and may lead to secondary infections. However, in 99% of cases, symptoms resolve by the time the baby reaches 12 months of age.
It is important to identify and manage lacrimal duct problems promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A man of 45 years is concerned about his family history of ischaemic heart disease. His father was a non-smoker and passed away due to a myocardial infarction at the age of 44 years. His paternal grandfather and a paternal uncle both suffered from myocardial infarcts in their forties.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Inherited Cardiovascular Conditions: Understanding the Genetics Behind Familial Hypercholesterolaemia, Haemochromatosis, Factor V Leiden Mutation, Homocystinuria, and Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy
Inherited cardiovascular conditions can significantly increase the risk of heart disease and other related health issues. Here are some key genetic factors to consider:
Familial hypercholesterolaemia affects approximately 1 in 500 people and is linked to a higher risk of cardiovascular disease. If a first-degree relative has died before the age of 60, measuring serum cholesterol is recommended.
Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that leads to excess iron accumulation in the liver and other tissues. While it is not associated with increased ischaemic heart disease, it may cause cardiomyopathy.
Factor V Leiden mutation is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and affects clotting factor V. People with this mutation have an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.
Homocystinuria is a rare autosomal-recessive inborn error of methionine metabolism. While elevated plasma homocysteine levels are associated with ischaemic heart disease, it is less likely to be responsible for a strong family history compared to familial hypercholesterolaemia. Individuals with homocystinuria may have a marfanoid habitus and downward lens dislocation.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and may cause sudden death at a young age due to arrhythmia or left ventricular outlet obstruction. While heart muscle is abnormal, it is not due to ischaemia. It is important to note that myocardial infarctions are not typically associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is a frequent attender with abdominal pain that has been extensively investigated and no cause found. He still finds the symptoms very distressing. They are the focus of his attention and he says they are restricting normal activities; he also fears he may have bowel cancer.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Understanding Somatic Symptom Disorder and its Distinctions from Other Conditions
Somatic symptom disorder (SSD) is a condition characterized by distressing somatic symptoms and excessive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors related to those symptoms. These symptoms must persist for at least six months to be diagnosed with SSD. In contrast, illness anxiety disorder is a preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious illness without significant somatic symptoms. Colon cancer is unlikely in this patient as extensive investigations have found no cause. Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by anxiety about a variety of things, while this patient’s focus is on his abdominal pain and fears of bowel cancer. Irritable bowel syndrome causes abdominal pain, diarrhea, and constipation, but the patient’s symptoms and concerns are more consistent with somatic symptom disorder. Understanding the distinctions between these conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 73
Incorrect
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As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion
Explanation:No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.
The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.
While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents with weight loss and is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is prescribed carbimazole but after 2 weeks reports gradual visual blurring. Her corrected visual acuities are 6/12 in both eyes and she experiences color vision impairment in both eyes. Mild proptosis is observed but her pupillary reactions are normal.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic nerve compression
Explanation:Understanding Thyroid Eye Disease: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options
Thyroid eye disease (TED) is an autoimmune disease that affects the eyes and can be both sight-threatening and disfiguring. The disease has an active inflammatory phase followed by an inactive fibrotic phase. Symptoms include eye irritation, ache behind the eye, red eyes, and diplopia. Exophthalmos may develop, but it doesn’t always correlate with disease severity. In some cases, patients with minimal exophthalmos are at high risk of optic nerve compression. If the optic nerve is compressed, visual loss can occur, and urgent referral is necessary. Medical management is only available in the active, early phase, and surgery is the only option when the disease becomes inactive. For severe sight-threatening disease, orbital-decompression surgery and intravenous corticosteroids are necessary. Embolic phenomena, optic nerve infiltration, and ophthalmic side-effects of carbimazole are not associated with TED. Optic atrophy is irreversible and takes several weeks to develop. Early referral is appropriate when TED is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman suffered a whiplash injury to her neck six weeks ago when her car was struck from behind by another vehicle. She has just had a private assessment by an orthopaedic surgeon because she is pursuing a compensation claim. He has told her to come to see you to get some better treatment for her persisting neck pain. She says that until now she has been self-medicating with paracetamol with only limited benefit. She denies any symptoms of anxiety or depression.
Which of the following is the most appropriate INITIAL management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
Whiplash is a common injury that can cause pain and discomfort in the neck and shoulders. If a patient has already been taking paracetamol for their symptoms, the addition of Ibuprofen or other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be the next logical step. In some cases, patients may need to take both drugs regularly. Codeine is another alternative that can be added to paracetamol or ibuprofen.
It’s important to encourage patients to return to their normal activities as soon as possible. Physiotherapy can be helpful, but it’s most effective when started soon after the injury occurs. For those with late whiplash syndrome who don’t respond well to full-dose analgesics, a trial of amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin for one month may be helpful.
Keeping a pain diary can be useful, but it’s important to focus on function and abilities rather than pain and disability. Referral to a pain clinic is recommended at an early stage for chronic symptoms. Finally, behaviors that promote disability and enhance expectations of a poor outcome and chronic disability (such as wearing a collar) should be discouraged.
Managing Whiplash Symptoms: Treatment Options and Recommendations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with complaints of leg pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, and is a smoker of 20 cigarettes a day.
He reports experiencing pain in his right calf after walking about 50 yards, which occurs every time he walks. The pain subsides when he stops and sits down, but returns upon further walking. He denies any pain at rest and has only experienced symptoms while walking.
Upon examination, no pulses can be palpated in the right foot, but there is no evidence of acute ischaemia. Femoral and popliteal pulses are present, and capillary refill time in the right foot is three to four seconds. There are no ulcers or tissue loss affecting the feet. The patient is otherwise well, with a blood pressure of 154/92 mmHg and a regular pulse rate of 72 bpm.
In addition to referring the patient for ankle-brachial pressure index measurements to confirm the clinical diagnosis, what other assessments should be performed as part of his primary care evaluation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Peripheral Arterial Disease Assessment in Primary Care
This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of peripheral arterial disease, specifically intermittent claudication. It is important to note that peripheral arterial disease increases the risk of arteriopathy in other parts of the body, such as the heart and kidneys. Therefore, a full cardiovascular risk factor assessment should be conducted on diagnosis, with key risk factors addressed as relevant.
In primary care, ankle brachial pressure index should be measured in all patients suspected of having peripheral arterial disease, along with an examination of peripheral pulses and palpation of the abdomen to check for the presence of an aortic aneurysm. It is important to note that the presence of peripheral vascular disease significantly increases the risk of aortic aneurysm.
Contrast studies are not typically conducted as part of a primary care assessment. Instead, the focus should be on managing lower limb symptoms and addressing cardiovascular risk factors. By doing so, primary care providers can help reduce the risk of complications and improve overall patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male is referred to you from the practice nurse after an ECG shows he is in atrial fibrillation.
When you take a history from him he complains of palpitations and he has also noticed some weight loss over the last two months. On examination, he has an irregularly irregular pulse and displays a fine tremor.
What is the next most appropriate investigation to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exercise tolerance test
Explanation:Assessing Patients with Atrial Fibrillation
When assessing patients with atrial fibrillation, it is crucial to identify any underlying causes. While some cases may be classified as lone AF, addressing any precipitating factors is the first step in treatment. Hyperthyroidism is a common cause of atrial fibrillation, and checking thyroid function tests is the next appropriate step in diagnosis. Other common causes include heart failure, myocardial infarction/ischemia, mitral valve disease, pneumonia, and alcoholism. Rarer causes include pericarditis, endocarditis, cardiomyopathy, sarcoidosis, and hemochromatosis.
For paroxysmal arrhythmias, a 24-hour ECG can be useful, but in cases of persistent atrial fibrillation, an ECG is not necessary. Exercise tolerance tests are used to investigate and risk-stratify patients with cardiac chest pain. While an echocardiogram is useful in patients with atrial fibrillation to look for valve disease and other structural abnormalities, it is not the next most appropriate investigation in this case. Overall, identifying the underlying cause of atrial fibrillation is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A mother with a toddler on the list for his first MMR vaccination comes to the clinic for advice. She has some concerns, as there is a history of asthma in the family and her other child suffered from febrile fits. She is considering trying the three single vaccines.
Which one of the following is true regarding the MMR?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be given at the age of 12-15 months
Explanation:MMR Vaccination and Immunoglobulin Therapy
The MMR vaccination is not recommended for individuals with a history of anaphylaxis, concurrent febrile illness, neomycin and gelatin allergy. However, a family history of atopy is not relevant. The MMR vaccine is typically administered at around one year of age in the NHS vaccination schedule and there is no benefit in giving separate vaccines for measles, mumps, and rubella. It is important to note that the MMR vaccine contains live attenuated strains of these viruses, while vaccines for diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus are killed vaccines.
In regards to immunoglobulin therapy, there is no indication for children with epilepsy. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate course of treatment for any medical condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old gentleman, with mild dementia and known alcohol excess, has been seeing his GP regularly for low mood after his wife passed away recently.
On a routine review, he is noted to be more confused than usual.
On examination, he is noted to be underweight, ataxic, and has a nystagmus. Cranial nerve examination is otherwise unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to on-call medical team
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Medical Emergency
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention. Patients with new onset confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma should be considered for this diagnosis. It is important to note that increased confusion may be mistaken for worsening dementia, highlighting the significance of a thorough examination.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome, making prompt treatment essential. Oral thiamine can be administered following initial intravenous treatment.
It is important to note that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil, have no role in the acute deterioration of cognition. Additionally, a posterior circulation stroke must also be considered, which is why the medical team would be the most appropriate referral initially.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a history of bipolar disorder. She is brought by her husband who is concerned that she is entering a manic phase.
Select from the list the single feature that would NOT suggest a diagnosis of mania.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of interest in pleasurable activities
Explanation:Understanding Mania and Hypomania in Bipolar Disorder
Mania and hypomania are two terms used to describe the elevated mood states experienced by individuals with bipolar disorder. Mania is a more severe form of elevated mood, often accompanied by psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania without psychotic symptoms.
To diagnose mania, at least three of the following symptoms must be present: inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, rapid and emphatic speech, flight of ideas, distractibility, psychomotor agitation, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities without regard for consequences.
It’s important to note that nearly all cases of mania will eventually lead to episodes of depression, which is why bipolar disorder is often grouped with mania. Understanding the symptoms of mania and hypomania can help individuals with bipolar disorder and their loved ones recognize when they may need to seek professional help.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 81
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding relative risk is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies
Explanation:It is important to distinguish between risk and odds. For instance, if 100 individuals experience a myocardial infarction and 20 of them die, the risk of dying is 0.2 (20/100). However, the odds of dying are 0.25 (20/80).
Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with concerns about delayed puberty. She is worried about being different from her peers who have already started menstruating. She has a history of irregular attendance but is currently in good health. On examination, she is on the 25th centile for height and the 90th centile for weight. She has no signs of secondary sexual characteristics and presents with a broad chest and webbed neck. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Common Causes of Short Stature and Delayed Puberty
Short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the most common causes:
1. Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females. It occurs in between 1 in 2500 and 1 in 5000 live births. Features include short stature, delayed development of secondary sexual characteristics, and absence of menses. Patients may also have mild intellectual impairment and cardiovascular defects. There is a loss of one X chromosome (chromosome pattern XO), which results in a broad (webbed neck) and widely spaced nipples.2. Constitutional Delay in Puberty
Constitutional delay in puberty is often familial and is the most common cause of short stature and delayed puberty. In otherwise normal children, linear growth slows until about the age of 3 years, then proceeds normally until expected puberty, and then slows again in the absence of a growth spurt. A full catch-up may not occur.3. Down’s Syndrome
Short stature occurs in Down’s syndrome, but puberty is not normally delayed. Down’s syndrome would usually have been diagnosed early in life by the presence of typical features, which do not include a webbed neck.4. Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism occurring during prepubertal years, usually due to Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, can cause delayed puberty or, in some cases, precocious puberty. Other features of hypothyroidism should be present. In contrast, treated congenital hyperthyroidism usually results in normal pubertal development.5. Klinefelter Syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is caused by an XXY genotype. The usual presentation is with delayed sexual development or infertility.In conclusion, short stature and delayed puberty can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and thyroid problems. It is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years seeks advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter concerning his sore gums.
He has coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion as well as noting that if he cuts himself or has trauma the wounds take longer to heal than expected.
What is the most likely problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Scurvy: A Vitamin C Deficiency Syndrome
Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. Symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after deficient intake and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.
Scurvy is most commonly found in individuals who are severely malnourished, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.
During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment
Explanation:If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.
If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.
Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.
If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.
If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.
Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma
Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.
Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A woman who is 28-weeks pregnant presents with a productive cough. Crackles are heard in the right base during examination and an antibiotic is deemed necessary. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The BNF recommends against the use of quinolones during pregnancy due to the risk of arthropathy observed in animal studies. While there have been reports of a potential increase in the risk of necrotizing enterocolitis with the use of co-amoxiclav during pregnancy, the evidence is not conclusive. The BNF states that co-amoxiclav is currently considered safe for use during pregnancy, and provides links to both the BNF and the UK teratology information service for further information.
Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients
When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.
In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has come to see you to discuss whether he requires antibiotics prior to undergoing a root canal procedure. His dentist has suggested that he consult with his GP due to his history of infective endocarditis. Upon reviewing his electronic medical record, you discover that he has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. Additionally, he has native valvular heart disease and his previous infection was caused by staphylococcus. Presently, he appears to be in good health and is not experiencing any acute medical problems.
As per NICE guidelines, what treatment is recommended in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No specific treatment
Explanation:In the UK, it is not standard practice to use antibiotic prophylaxis as a preventive measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures.
Changes in Antibiotic Prophylaxis for Infective Endocarditis
In 2008, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released new guidelines regarding antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis. These guidelines significantly altered the list of procedures for which prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal and genitourinary tract procedures, and respiratory tract procedures no longer require prophylaxis. However, NICE does recommend that any infections in individuals at risk of infective endocarditis be promptly investigated and treated to reduce the risk of developing endocarditis. Additionally, if an individual at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy due to a suspected infection at the site of a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis.
It is important to note that these recommendations differ from those of the American Heart Association and European Society of Cardiology, which still advocate for antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 87
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.
It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits the clinic with inquiries about her Mirena coil. The coil was implanted 4 years ago to treat dysfunctional uterine bleeding. She has not had any menstrual periods for 3 years and is uncertain if it should be taken out. She is currently on elleste solo 1 mg to alleviate menopausal symptoms and was informed that the Mirena was a component of her hormone replacement therapy. What is the duration of the Mirena coil's license for this purpose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 years
Explanation:The license for using Mirena as endometrial protection for women on oestrogen-only HRT is limited to 4 years. Similarly, intrauterine contraceptives are licensed for a duration of 3 years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP for her first cervical smear. The GP offers a chaperone, but she declines. During the examination of the introitus, the GP observes a painless lump of 1 cm diameter in the labium. The Bartholin's gland on the right-hand side is not palpable. The woman reports that she has never noticed anything unusual before.
What would be the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:If Bartholin’s cysts are asymptomatic, there is no need for any intervention. However, if they cause symptoms or affect the appearance, they can be treated by incision and drainage. In women over 40, a biopsy may be recommended by some gynaecologists to rule out carcinoma.
If the cyst becomes infected and turns into an abscess, the initial treatment would be marsupialisation. Alternatively, a word catheter can be inserted. Antibiotics are not effective in managing a cyst that is not accompanied by an abscess.
Bartholin’s cyst occurs when the Bartholin duct’s entrance becomes blocked, causing mucous to build up behind the blockage and form a mass. This blockage is usually caused by vulval oedema and is typically sterile. These cysts are often asymptomatic and painless, but if they become large, they may cause discomfort when sitting or superficial dyspareunia. On the other hand, Bartholin’s abscess is extremely painful and can cause erythema and deformity of the affected vulva. Bartholin’s abscess is more common than the cyst, likely due to the asymptomatic nature of the cyst in most cases.
Bartholin’s cysts are usually unilateral and 1-3 cm in diameter, and they should not be palpable in healthy individuals. Limited data suggest that around 3000 in 100,000 asymptomatic women have Bartholin’s cysts, and these cysts account for 2% of all gynaecological appointments. The risk factors for developing Bartholin’s cyst are not well understood, but it is thought to increase in incidence with age up to menopause before decreasing. Having one cyst is a risk factor for developing a second.
Asymptomatic cysts generally do not require intervention, but in older women, some gynaecologists may recommend incision and drainage with biopsy to exclude carcinoma. Symptomatic or disfiguring cysts can be treated with incision and drainage or marsupialisation, which involves creating a new orifice through which glandular secretions can drain. Marsupialisation is more effective at preventing recurrence but is a longer and more invasive procedure. Antibiotics are not necessary for Bartholin’s cyst without evidence of abscess.
References:
1. Berger MB, Betschart C, Khandwala N, et al. Incidental Bartholin gland cysts identified on pelvic magnetic resonance imaging. Obstet Gynecol. 2012 Oct;120(4):798-802.
2. Kaufman RH, Faro S, Brown D. Benign diseases of the vulva and vagina. 5th ed. Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier Mosby; 2005:240-249.
3. Azzan BB. Bartholin’s cyst and abscess: a review of treatment of 53 cases. Br J Clin Pract. 1978 Apr;32(4):101-2. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 90
Incorrect
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During duty surgery (urgent care), you encounter a 54-year-old woman who is experiencing excruciating pain around her right eye. She has tried over-the-counter drops from the chemist, but they have not provided any relief. Although she has no significant medical history, she has been working 12-hour night shifts as a bank nurse. Upon examination, you notice a mild vesicular rash on the conjunctiva, but the eye itself appears normal under direct vision. Her visual acuity is normal, and fundoscopy reveals no abnormalities.
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir and urgent ophthalmology referral
Explanation:The recommended course of action for suspected herpes zoster ophthalmicus is urgent referral to an ophthalmologist and a 7-10 day course of oral antiviral medication, such as aciclovir. Direct referral to the emergency department is not the best option as it introduces an unnecessary step. High dose oral steroids are not a recognised treatment for this condition. While topical corticosteroids may be used to treat secondary inflammation of the eye, they are not the primary treatment and should not be used in place of oral antivirals.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is a type of shingles that affects around 10% of cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
The management of HZO involves oral antiviral treatment for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be given for severe infection or if the patient is immunocompromised. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review.
Complications of HZO include conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A young patient collapses in the car park at your GP surgery. They have a pulse and are breathing. The receptionist calls an ambulance whilst you assess the patient. You rub their sternum hard and say loudly ‘can you hear me?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:When evaluating a patient’s GCS score, producing unintelligible noises is assigned a score of 2. In this case, the patient is emitting a groan, which falls under this category and would receive a score of 2 for voice. Additionally, the patient would receive a score of 5 for motor response as they are able to localize pain and push away your hand. The patient would receive a score of 2 for eyes as they are only opening them in response to pain. Overall, the patient’s GCS score would be 9 out of 15.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 pm.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is having trouble retaining fluids and a urine dipstick reveals ketones ++. Which of the following is not linked to an elevated risk of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:A lower occurrence of hyperemesis gravidarum is linked to smoking.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, preterm birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back and bilateral leg pain. The lower back pain has been present for 6 months but gradually getting worse. Recently she has noticed that her legs ache when she walks further than about 300 meters. She is normally very active and enjoys hiking. The pain radiates to her buttocks, thighs and legs bilaterally (but her right leg is worse than the left). She describes the pain as 'aching' and 'tingling'. If she walks further than about 300 meters her legs become weak and numb. If she sits down and leans forward the symptoms go, and she can then carry on for another 300 meters. She says that the pain is better if she walks downhill. She finds standing exacerbates the symptoms but she can swim without any problems.
The patient has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, but is otherwise healthy.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case, and what is the first line investigation to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal MRI
Explanation:When a patient presents with gradual onset leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness that is triggered by walking, spinal stenosis is the most probable diagnosis, especially if the clinical examination is normal. Patients with spinal stenosis typically experience relief from pain when sitting, leaning forward, or crouching, and walking uphill is less painful than walking on flat ground. Cycling doesn’t usually cause pain. The preferred imaging modality for spinal stenosis is an MRI.
Peripheral vascular disease causing claudication is the most likely differential diagnosis, but this patient has good pulses and no risk factors. Lower limb dopplers would be used if vascular disease is suspected.
While a spinal CT can be used if an MRI is contraindicated, it is not the first choice. An abdominal USS and a spinal x-ray are not appropriate for evaluating a patient with suspected spinal stenosis, so both of these options are incorrect.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 94
Incorrect
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John is a 91 year old man with severe dementia. He has been relatively stable over the past two years with a gradual decline in cognition. The nursing home contacts you to report that he has been exhibiting more aggressive behavior, including swearing and hitting staff, over the past month and requests a review. What would be the most suitable approach to managing this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Assess for a cause of delirium
Explanation:Janet’s recent change in behavior may be a result of her dementia progression, but it is crucial to rule out any physical causes, including delirium. Neglecting to do so could lead to a high risk of mortality associated with delirium.
The Alzheimer’s Society recommends investigating the following potential causes when dealing with challenging behavior in the elderly:
– Infections, such as chest infections and urinary tract infections (UTIs)
– Pre-existing injuries, such as cuts or bruises
– Constipation
– Pain
– Existing conditions, such as arthritis
– Being in an uncomfortable position or being moved in an uncomfortable way
– Overgrown toenails or fingernails
– Toothache, earache, or issues with dentures.Understanding the Differences between Delirium and Dementia
Delirium and dementia are two conditions that are often confused with each other. However, there are distinct differences between the two. Delirium is characterized by an acute onset, impairment of consciousness, fluctuation of symptoms, abnormal perception, agitation, fear, and delusions. On the other hand, dementia is a chronic condition that develops slowly over time and is characterized by memory loss, difficulty with language, and impaired judgment.
Factors that favor delirium over dementia include the sudden onset of symptoms, impairment of consciousness, and fluctuation of symptoms. Delirium symptoms tend to be worse at night and may include abnormal perceptions such as illusions and hallucinations. Patients with delirium may also experience agitation, fear, and delusions.
It is important to distinguish between delirium and dementia as they require different treatment approaches. Delirium is often reversible once the underlying cause is identified and treated, while dementia is a progressive condition that requires ongoing management. By understanding the differences between these two conditions, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits a fertility clinic with her partner due to oligomenorrhoea and galactorrhea. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 18 months, she has been unable to conceive. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that her serum prolactin level is 6000 mIU/l (normal <500 mIU/l). Further investigation through a pituitary MRI reveals a microprolactinoma.
What initial treatment options are likely to be presented to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:When it comes to treating prolactinomas, dopamine agonists like cabergoline and bromocriptine are typically the first choice, even if the patient is experiencing significant neurological complications. Surgery may be necessary for those who cannot tolerate or do not respond to medical treatment, with a trans-sphenoidal approach being the preferred method unless there is extensive extra-pituitary extension. Radiotherapy is not commonly used, and octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is primarily used to treat acromegaly.
Understanding Prolactinoma: A Type of Pituitary Adenoma
Prolactinoma is a type of pituitary adenoma, which is a non-cancerous tumor that develops in the pituitary gland. These tumors can be classified based on their size and hormonal status. Prolactinomas are the most common type of pituitary adenoma and are characterized by the overproduction of prolactin.
In women, excess prolactin can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and galactorrhea. Men with prolactinomas may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhea. Macroadenomas, which are larger tumors, can cause additional symptoms such as headaches, visual disturbances, and signs of hypopituitarism.
Diagnosis of prolactinoma is typically done through MRI imaging. Treatment for symptomatic patients usually involves medical therapy with dopamine agonists like cabergoline or bromocriptine, which inhibit the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland. Surgery may be necessary for patients who do not respond to medical therapy or cannot tolerate it. A trans-sphenoidal approach is often preferred for surgical removal of the tumor.
Overall, understanding prolactinoma is important for proper diagnosis and management of this type of pituitary adenoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.
On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.
Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids
Explanation:Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms
Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.
On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.
In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.
What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome
Explanation:SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A father brings in his 4-year-old son who has had a fever for 2 days, vomited once, and the father reports foul-smelling urine. The boy is happily playing with toys in your office.
A recent urine sample reveals: negative leukocytes, positive nitrites, negative protein, and negative blood.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start antibiotics and send a sample for culture
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dipstick testing for leukocyte esterase and nitrite is just as effective as microscopy and culture for diagnosing UTIs in children over the age of 3. If both leukocytes and nitrites are positive, the child should be treated for a UTI with antibiotics. If the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or has had a UTI in the past, a urine sample should be sent for culture. If nitrites are positive but leukocytes are negative, antibiotics should be started and a urine sample should be sent for culture. If leukocytes are positive but nitrites are negative, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. It is important to only prescribe antibiotics if there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI, such as dysuria. If the dipstick is negative, another cause for the symptoms should be investigated and urine should not be sent for culture.
Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.
According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.
Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old practice nurse accidentally stabs herself with a used needle from a patient infected with the hepatitis C virus.
Select the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for HCV RNA at 6 weeks
Explanation:Transmission and Treatment of Hepatitis C
Hepatitis C virus is not as easily transmitted through a needlestick as hepatitis B virus, with a risk of transmission estimated at only 3%. Currently, there is no post-exposure vaccine available and neither immunoglobulin nor any antiviral agent has been proven effective in preventing transmission. Studies have shown that high anti-HCV titre immunoglobulin did not prevent transmission. Healthcare workers exposed to a source known to be positive for anti-HCV or HCV RNA should have their serum tested for HCV RNA at 6 and 12 weeks and for anti-HCV at 12 and 24 weeks.
In the treatment of hepatitis C infection, peg-interferon α and ribavirin are commonly used. These treatments have been found to be particularly effective in people infected with virus of genotypes 2 and 3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You are having a conversation about contraception with a 25-year-old patient via phone. She had the new Kyleena® intrauterine system (IUS) inserted yesterday at the local family planning clinic. She is not using any other form of contraception. Her menstrual cycle began 5 days ago.
She is curious to know if she requires additional contraception and for how long?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No further contraception is required
Explanation:No additional contraception is necessary if the Kyleena® IUS is inserted within the first seven days of a patient’s menstrual cycle. This form of intrauterine contraception contains a lower dose of levonorgestrel than the Mirena® IUS and is approved for use for up to five years.
New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of breast pain that has been ongoing for 4 months. She reports a dull ache in both breasts that occurs 1-2 weeks before her period. She has no other medical issues and is not sexually active.
Upon examination, there are no palpable breast lumps or skin changes.
What is the next best course of action in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on a supportive bra and simple analgesia
Explanation:The initial treatment for cyclical mastalgia is a supportive bra and basic pain relief.
Cyclical breast pain is a common condition that affects up to two-thirds of women, typically beginning two weeks before their menstrual cycle. Breast pain, in the absence of other breast cancer symptoms such as a lump or changes in the nipple or skin, is not linked to breast cancer. Referral to a breast specialist may be considered if the pain is severe enough to impact quality of life or sleep and doesn’t respond to first-line treatment after three months, but there is no need for referral in this case.
Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of cyclical breast pain, as there is no evidence to support their use.
According to current NICE CKS guidelines, the combined oral contraceptive pill or progesterone-only pill should not be used to treat cyclical breast pain, as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness compared to a placebo.
The first-line approach to managing cyclical breast pain involves advising patients to wear a supportive bra and take basic pain relief. This is based on expert consensus, which suggests that most cases of cyclical breast pain can be managed conservatively with a watchful-waiting approach, as long as malignancy has been ruled out as a cause.
Cyclical mastalgia is a common cause of breast pain in younger females. It varies in intensity according to the phase of the menstrual cycle and is not usually associated with point tenderness of the chest wall. The underlying cause is difficult to identify, but focal lesions such as cysts may be treated to provide symptomatic relief. Women should be advised to wear a supportive bra and conservative treatments such as standard oral and topical analgesia may be used. Flaxseed oil and evening primrose oil are sometimes used, but neither are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If the pain persists after 3 months and affects the quality of life or sleep, referral should be considered. Hormonal agents such as bromocriptine and danazol may be more effective, but many women discontinue these therapies due to adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up and reports experiencing persistent fatigue and indigestion. He has been belching excessively at night and is bothered by constant bloating. He denies any alterations in his bowel movements and has not noticed any rectal bleeding. During the physical examination, you observe mild conjunctival pallor and a slightly distended abdomen. A rectal exam reveals no abnormalities.
What is the most frequent underlying condition that could explain these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is the most likely underlying diagnosis as it can present with nonspecific gastrointestinal symptoms and fatigue. Bowel cancer should also be considered and appropriate screening carried out if there is clinical suspicion or red flag symptoms. Gastro-oesophageal reflux is unlikely to cause fatigue or anaemia, while inflammatory bowel disease is less common than irritable bowel and there are no signs of it in the stem.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.
What is your plan for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker
Explanation:First Step in Managing Hypertension
Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.
Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.
While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of persistent tinnitus in her left ear for the past 5 months. She has also observed a gradual decline in her hearing ability in the same ear. Upon examination, both ears appear normal. Rinne's test shows air conduction greater than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test lateralises to the right ear. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma
Explanation:The typical presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. On the other hand, the symptoms of acoustic neuroma may vary depending on the cranial nerve affected. In this case, the patient’s tinnitus and hearing loss suggest that the vestibulocochlear nerve is affected, and vertigo may also be present. Sensorineural hearing loss is observed in acoustic neuroma, whereas otosclerosis, impacted wax, and cholesteatoma cause conductive hearing loss. Meniere’s disease is characterized by progressive hearing loss that fluctuates in severity depending on the attacks.
Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.
If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male patient requests a house call because he has been feeling unwell. Upon arrival, he reports experiencing double vision and difficulty with balance.
During the physical examination, you observe nystagmus, significant ataxia, and slurred speech.
The patient mentions that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his hospital specialist, but he is unsure about the correct dosage.
What medication has he been prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Side-Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, it can have various undesirable side-effects, both in the long-term and with excessive dosage.
Acute phenytoin overdose can cause nystagmus, diplopia, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and hyperglycaemia. On the other hand, common side-effects not related to acute intoxication include tremors, paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, rashes, acne, hirsutism, and coarse facies.
In rare cases, serious haematological and neurological side-effects can occur with regular usage. Haematological side-effects include megaloblastic anaemia, aplastic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, and agranulocytosis. Meanwhile, neurological side-effects include peripheral neuropathy and dyskinaesias.
It is important to monitor the dosage and usage of phenytoin to avoid these side-effects and ensure the patient’s safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat
Explanation:Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat
Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:
1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.
2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.
3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.
4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.
It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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What criteria can a health professional use to be reasonably certain that a woman is not pregnant when she wants to start contraception and has no pregnancy symptoms or signs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and 4 months postpartum
Explanation:Criteria for Determining Pregnancy Status in Starting Contraception
Health professionals can determine with reasonable certainty whether a woman is pregnant or not before starting contraception. This is important to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the chosen contraceptive method. According to CKS NICE, the following criteria can be used to determine pregnancy status:
– The woman has not had sexual intercourse since the last normal menses.
– The woman has used a reliable method of contraception correctly and consistently.
– The woman is within the first 7 days of the onset of a normal menstrual period.
– The woman is within 4 weeks postpartum for non-breastfeeding women.
– The woman is within the first 7 days post-termination of pregnancy or miscarriage.
– The woman is fully or nearly fully breastfeeding, amenorrhoeic, and less than 6 months postpartum.
– A pregnancy test is performed no sooner than 3 weeks since the last episode of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) and is negative.By following these criteria, health professionals can ensure that women are not inadvertently exposed to the risks of contraceptive methods during pregnancy. It is important to note that if there is any doubt about pregnancy status, a pregnancy test should be performed before starting contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is HIV positive but in the stable phase of the disease.
What is the most suitable marker for monitoring his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4 lymphocyte count
Explanation:Understanding the Importance of CD4 Lymphocyte Count in HIV-related Immune Impairment
The CD4 lymphocyte count, also known as T-helper cell count, is a crucial indicator of immune impairment in individuals with HIV. While CD4 counts can vary even in the absence of HIV infection, a fall in the count to below 200/mm3 without antiretroviral treatment can increase the risk of opportunistic infections by 80% over three years. However, some patients with stable low CD4 counts can remain well for several years, and this variability is partly explained by differences in HIV viral load.
The level of CD4 lymphopenia determines the potential spectrum of infections, with certain infections such as oral candidiasis and pneumocystis pneumonia being more frequent at CD4 counts of 100-200/mm3, while others like disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex infection and cytomegalovirus retinitis are rarely seen until the CD4 count drops below 50/mm3.
While plasma HIV RNA levels strongly predict progression to AIDS and death, regular monitoring of CD4 counts is usually sufficient. Anti-HIV IgG is also used in the diagnosis of HIV infection. Understanding the importance of CD4 lymphocyte count in HIV-related immune impairment is crucial for effective management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for 2 years and they have undergone clinical evaluation. While his partner's assessment is normal, he has been diagnosed with hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism.
What are the possible causes of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often nonspecific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.
Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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Sophie attends a routine check-up with her 12-year-old daughter Lily, who has a history of well-controlled allergies but is otherwise healthy. Lily has received all her routine childhood vaccinations. She has recently received a reminder to have her flu vaccine.
What other vaccination should Lily receive at her age?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Explanation:Boys in school year 8, aged 12-13, are now eligible to receive the HPV vaccine alongside girls. This vaccine has been added to the routine immunisation schedule for this age group. Therefore, Dominic should receive the HPV vaccine this year. The meningitis ACWY and tetanus, diphtheria and polio vaccines are given at 14 years (school year 9) and are not applicable at this time. Dominic is up to date with his routine immunisations, including the MMR vaccine which is given at 1 year and again at 3 years and 4 months. The pneumococcal vaccine is only offered to 65-year-olds and is not relevant to Dominic’s current situation.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is moderately disabled by multiple sclerosis. She can use a wheelchair to move around the house. She has been troubled by urinary incontinence and has a palpable enlarged bladder. Testing indicates sensory loss in the 2nd-4th sacral dermatome areas.
Select from the list the single most appropriate management option.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intermittent self-catheterisation
Explanation:Intermittent Self-Catheterisation: A Safe and Effective Way to Manage Urinary Retention and Incontinence
Intermittent self-catheterisation is a safe and effective method for managing urinary retention or incontinence caused by a neuropathic or hypotonic bladder. This technique provides patients with freedom from urinary collection systems. Although it may not be feasible for some patients, severe disability is not a contra-indication. Patients in wheelchairs have successfully mastered the technique despite various physical and mental challenges.
Single-use catheters are sterile and come with either a hydrophilic or gel coating. The former requires immersion in water for 30 seconds to activate, while the latter doesn’t require any preparation before use. Reusable catheters are made of polyvinyl chloride and can be washed and reused for up to a week.
While other types of catheterisation are available, intermittent self-catheterisation is typically the first choice. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic medication, is used to relieve urinary difficulties, including frequent urination and urge incontinence, by decreasing muscle spasms of the bladder. However, in patients with overflow incontinence due to diabetes or neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis or spinal cord trauma, oxybutynin can worsen overflow incontinence because the fundamental problem is the bladder not contracting. The same is true for imipramine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.
She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.
She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.
What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week
Explanation:Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event
This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.
To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.
If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A mother brings her two-year-old daughter in to the General Practice Surgery for review, as she is concerned about her frequent ear and chest infections. She was born full term with no complications. Her mother reports that she tried to breastfeed but ended up converting to formula as she was failing to thrive, and she still often brings food up through her nose.
On examination, she has low-set ears, hypertelorism (wide-set eyes) and hooded eyelids. She makes some babbling noises but doesn't say any words yet. A set of blood tests reveal low calcium. There is no family history of recurrent infections.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: DiGeorge syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between immunodeficiency disorders in a pediatric patient
This patient presents with symptoms of immunodeficiency, including hypocalcaemia, developmental delay, facial dysmorphism, and feeding difficulties. The differential diagnosis includes DiGeorge syndrome, selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency, Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia, common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), and physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy.
DiGeorge syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a genetic syndrome that commonly presents with mild immunodeficiency due to reduced thymus function or absence of a thymus. Facial dysmorphism, such as low-set ears, hypertelorism, and hooded eyelids, is also common.
Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary antibody deficiency and may be associated with autoimmune disease or allergies. It is not associated with characteristic facies or low calcium.
Bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia is an X-linked immunodeficiency that presents with severe respiratory tract infections in male infants. It is unlikely in this case as the patient is female with a different clinical picture.
CVID is the most common primary immunodeficiency in adults and presents with recurrent bacterial infections. It is not associated with the characteristic facies described here or developmental delay, feeding difficulties, or hypocalcaemia.
Physiological hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy is a common phenomenon where babies gradually lose their mother’s immunoglobulin G and replace it with their own. It is not associated with any additional facial features, blood abnormalities, or developmental or feeding delay.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation and testing are necessary to differentiate between these immunodeficiency disorders in this pediatric patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations
Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:
– Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
– Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
– Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
– Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
– Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is the least acknowledged by patients who are prescribed isotretinoin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Isotretinoin can cause various adverse effects, including teratogenicity, which requires females to take contraception. Other side effects may include low mood, dry eyes and lips, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, and nosebleeds. However, hypertension is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary.
Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.
Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of a lump in his scrotum that he noticed while showering. He reports feeling some discomfort in the area but denies any pain. He has been in a committed relationship with his girlfriend and had a clear sexual health screen two weeks ago.
During the physical examination, the GP notes a soft mass on the front part of the right testis that cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. The lump is not tender to touch and transilluminates.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocoele
Explanation:When examining scrotal lumps, it is crucial to differentiate between a hydrocoele and other types of testicular masses. This can be done by determining whether the lump is connected to the testis or separate from it, and whether it is solid or fluid-filled.
A hydrocoele is a fluid-filled sac that forms around the testis within the tunica vaginalis. It is cystic in nature and cannot be distinguished from the testis itself. However, it can be identified by its ability to transilluminate. Although a hydrocoele is typically benign, it can sometimes be a symptom of a testicular tumor, which can be ruled out with an ultrasound scan.
In contrast, testicular tumors are usually connected to the testis and have an irregular shape. They are not cystic and do not transilluminate, but they can also cause a secondary hydrocoele.
Varicocoeles and epididymal cysts are separate from the testis and can be identified by their distinct location.
Scrotal Swelling: Causes and Management
Scrotal swelling can be caused by various conditions, including inguinal hernia, testicular tumors, acute epididymo-orchitis, epididymal cysts, hydrocele, testicular torsion, and varicocele. Inguinal hernia is characterized by inguinoscrotal swelling that cannot be examined above it, while testicular tumors often have a discrete testicular nodule and symptoms of metastatic disease. Acute epididymo-orchitis is often accompanied by dysuria and urethral discharge, while epididymal cysts are usually painless and occur in individuals over 40 years old. Hydrocele is a non-painful, soft fluctuant swelling that can be examined above, while testicular torsion is characterized by severe, sudden onset testicular pain and requires urgent surgery. Varicocele is characterized by varicosities of the pampiniform plexus and may affect fertility.
The management of scrotal swelling depends on the underlying condition. Testicular malignancy is treated with orchidectomy via an inguinal approach, while torsion requires prompt surgical exploration and testicular fixation. Varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, but surgery or radiological management can be considered if there are concerns about testicular function or infertility. Epididymal cysts can be excised using a scrotal approach, while hydroceles are managed differently in children and adults. In children, an inguinal approach is used to ligate the underlying pathology, while in adults, a scrotal approach is preferred to excise or plicate the hydrocele sac.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nanny, Sarah, cares for 5 different children during the week. What is a concerning sign to look out for in one of her charges?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarah aged 10 months preferentially uses her right hand to pick up toys
Explanation:Red flags in child development serve as warning signs that can indicate a possible developmental delay. The following table outlines some common red flags to look out for:
Age Red Flags
Birth-3 months Consistent clenching of fists before 3 months of age, rolling over before 3 months
4-6 months Lack of smiling by 10 weeks, failure to reach for objects by 5 months
6-12 months Persistence of primitive reflexes after 6 months
12-24 months Demonstrating hand dominance before 12 months may be a red flag for hemiparesis, inability to walk independently by 18 months, and difficulty using a spoon, which typically develops between 12-15 months.Common Developmental Problems and Their Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points, fine motor skill problems, gross motor problems, and speech and language problems. Referral points may include a lack of smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and inability to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may be indicated by abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could be a sign of cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, but other causes may include environmental deprivation and general developmental delay. It is important to identify and address these developmental problems early on to ensure the best possible outcomes for the child’s future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.
What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver failure
Explanation:When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.
Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother who wants to know more about HPV vaccination. Which of the following statements about HPV vaccination is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervarix has the advantage over Gardasil of offering protection against genital warts
Explanation:Protection against genital warts is an advantage offered by Gardasil, as opposed to Cervarix.
The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a known carcinogen that infects the skin and mucous membranes. There are numerous strains of HPV, with strains 6 and 11 causing genital warts and strains 16 and 18 linked to various cancers, particularly cervical cancer. HPV infection is responsible for over 99.7% of cervical cancers, and testing for HPV is now a crucial part of cervical cancer screening. Other cancers linked to HPV include anal, vulval, vaginal, mouth, and throat cancers. While there are other risk factors for developing cervical cancer, such as smoking and contraceptive pill use, HPV vaccination is an effective preventative measure.
The UK introduced an HPV vaccine in 2008, initially using Cervarix, which protected against HPV 16 and 18 but not 6 and 11. This decision was criticized due to the significant disease burden caused by genital warts. In 2012, Gardasil replaced Cervarix as the vaccine used, protecting against HPV 6, 11, 16, and 18. Initially given only to girls, boys were also offered the vaccine from September 2019. The vaccine is offered to all 12- and 13-year-olds in school Year 8, with the option for girls to receive a second dose between 6-24 months after the first. Men who have sex with men under the age of 45 are also recommended to receive the vaccine to protect against anal, throat, and penile cancers.
Injection site reactions are common with HPV vaccines. It should be noted that parents may not be able to prevent their daughter from receiving the vaccine, as information given to parents and available on the NHS website makes it clear that the vaccine may be administered against parental wishes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 120
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old lady today who presents with lower leg pain. While jogging she felt a sudden, sharp pain in the back of her left lower leg. The patient is unable to stand on her tiptoes using just her left leg. The Simmonds' test is positive on the affected side. She is normally fit and well but was treated for pyelonephritis two weeks ago.
What medication is likely to have led to this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Achilles Tendon Rupture and Fluoroquinolones
This is a typical history of an Achilles tendon rupture – sudden and severe pain at the back of the leg. Patients often hear an audible snap and feel as if something hit them at the back of the leg. To confirm the diagnosis, doctors use the Simmonds’ test, which involves squeezing the calf while the patient is kneeling on a bench.
Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, have been found to cause tendinopathies, although this is rare. Patients taking these medications should be advised to stop treatment at the first signs of tendon discomfort and seek medical attention. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when prescribing fluoroquinolones to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headaches that she has experienced since her teenage years. Lately, she has noticed an increase in the frequency of her headaches. She attributes this to her stressful job, which has caused her to feel more anxious. She reports a bilateral frontal headache that is moderate in intensity and feels like a tightening sensation. She denies any prodrome, visual symptoms, or vomiting. On examination, she appears well and has a blood pressure of 118/68 mmHg. Her cranial nerve examination is normal, and there are no focal neurological deficits. Which of the following treatments should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate
Explanation:Managing Tension Headaches
Tension headaches are a common type of headache that can be episodic or chronic. Episodic tension headaches can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as paracetamol, aspirin, or NSAIDs. However, chronic tension headaches may require a regular prescription of amitriptyline or nortriptyline. Acupuncture may also be a treatment option for some patients.
It is important to note that codeine and dihydrocodeine should be avoided in the treatment of tension headaches due to the risk of medication overuse headache. Patients who respond to amitriptyline should continue treatment for at least 2 months before slowly reducing the dose to stop. Those who cannot tolerate amitriptyline may be prescribed nortriptyline instead. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage tension headaches and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old is being initiated on insulin therapy to control his diabetes as his HbA1c levels have been consistently high. He had experienced hypoglycemia four years ago. Additionally, he is taking fluoxetine and atorvastatin. He asks if he can drive to visit his parents.
What would be the appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He must take breaks every 2 hours to check his blood glucose
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetics are required to take breaks every 2 hours to check their blood glucose while driving. They must also have hypoglycemia awareness, no severe hypos in the past year, and no visual impairment. It is important to inform the DVLA of their condition. They can still drive a car, but with additional precautions.
DVLA Regulations for Drivers with Diabetes Mellitus
The DVLA has recently changed its regulations for drivers with diabetes who use insulin. Previously, these individuals were not allowed to hold an HGV license. However, as of October 2011, the following standards must be met for all drivers using hypoglycemic inducing drugs, including sulfonylureas: no severe hypoglycemic events in the past 12 months, full hypoglycemic awareness, regular blood glucose monitoring at least twice daily and at times relevant to driving, an understanding of the risks of hypoglycemia, and no other complications of diabetes.
For those on insulin who wish to apply for an HGV license, they must complete a VDIAB1I form. Group 1 drivers on insulin can still drive a car as long as they have hypoglycemic awareness, no more than one episode of hypoglycemia requiring assistance within the past 12 months, and no relevant visual impairment. Drivers on tablets or exenatide do not need to notify the DVLA, but if the tablets may induce hypoglycemia, there must not have been more than one episode requiring assistance within the past 12 months. Those who are diet-controlled alone do not need to inform the DVLA.
To demonstrate adequate control, the Honorary Medical Advisory Panel on Diabetes Mellitus recommends that applicants use blood glucose meters with a memory function to measure and record blood glucose levels for at least three months prior to submitting their application. These regulations aim to ensure the safety of all drivers on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man who is typically healthy comes in with a cough that produces clear sputum and feeling generally unwell for the past three days. The physician provides him with a prescription for antibiotics to be filled at a later time. What is the estimated percentage of patients who will ultimately take antibiotics using this approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 33%
Explanation:The Debate on Delayed Prescribing for Antibiotics
Delayed prescribing has been a topic of debate for many years, particularly in relation to reducing antibiotic prescriptions for respiratory tract infections. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) currently advocates for this strategy, but its effectiveness and acceptability among patients remain in question.
In 2013, Cochrane conducted a review of 10 studies on the delayed prescription of antibiotics for acute respiratory tract infections. The review found that delayed prescribing reduced antibiotic use from 93% to 32%, regardless of the method used (e.g. post-dated script, same-day script with advice to use after 48 hours). However, patient satisfaction levels were not significantly affected by delayed prescribing.
Critics of delayed prescribing argue that patient satisfaction levels were just as high for patients who were refused antibiotics. Despite the ongoing debate, delayed prescribing remains a potential strategy for reducing unnecessary antibiotic use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman presents with dyspepsia. During the consultation she admits to having intermittent pins and needles in her hands and feet. She is prescribed an antacid. Some months later her dyspepsia is improved but her mood has become very low. She is reluctant to leave the house because of perceived unsteadiness. On examination she has weakness in her legs involving the hip flexors, knee flexors and dorsiflexors of the ankles, reduced sensation distally, impaired proprioception to her knee joints, absent ankle jerks and equivocal plantars.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the cord
Explanation:Neurological Consequences of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
This patient presents with progressive limb weakness, primarily affecting the legs. The signs suggest dysfunction in both upper and lower motor neurons, as well as central and peripheral sensory disturbance. However, the absence of peripheral nerve signs and sphincter disturbance rules out spinal cord compression or conus/cauda equina lesion. The onset of symptoms is also too rapid for tabes dorsalis.
The most likely diagnosis is vitamin B12 deficiency, which can cause neurological consequences that resemble the patient’s symptoms. As this is a treatable condition, it should be considered as a top differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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The practice nurse is seeking advice on malaria prophylaxis for a 26-year-old female patient who is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for contraception and has a history of anxiety treated with sertraline two years ago. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefloquine may not be prescribed due to the history of anxiety
Explanation:Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine
Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. Recently, a review has led to the strengthening of warnings regarding these risks.
Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have also been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking this medication. Adverse reactions may persist for several months due to the long half-life of mefloquine.
It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop the medication and seek medical advice. These warnings aim to ensure the safe use of mefloquine in the prevention and treatment of malaria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is concerned about breast cancer. An older cousin on her mother’s side has been diagnosed with breast cancer and she knows of one other cousin on her mother’s side with the disease. Additionally, her paternal grandmother was diagnosed with breast cancer in her seventies. She has no knowledge of any unusual cancers or gene abnormalities in the family.
What is the most suitable course of action for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice about breast awareness
Explanation:Breast Awareness and Management for Women with a Family History of Breast Cancer
Breast cancer is a common disease that affects many families. However, having a family history of breast cancer doesn’t necessarily mean that a woman is at substantial risk. The risk increases with the number and closeness of relatives affected and the age at which they were diagnosed. Other factors that increase the risk include the presence of certain other cancers or some gene patterns.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has produced guidance for managing breast cancer in people with a family history of the disease. Women with only one second-degree relative with breast cancer, such as a grandmother, and who was diagnosed in her seventies, do not normally require referral. However, being breast aware is good advice for all women.
For women considered to have a high risk, annual mammography and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are secondary care options for screening and detecting breast cancer. Genetic testing is also available, and referral to a specialist genetic clinic is based on several factors, including the number of people involved, closeness of the relationship, age at diagnosis, and the presence of other cancers.
In some cases, prophylactic bilateral mastectomy may be recommended for high-risk women. This involves breast removal before cancer develops and is recommended for women with a strong family history, the presence of certain genes, previous cancer in one breast, or when biopsies show certain conditions.
In summary, breast awareness and management for women with a family history of breast cancer involve several options, including screening, genetic testing, and prophylactic mastectomy. Women should discuss their options with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55
Explanation:Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer
Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.
Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.
Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.
Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes in with atrophy of both the thenar and hypothenar eminences of his right hand, along with weakness of thumb abduction, thumb flexion, and finger abduction and adduction. He also reports sensory loss to pinprick over the ulnar border of the hand and forearm. The rest of his neurological exam is unremarkable.
What is the most probable location of the lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Nerve Supply to the Hand Muscles: An Overview
The muscles of the hand are supplied by different nerves, and lesions to specific nerves can cause distinct symptoms. The thenar eminence, which includes the abductor pollicis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles, is supplied by the median nerve, except for the adductor pollicis, which is supplied by the ulnar nerve. On the other hand, the hypothenar eminence, which includes the abductor, flexor, and opponens digiti minimi muscles, as well as the palmaris brevis, is supplied by the ulnar nerve. The first two lumbrical muscles are supplied by the median nerve.
It is important to note that lesions to the ulnar, median, or anterior interosseous nerve alone cannot cause all the symptoms associated with hand muscle weakness or paralysis. A T1 root lesion, for instance, would primarily affect the intrinsic muscles of the hand, especially the abductor pollicis brevis, and other signs would usually be present, such as Horner syndrome.
In some cases, damage to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, which can occur due to traction on the arm in an abducted position, can produce combined C8/T1 lesions that mimic a combined median and ulnar nerve lesion in the hand. Understanding the nerve supply to the hand muscles is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of hand muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old caucasian woman is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension. Baseline investigations do not reveal evidence of end-organ damage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and takes apixaban. Her ECG is normal. Her QRISK3 score is calculated as 12.4%. She has no known drug allergies. Lifestyle advice is given and appropriate follow-up is scheduled. What is the most effective supplementary treatment choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and amlodipine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, patients who are aged 55 years or over and do not have type 2 diabetes or are of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and do not have type 2 diabetes (of any age) should be prescribed calcium-channel blockers as the first-line treatment for hypertension. In addition, this patient requires a statin for primary cardiovascular disease prevention.
Amlodipine alone is not sufficient as she requires both an antihypertensive agent and lipid-lowering therapy.
Atorvastatin and indapamide (a thiazide-like diuretic) is not the best option as indapamide is only recommended as a second-line antihypertensive agent if a calcium-channel blocker is contraindicated, not suitable or not tolerated.
Atorvastatin and ramipril is also not the best option as ACE inhibitors (or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists) are first-line for patients under the age of 55 and not of black African or African-Caribbean family origin, or those with type 2 diabetes (irrespective of age or family origin).
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) has transferred to the surgery. He is reviewed in clinic and it is noted that his vaccination history is not up to date. The patient's renal disease is advanced and he says that his renal specialist has been discussing the potential for haemodialysis and eventually transplantation.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination regimen for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Recommendations for Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) are at increased risk of infections due to their compromised immune system. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for these patients. The following vaccines are recommended for patients with CKD:
Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
Patients on Renal Replacement Therapy (RRT) or those likely to require RRT in the future should receive the standard series of three doses of hepatitis B vaccine. influenza vaccine should be given annually to all patients with CKD. Patients with CKD 3 or above should be offered two doses of Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) two months apart, followed by a booster dose of PCV every five years.Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B Vaccine
Patients with haemophilia should receive the combination of Hepatitis A and Hepatitis B vaccine.Hib MenC, Men B Pneumococcal Vaccine
Patients with a defective spleen, such as those with sickle cell disease or those who have had or will require splenectomy, should receive this combination vaccine.influenza and Pneumococcal and BCG Vaccine
The BCG vaccine is not recommended for patients with CKD unless they are at increased risk of tuberculosis.It is important to note that immunisation should be given early in the course of progressive renal disease to maximise the chance of immunity. Live vaccines may need to be deferred in severely immunocompromised patients, but the majority of patients with CKD have sufficient immune function to safely receive live vaccines if there is no inactivated form available. Patients should also be monitored for antibody levels and offered booster doses as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in the left testis. He is unaware of preceding trauma and feels that the pain has increased since it began. He feels nauseated and has been pyrexial.
Whilst examining him he confesses to having a sexual relationship. On examination, he has a tender swollen left testis with a temperature of 37.5°C.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take FBC and MSU and await results before prescribing.
Explanation:Acute Testicular Pain in Young Males: Torsion as the Primary Concern
In young males under 20 years of age who experience sudden testicular pain, it is crucial to consider torsion as the primary diagnosis. Failure to recognize this condition can lead to irreversible damage to the testes. Therefore, the most important action is to seek immediate medical attention and admission for acute urology opinion.
Prompt treatment within six hours of symptom onset can save most testes, while delaying treatment beyond 12 hours can result in the loss of the affected testicle. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize timely diagnosis and management of testicular torsion to prevent long-term complications and preserve fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine
Explanation:Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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For which conditions have randomised controlled trials demonstrated that long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) decreases mortality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:LTOT Prolongs Survival in COPD
Adequate evidence supporting the use of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) to prolong survival is only available for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is commonly assumed that this therapy can also be beneficial for other chronic hypoxaemic lung conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her lab results. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has undergone a glucose tolerance test.
The lab findings are as follows:
Fasting glucose 6.9 mmol/L
2-hour glucose 8.5 mmol/L
What would be the best course of action to take next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated.
In this scenario, the patient’s fasting glucose level is above 7 mmol/L, indicating the need for immediate insulin therapy (with or without metformin). The diagnosis of gestational diabetes is based on a fasting plasma glucose level of > 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of >/= 7.8 mmol/L.
While dietary advice is an essential aspect of diabetes management, it is not sufficient in this case due to the elevated fasting glucose level.
Gliclazide is not a suitable option for gestational diabetes treatment because sulfonylureas are not recommended during pregnancy due to the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia.
Metformin may be used in the management of gestational diabetes, but in cases where the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L, insulin is the preferred treatment option. Insulin and metformin can be used together to manage gestational diabetes.
Since both the fasting glucose and 2-hour glucose levels are elevated, there is no need to repeat the test as the diagnosis of gestational diabetes is conclusive.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening vision in his right eye. He has a history of being human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. During the examination, the doctor observes a few distinct, raised, yellowish growths with unclear edges close to the optic disc of his right eye. What is the probable reason for the lesion observed in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Infectious Diseases
Choroidal tubercles, toxocariasis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis are all infectious diseases that can manifest in the eye. Choroidal tubercles are a common presentation of intraocular tuberculosis, while toxocariasis is caused by roundworm larvae migration and can lead to ocular larva migrans. Kaposi’s sarcoma presents as highly vascular lesions on the eyelids, conjunctiva, caruncle, and lacrimal sac. Syphilis can cause optic neuritis, uveitis, and interstitial keratitis, while toxoplasmosis can lead to chorioretinitis and vitreous inflammation. It is important to consider these infectious diseases in patients presenting with ocular symptoms and to evaluate for systemic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is seeking your advice after being diagnosed with diabetes insipidus during an outpatient appointment. He is worried about the diagnosis and wants to discuss its implications. What is the correct statement about diabetes insipidus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid deprivation followed by desmopressin differentiates the main causes
Explanation:Understanding Diabetes Insipidus: Differentiating Causes and Symptoms
Diabetes insipidus is a condition that can be classified into two major forms: cranial and nephrogenic. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), while nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine due to resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
To differentiate between the two forms, a fluid deprivation test followed by desmopressin administration is conducted. In cranial diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality increases after desmopressin administration, while in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, it remains unchanged.
Contrary to popular belief, drugs can cause diabetes insipidus, with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus being the most common side effect of lithium. Other drugs such as ofloxacin and orlistat have also been implicated.
Hypernatremia may become apparent as dehydration develops, and the predominant manifestations of diabetes insipidus are polyuria, polydipsia, and nocturia. Large volumes of dilute urine are produced, with more than 3 liters in 24 hours and less than 300 mOsm/kg.
In conclusion, understanding the causes and symptoms of diabetes insipidus is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving
Explanation:Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention. He reports a history of persistent unexplained generalised muscle pains and so a creatine kinase (CK) level is checked on a blood test prior to starting treatment.
The CK result comes back and it is four times the upper limit of normal.
What is the most appropriate management approach in this instance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and a fibrate should be prescribed instead
Explanation:Statin Therapy and Creatine Kinase Levels
Prior to offering a statin, it is recommended to check creatine kinase (CK) levels in individuals with persistent generalised unexplained muscle pain, according to NICE guidelines. If CK levels are more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy should not be started. The CK level should be rechecked after 7 days, and if it remains elevated to more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a statin should not be initiated. However, if CK levels are elevated but less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin treatment can be initiated, but a lower dose is recommended. It is important to monitor CK levels in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure that muscle damage is not occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A woman presents to surgery. Her 50-year-old mother has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is concerned about her own risk and wonders if she needs 'genetic tests'. There is no other history of breast cancer in the family. When should she be referred to secondary care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jewish ancestry
Explanation:Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with sudden onset weakness of the muscles on the left side of his face. He is unable to wrinkle his forehead and has difficulty closing his eye. Additionally, he reports loss of taste on the anterior part of his tongue and discomfort with loud noises. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Facial Paralysis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including lower motor neurone lesions, upper motor neurone lesions, herpes zoster, Lyme disease, and sarcoidosis. In cases of lower motor neurone lesions, patients may be unable to wrinkle their forehead due to the destruction of the final common pathway to the muscles. However, in upper motor neurone lesions, the forehead muscles may be partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brainstem.
Bell’s palsy, also known as idiopathic facial paralysis, is the most common cause of unilateral facial paralysis. While further testing or referral is not usually required, it’s important to assess patients to exclude other possible identifiable causes. Symptoms of Bell’s palsy may include the inability to close the eye, pain, and vesicles in the ear, hard palate, and anterior two thirds of the tongue.
Steroids, such as prednisolone, are an effective treatment for Bell’s palsy and should be started within 72 hours of onset. This treatment option can also be used in children. Full recovery occurs in approximately 80% of cases. If the failure to close the eye is endangering the cornea, further intervention may be necessary.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for facial paralysis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea.
What is the most appropriate first investigation to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Secondary Amenorrhoea with Galactorrhoea
Any patient who presents with secondary amenorrhoea, the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months, should first have pregnancy ruled out before further investigation. This is because pregnancy can cause secondary amenorrhoea and may also lead to galactorrhoea, the production of breast milk in a non-lactating individual.
If pregnancy is ruled out, the next step is to measure prolactin levels. Hyperprolactinaemia, a condition where there is an excess of prolactin in the blood, can cause both secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Further investigation may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of hyperprolactinaemia, which can include pituitary tumors, medication side effects, or other medical conditions.
In summary, investigating secondary amenorrhoea with galactorrhoea requires ruling out pregnancy and measuring prolactin levels to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril
Explanation:The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison
There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.
Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.
In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.
What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.
Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.
For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.
Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.
Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.
Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.
Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.
Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.
Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.
Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.
Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.
In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her 2-year-old daughter, who has shown signs of developmental delay. She had delayed speech development, was a late walker, and is behind her peers in many areas.
The mother has been taking regular medication for bipolar disorder for the past seven years, which she has been told may have caused her daughter's issues. Currently, her mental health is stable, and she has no other diagnosed health conditions.
Which medication is the most likely culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproic acid
Explanation:Teratogenic Risks of Common Medications During Pregnancy
Valproic acid, commonly used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder, is highly teratogenic with a 30-40% chance of neurodevelopmental problems and 10% risk of congenital malformations in newborns if taken during pregnancy. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, carries a risk of neonatal tremor and hypertonia if taken during the third trimester, but no known neurodevelopmental risks. Prochlorperazine, used for nausea and vomiting, may cause extrapyramidal side effects or withdrawal in newborns during the third trimester, but no neurodevelopmental issues are listed. Procyclidine, an anticholinergic medication, has no specific teratogenic warnings. Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for anxiety and depression, has a small risk of congenital heart defect but no neurodevelopmental issues. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these risks and provide appropriate counseling and monitoring for pregnant patients taking these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe, intermittent, daily, left-sided frontotemporal/orbital headache that has been bothering him for the past 6 weeks. The headache seems to occur at the same time every day and lasts for about an hour. The pain makes him feel nauseous, although he has not vomited. Interestingly, he also reports that his right eye sometimes appears red and painful with increased lacrimation.
What is the best immediate treatment to administer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen (100%) + subcutaneous sumatriptan
Explanation:Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.
To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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An elderly patient has a terminal illness and it is likely that the end stage of this is approaching. The General Medical Council (GMC) has produced guidance concerning treatment and care of patients coming towards the end of life.
Which of the following options conforms to the principles described by the GMC regarding end-of-life care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment decisions must start from a presumption in favour of prolonging life
Explanation:Principles for End-of-Life Decision Making
When making decisions regarding end-of-life care, it is important to adhere to certain principles. These principles include equality and human rights, which dictate that patients approaching the end of their life should receive the same quality of care as all other patients. Additionally, there should be a presumption in favor of prolonging life, meaning that decisions about potentially life-prolonging treatments should not be motivated by a desire to bring about the patient’s death. It is also important to presume capacity in terminally ill patients and to maximize their capacity to make decisions through shared decision making. Finally, when a patient lacks capacity, the overall benefit of a potentially life-prolonging treatment must be weighed against the burdens and risks for the patient, with consultation from those close to the patient. By following these principles, end-of-life decisions can be made with the patient’s best interests in mind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her mother, complaining of persistent dandruff. Her mother also mentions noticing a small area of hair loss at the back of her head. Upon examination, you observe widespread scaling on the scalp and inflamed skin beneath the patch of hair loss. What steps do you take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send skin scrapings for analysis
Explanation:To effectively manage this fungal infection on the scalp, it is important to identify the specific organism responsible through skin scrapings. Coal tar shampoo may be a suitable treatment for managing dandruff or scalp psoriasis, but it will not address a fungal infection. Topical steroids are not effective against fungal infections. Depending on the type of fungus causing the infection, oral griseofulvin may be an appropriate treatment. Referral to a specialist is not necessary at this stage, as initial investigations can be conducted by primary care providers. This information is sourced from NICE CKS on fungal skin infections of the scalp.
Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.
Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.
Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.
In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus has a tender erythematous rash on her right leg. She has no drug allergies and no other predisposing risk factors. She has been taking flucloxacillin for seven days. The rash has been slow to respond but has not worsened. She is afebrile and feeling otherwise well.
What is the most appropriate drug option now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Cellulitis: A Comparison of Treatment Options
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. The choice of antibiotic treatment depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Here is a comparison of the most commonly used antibiotics for treating cellulitis:
Flucloxacillin: This antibiotic is recommended as the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis because it covers both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. A 7-day course is recommended, with a review after 2-3 days to ensure there is no worsening of the condition. If symptoms persist after 7 days, another 7-day course should be continued. If there is no improvement after 14 days, specialist advice or hospital admission should be considered.
Amoxicillin: This antibiotic is recommended for patients with lymphoedema who develop cellulitis. It is not the first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis.
Clarithromycin: This antibiotic is an alternative to flucloxacillin for patients with penicillin allergy. However, if the patient has no drug allergies, flucloxacillin is the preferred treatment.
Co-amoxiclav: This broad-spectrum antibiotic should be reserved for more severe infections to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. It is recommended for facial cellulitis close to the eyes or nose if intravenous treatment is not required.
Penicillin V: This antibiotic has a narrow spectrum and mainly covers streptococcal infections. It is not resistant to penicillinase, which most staphylococci produce, leading to resistance against penicillin V. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for cellulitis.
In conclusion, the choice of antibiotic treatment for cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history. Flucloxacillin is the preferred first-line treatment for uncomplicated cellulitis, while other antibiotics may be used for specific patient populations or in more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use presents with a fever and sore throat lasting for a week. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, fatigue, or bleeding gums.
While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan.
Although the monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, it is not the primary investigation that needs to be conducted urgently.
Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary as part of the overall management plan, it is not the most crucial initial investigation that needs to be performed urgently.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a fever that developed at home this morning. According to his mother, he has vomited twice and is now feeling very tired. During the examination, the child is cooperative and doesn't resist. His temperature is 38.1 degrees Celsius, and a non-blanching rash is visible on both thighs. What is the most appropriate initial step in managing this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin sodium 600mg
Explanation:For a child aged 1-9 years, the recommended single dose of benzylpenicillin sodium prior to hospitalisation is 600mg, provided that it doesn’t cause any delay in transferring the child to the hospital. Any other dosage would be inappropriate for children in this age group.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 156
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding Senior Independence Payment (SIP) is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has three components - care, mobility and housing
Explanation:There are two components to Personal Independence Payment, which are daily living and mobility.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 157
Incorrect
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Sara is a 26-year-old woman who has presented to her GP with difficulty breathing. She has a history of asthma and has been using her salbutamol inhaler regularly, but it has not been effective. Upon examination, bilateral wheezing is heard. Her oxygen saturation is 93%, and her peak expiratory flow is 190 L/min. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. After administering a nebulizer, her peak flow only increases to 200 L/min.
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her to the medical registrar for admission
Explanation:The patient’s peak flow has dropped to 40% of normal, indicating a severe exacerbation of asthma. According to NICE guidelines, admission is recommended if severe attack features persist after a bronchodilator trial. As the peak flow has not improved, hospitalization is necessary.
Administering another nebulizer is not advisable as the patient requires close monitoring and may need multiple nebulizers. Increasing the inhaled steroid dose and sending the patient home is also not recommended as it may lead to adverse outcomes.
Prescribing 40 mg prednisolone for 5 to 7 days is suitable for patients who can be treated at home, but not for this patient with severe asthma requiring inpatient assessment and management.
Antibiotics are only prescribed if the patient has no severe or life-threatening asthma features and shows signs of infection. As the patient’s asthma has not improved despite initial treatment, sending them home with antibiotics is not appropriate.
Understanding Acute Asthma: Symptoms and Severity
Acute asthma is a condition that is typically observed in individuals who have a history of asthma. It is characterized by worsening dyspnea, wheezing, and coughing that doesn’t respond to salbutamol. Acute asthma attacks may be triggered by respiratory tract infections. Patients with acute severe asthma are classified into three categories: moderate, severe, or life-threatening.
Moderate acute asthma is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) of 50-75% of the best or predicted value, normal speech, a respiratory rate (RR) of less than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of less than 110 beats per minute. Severe acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, inability to complete sentences, an RR of more than 25 breaths per minute, and a pulse rate of more than 110 beats per minute. Life-threatening acute asthma is characterized by a PEFR of less than 33% of the best or predicted value, oxygen saturation levels of less than 92%, a silent chest, cyanosis or feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, dysrhythmia or hypotension, and exhaustion, confusion, or coma.
It is important to note that a normal pCO2 in an acute asthma attack indicates exhaustion and should be classified as life-threatening. Understanding the symptoms and severity of acute asthma can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients experiencing an acute asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in the process of separating from his son's mother, and they have been married for twenty-five years.
What is the most appropriate action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seek consent from the son, and if he is competent, disclose only information that is not prejudicial to a third party with his consent
Explanation:Confidential Medical Records for Adolescents
When it comes to disclosing confidential medical records of a 15-year-old adolescent, it is important to consider their maturity level. If they are deemed ‘Gillick’ competent, then their decision to disclose or withhold their medical record should be respected. However, practitioners must carefully review any third-party information and any information that may cause harm to an individual’s physical or mental health. If necessary, this information can be withheld under the Data Protection Act 1998. It is crucial to handle confidential medical records with care to protect the privacy and well-being of adolescents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 159
Incorrect
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You are reviewing an 80-year-old gentleman. He is known to suffer with osteoarthritis affecting both knees but over the last couple of years his left knee has deteriorated and is giving him increasing pain and has started to affect his mobility.
He is a very active gentleman who walks his dog daily and maintains an independent lifestyle. He uses regular co-codamol 30/500 and PRN ibuprofen orally, and also topical capsaicin. He has recently been having some sessions with the physiotherapists and has had three steroid injections in the knee over the last year.
Although things are just about manageable at the moment he is concerned that the way his knee is going he will soon not be able to walk the dog and remain as independent. On occasion he has needed to use a walking stick when his knee has flared up and he tells you he is concerned about further worsening and having to rely on a walking aid more permanently. He is also concerned that his use of pain medication has escalated and that he has needed the steroid injections periodically.
He is overweight (BMI 29 kg/m2) and also smokes between 10 and 20 cigarettes a day.
He asks you about being referred for consideration of joint replacement surgery.
Which if the following is the correct approach in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient should be counselled about the risks and benefits of surgery and referral should be made without any further delay if the patient decides it is an appropriate option
Explanation:Referring Patients for Joint Replacement Surgery
Referring patients for joint replacement surgery can be a challenging decision. With the increasing demand for this procedure, healthcare professionals must consider various factors before making a referral. These factors include the severity of the patient’s symptoms, their overall health and any comorbidities, their functional abilities and expectations, and the effectiveness of non-surgical treatments.
Orthopaedic assessment tools such as the Oxford hip and knee scores can be helpful in evaluating the impact of osteoarthritis on daily activities. However, they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions. Similarly, x-rays may provide additional information, but they should not be relied upon as the only factor in making a referral decision.
It is important to note that factors such as smoking status, age, and comorbidities should not be used as obstacles to referral. While they may increase postoperative risks and affect long-term outcomes, some patients may still benefit greatly from joint replacement surgery.
In summary, joint replacement surgery should be considered for patients with osteoarthritis who experience significant symptoms that do not respond to non-surgical treatments. Referral should occur before functional limitations and severe pain develop, and the decision should be made collaboratively between the healthcare professional and the patient. Scoring tools and x-rays can be helpful adjuncts, but they should not be the sole basis for referral decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. During his workup, a urine pneumococcal antigen test is performed. According to a study, this test has a sensitivity of 68% and a specificity of 99%. What does the specificity value of 99% refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result
Explanation:Specificity refers to the percentage of patients who do not have the disease but test negative. A highly specific test would yield a high number of true negative results and a low rate of false positives. Sensitivity, on the other hand, refers to the percentage of patients with the disease who test positive. The negative predictive value represents the likelihood of patients without the condition receiving a negative test result, while the positive predictive value represents the opposite.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 161
Incorrect
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Which of the following indicate the presence of authentic stress incontinence (GSI)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Passage of large amounts of urine
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, and each has its own set of symptoms. Genuine stress incontinence is characterized by the loss of urine during physical activity such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or intercourse. The urine loss is immediate and often described as a squirt of urine.
On the other hand, detrusor dyssynergia (DD) is characterized by a sudden urge to urinate that may occur while at rest or after physical activity. This is followed by a large loss of urine. Dysuria, or painful urination, may indicate an infection of the bladder and urethra or irritation of the vulval and perineal epithelium due to the dribbling of urine.
In some cases, urinary incontinence may be associated with other pelvic relaxation problems such as cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
Select the single most likely cause of her rash.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measles virus
Explanation:Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
Free T4 35 pmol/L
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.
On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.
It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primiparous woman is brought to the General Practice surgery by her concerned partner. She delivered a healthy baby born seven days ago.
Within two days of delivery, she told her husband that she thought he was poisoning her food. She thinks someone is watching her and they want to take her baby away. She has heard voices telling her she doesn't deserve to have a family. She has not had a bath in six days.
Which is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary Mental Health services for immediate assessment within four hours
Explanation:Management of Postnatal Psychosis
Postnatal psychosis is a serious mental health condition that requires urgent assessment and management. It is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, as well as negative symptoms like emotional apathy and social withdrawal. The recommended treatment for postnatal psychosis is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), which can help manage depression and other symptoms. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline are not typically used to treat postnatal psychosis. Midwives can provide additional support for women experiencing postnatal depression, but urgent referral to secondary mental health services is necessary for those with postnatal psychosis. Immediate assessment within four hours is recommended for those with severe symptoms, while urgent assessment within seven days is necessary for those with less severe symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 165
Incorrect
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How is the BCG vaccine administered for infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intradermally
Explanation:The BCG vaccine is a form of immunization that provides limited protection against tuberculosis (TB). In the UK, it is typically given to high-risk infants and was previously administered to children at the age of 13 years until 2005. The Greenbook recommends that the vaccine be given to infants living in areas with an annual incidence of TB of 40/100,000 or greater, as well as infants with a parent or grandparent born in a country with a similar incidence rate. Other groups that should receive the vaccine include previously unvaccinated contacts of respiratory TB cases, healthcare workers, prison staff, and those who work with homeless people.
The vaccine contains live attenuated Mycobacterium bovis and also offers limited protection against leprosy. Before receiving the BCG vaccine, individuals must undergo a tuberculin skin test, with the exception of children under six years old who have had no contact with tuberculosis. The vaccine is administered intradermally to the lateral aspect of the left upper arm and can be given at the same time as other live vaccines, with a four-week interval if not administered simultaneously.
There are several contraindications for the BCG vaccine, including previous vaccination, a history of tuberculosis, HIV, pregnancy, and a positive tuberculin test. It is not recommended for individuals over the age of 35, as there is no evidence that it is effective for this age group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male patient complains of a painless scrotal swelling on the right side that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a soft non-tender swelling is observed on the right side of the scrotum that transilluminates with a pen torch. Palpation of the testicle reveals an irregular, hard swelling. The patient is afebrile and there is no erythema. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for urgent scrotal ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is the recommended first-line investigation for a testicular mass. It is important to note that a new hydrocele could be a sign of testicular malignancy, especially in males aged 20-40 years old who are at the highest risk. Therefore, NICE guidelines state that urgent scrotal ultrasound is necessary for investigating new hydroceles in this age group. It is not appropriate to simply reassure the patient or request a routine ultrasound or outpatient review, as this could delay the diagnosis of malignancy. Blood tests to check for tumour markers may be appropriate after the identification of suspected testicular malignancy.
Testicular cancer is a common type of cancer that affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. The majority of cases (95%) are germ-cell tumors, which can be further classified as seminomas or non-seminomas. Non-germ cell tumors, such as Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas, are less common. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis. Symptoms may include a painless lump, pain, hydrocele, and gynaecomastia.
Tumour markers can be used to diagnose testicular cancer. For germ cell tumors, hCG may be elevated in seminomas, while AFP and/or beta-hCG are elevated in non-seminomas. LDH may also be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool.
Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for Stage I seminomas and 85% for Stage I teratomas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A patient who is also a nurse contacts you for information regarding Addison's disease. Her teenage daughter is currently undergoing tests in the hospital, and it is highly probable that she will be diagnosed with the condition. The patient wants to know what kind of treatment her daughter will receive.
In Addison's disease, the replacement therapy typically involves fludrocortisone, potentially dehydroepiandrosterone, and which other substance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s Disease: A Primary Adrenocortical Deficiency
Addison’s disease is a primary adrenocortical deficiency that affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 50, with a higher incidence in females than males. This condition results in reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids.
Glucocorticoids are hormones that regulate metabolism and immune function, while mineralocorticoids help regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Sex steroids play a role in sexual development and reproductive function.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can be vague and nonspecific, including fatigue, weakness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. If left untreated, the condition can lead to a life-threatening adrenal crisis. Treatment typically involves hormone replacement therapy to restore the body’s hormone levels.
Overall, Addison’s disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual medication review for a 70-year-old female patient with a medical history of hypertension and a myocardial infarction 6 years ago. During her blood test taken a week ago, her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) was found to be 45 mL/min/1.73 m2, indicating reduced kidney function and a possible diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient is curious about what other tests are needed to confirm CKD, aside from repeating her kidney function test in 3 months. What other tests should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should bring in an early morning urine sample to be dipped for haematuria and sent for urine ACR calculation
Explanation:To diagnose CKD in a patient with an eGFR <60, it is necessary to measure the creatinine level in the blood, obtain an early morning urine sample for ACR testing, and dip the urine for haematuria. CKD is confirmed when these tests show a persistent reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. Proteinuria is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease and mortality, and an early morning urine sample is preferred for ACR analysis. The patient should provide another blood sample after 90 days to confirm the diagnosis of CKD. Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother, who has concerns about his mobility. He is having progressive difficulty with standing from the floor. He was able to sit unaided at 12 months and walk at 22 months. He has not been able to run, tending to ‘waddle’ if he tries.
On examination, he has wasting to the quadriceps and calves, and a positive Gowers sign.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:The case involves a boy with DMD, a common childhood-onset muscular dystrophy with X-linked recessive inheritance. Symptoms include developmental delay, inability to run, waddling gait, and wasting of leg muscles. DDH, BMD, cerebral palsy, and T1DM are ruled out as possible causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter, who is a Psychiatric Nurse, for a consultation. The daughter reports that she and other relatives have noticed a change in the patient’s behaviour and believes that he is experiencing ‘delirium, but certainly not dementia’.
Which of the following findings is most likely, assuming the daughter’s assessment of the patient is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Altered consciousness
Explanation:Distinguishing Delirium from Dementia: Key Differences to Note
When it comes to altered consciousness, delirium often causes wild fluctuations in consciousness level, while dementia typically only affects consciousness in severe cases. Additionally, delirium has an acute onset over hours to days, while dementia develops more gradually over months to years. Delirium is usually diagnosed within days of onset, while dementia is typically diagnosed 2-3 years after symptoms begin. Symptoms of delirium tend to fluctuate over the course of 24 hours, while dementia symptoms slowly worsen over time. Finally, while delirium can be reversible with early treatment of the underlying cause, dementia cannot be reversed, though treatment may slow its progression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried he might have a stroke. Which of the following is the single, strongest risk factor for developing a stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and smoking are all factors that increase the risk of developing a stroke. However, among these options, hypertension is the most significant risk factor for stroke. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, leading to a stroke. Therefore, it is crucial to manage hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication to reduce the risk of stroke. By controlling hypertension, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a follow-up appointment. His FEV1 is 60% of the predicted value. He has successfully quit smoking and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, he still experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing. There is no indication of asthma, eosinophilia, or FEV1 fluctuations.
What would be the best course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a combined long-acting beta2-agonist and long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler
Explanation:If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and doesn’t exhibit any features that suggest responsiveness to steroids or asthma, the recommended course of action according to the 2018 NICE guidelines is to introduce a combination of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to the emergency surgery department with a fever and a blotchy rash. Her mother reports that the rash started behind her ears and has now spread all over her body. During the examination, you observe clusters of white lesions on the buccal mucosa. The child has not received any vaccinations.
What is the potential complication that this child may face?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumonia is a common complication of measles and can be fatal, especially in children. The measles virus can damage the lower respiratory tract epithelium, which weakens the local immunity in the lungs and leads to pneumonia.
Aside from pneumonia, measles can also cause other complications such as otitis media, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased risk of appendicitis, and myocarditis. Treatment for measles usually involves rest, fluids, and pain relief.
If a person has measles, it is important to inform the local Health Protection Team (HPT) and avoid going to school or work for at least four days after the rash appears.
Mumps, on the other hand, can cause complications such as orchitis, oophoritis, pancreatitis, and viral meningitis. Symptoms of mumps include fever, headache, swelling of the parotid glands, and general malaise.
Kawasaki disease, a different illness, can lead to coronary artery aneurysm. Symptoms of Kawasaki disease include high fever, rash, conjunctival injection, red and cracked hands, feet, and lips, and swollen lymph glands.
It is important to note that otitis media, not otitis externa, is a complication of measles.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease
Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.
The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for six months. The patient recently underwent spirometry testing with the practice nurse and the post bronchodilator results are as follows:
- FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.64
- FEV1 (% predicted) 60%
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer Long Acting Beta Agonist + Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist
Explanation:Management of Moderate COPD
Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for such patients would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, NICE recommends the use of a long acting beta agonist plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist. In cases where a long acting muscarinic antagonist is given, the short acting muscarinic antagonist should be stopped.
Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended for moderate COPD. Instead, they should be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with an FEV1 < 50%. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended. Antitussive therapy is also not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old, Afro-Caribbean woman was offered an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to screen for gestational diabetes at 24 weeks gestation. She contacts you to discuss the outcome of her OGTT exam.
What result indicates a diagnosis in accordance with NICE recommendations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A fasting glucose of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose of 7.8 mmol/L
Explanation:To diagnose gestational diabetes, the fasting glucose level should be equal to or greater than 5.6 mmol/L or the 2-hour glucose level should be equal to or greater than 7.8 mmol/L. According to NICE guidance, either of these criteria can be used for OGTT diagnosis. Therefore, the correct diagnosis would be a fasting glucose level of 4.8 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L. The other options are incorrect as they do not meet the diagnostic threshold, and NICE doesn’t consider 1-hour glucose results in their criteria. It is worth noting that SIGN guidance has different diagnostic criteria.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He expresses concerns that she may be spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office as her. He has had similar experiences in past relationships and feels as though he will never find the perfect partner, leading to mood swings and feelings of loneliness. He also admits to self-harming but denies any suicidal thoughts. Following a risk assessment, he is referred to psychiatry and diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this 28-year-old man with borderline personality disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:If a child is under 3 months old and has a temperature above 38ºC, it is considered a ‘red’ characteristic in the updated NICE guidelines, necessitating immediate referral to a pediatrician.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 179
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man has come in after doing some research on the internet. He was seen by an ophthalmologist 2 weeks ago and has been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. The ophthalmologist has suggested that there are no active treatments for this condition and has referred him for visual rehabilitation. He has read about the use of beta-carotene to slow progression of his condition.
Which of the following options would make it inadvisable for him to take beta-carotene supplements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Past history of smoking
Explanation:Supplements and Their Risks and Benefits
Previously recommended supplements contained beta-carotene, but it is no longer recommended for smokers and ex-smokers due to the possible increase in lung cancer risk. However, high-dose vitamin and mineral supplements may slow the progression of age-related macular degeneration. This includes vitamin C, vitamin E, beta-carotene (vitamin A), zinc oxide, and cupric oxide. Those who may benefit are those with advanced age-related macular degeneration or visual loss in one year and people with intermediate age-related macular degeneration who have extensive drusen.
It is important to note that high doses of beta-carotene can cause harmless yellowing of the skin, but it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections and stones and urinary retention. Beta-carotene has been associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in people who smoke or who have been exposed to asbestos. One study of 29,000 male smokers found an 18% increase in lung cancer in the group receiving 20 mg of beta-carotene a day for 5 to 8 years. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risks and benefits of supplements before taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man resides in a care home and has a history of a learning disability, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and hip osteoarthritis. His carers suspect that he is experiencing pain due to his osteoarthritis, but paracetamol is not providing relief. They request that you prescribe an alternative pain management solution. What is the most appropriate approach to managing pain in an individual with a learning disability? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behavioural changes frequently indicate pain
Explanation:Managing Pain in Individuals with Learning Disabilities
Individuals with learning disabilities may have difficulty communicating their pain, making it important to consider pain as a potential cause of behavioural changes. While some may have communication or learning problems, the majority can still communicate their pain. Caregivers and family members are valuable sources of information in recognizing changes in behaviour. Treatment of pain should not differ from those without learning disabilities, and the WHO analgesic ladder should be used with normal doses. Contrary to popular belief, individuals with learning disabilities have the same pain threshold as the general population. While straightforward questions may not always be appropriate, most individuals with learning disabilities can still communicate their pain effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 182
Incorrect
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What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of acute severe asthma in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60 mg daily for at least 10 days
Explanation:Effective Treatment for Acute Asthma
When it comes to treating acute asthma, steroid tablets and injected steroids are equally effective. A dose of oral prednisolone of 40-50 mg per day for at least five days or intravenous hydrocortisone 400 mg can be used. It is important to continue taking prednisolone until recovery, which should be a minimum of five days. Additionally, it is important to not stop inhaled corticosteroids during the prescription of oral corticosteroids. By following these key points, patients can effectively manage their acute asthma symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 183
Incorrect
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You see a 75-year-old male patient with back pain. He reports having lower back pain for the past year, which has gradually worsened. The pain now radiates bilaterally to his buttocks, thighs, and legs, with the left leg being worse than the right. He describes the pain as 'cramping' and 'burning'. Walking for more than a few minutes causes weakness and numbness in his legs, which improves when he sits down and leans forward. Standing exacerbates the symptoms, and he has lost his independence and now uses a walking aid. His wife has noticed a more stooped posture than 12 months ago.
The patient's medical history includes hypertension, which is controlled with medication. He has never smoked and has a normal BMI. On examination, he has a wide-based gait, and neurological examination of his lower limbs is normal. Peripheral pulses feel normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation and examination findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal stenosis
Explanation:A patient who experiences gradual leg and back pain, weakness, and numbness while walking, with a normal clinical examination, is most likely suffering from spinal stenosis. This condition is characterized by symptoms that are relieved by sitting and leaning forward, and worsened by walking, especially on flat surfaces. Although physical examination findings are often normal in patients with lumbar spinal stenosis, it is important to rule out other conditions such as vascular claudication. Sciatica, which typically presents with unilateral leg pain, is less likely to be the cause of these symptoms.
Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis
Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.
Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.
After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.
Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalized aches and lack of energy. Her urea and electrolyte concentrations are within normal limits, but her corrected calcium concentration is 1.98 mmol/L (2.2-2.6) and phosphate is low at 0.66 mmol/L (0.8-1.4). Further investigations reveal a 25-hydroxy vitamin D level of 12 IU/L (15-50) and a parathyroid hormone level of 25 (3-6). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin D Deficiency and Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
This patient is experiencing vitamin D deficiency, which is indicated by a low 25-hydroxy vitamin D level and resulting hypocalcaemia. As a metabolic compensation, the patient is experiencing secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is demonstrated by elevated parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. It is important to note that in primary hyperparathyroidism, one would expect an elevated calcium concentration and low phosphate. However, in cases of pseudohypoparathyroidism and pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism, an elevated phosphate would be expected. By understanding the specific metabolic compensations and symptoms associated with different conditions, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that Ranitidine is unavailable due to a manufacturing problem and GP practices in the area are advised to prescribe Cimetidine as a potential cost-effective alternative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Cimetidine and Nifedipine Interaction
Cimetidine and nifedipine have a severe interaction as cimetidine moderately increases the exposure to nifedipine. The manufacturer advises monitoring and adjusting the dose accordingly. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes interactions as severe (red) or moderate (amber). While the list of amber interactions for a drug can be extensive, it is crucial to focus on the most severe (red) ones, especially when it comes to exams or clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a five-day history of lower abdominal/pelvic pain and a raised temperature. She had an IUCD inserted two weeks ago. On examination, a pregnancy test is negative, she has a small amount of vaginal discharge, and there are white blood cells present on dipstick test of her urine. What is the probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of PID Following IUCD Insertion
The most probable diagnosis in cases of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is following the insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD). To support the diagnosis, swabs should be taken, although negative results do not necessarily rule out PID if there are clinical indications.
Expert opinions differ on whether to remove the IUCD at the time of presentation. However, if symptoms persist after 72 hours, the IUCD should be removed. Proper diagnosis and management of PID following IUCD insertion are crucial to prevent complications and ensure the patient’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous for the condition. During the consultation, you suggest screening her family members. She mentions that her father has normal cholesterol levels. What is the likelihood that her brother will also be impacted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 188
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate management for post-herpetic neuralgia in a 75-year-old man who is still experiencing it three months after suffering an attack of thoracic herpes zoster?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline is the first line treatment for neuropathic pain uncontrolled by simple analgesia
Explanation:Managing Neuropathic Pain: NICE Guidelines and Recommended Treatments
Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, but the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals choose the most effective treatments. According to NICE, the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain (excluding trigeminal neuralgia) are oral amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. These medications should be tried one at a time, and the dosage can be gradually increased until pain is controlled or side effects occur.
It’s important to note that using amitriptyline for neuropathic pain is an unlicensed indication, but it has been shown to be effective. If the first-line treatments don’t work, another one should be tried. Tramadol is not recommended for regular use in a non-specialist setting, but it can be used as rescue therapy. Strong opioids like morphine should also be avoided.
For people with localized neuropathic pain who cannot tolerate oral treatments, capsaicin cream may be a good option. However, the intense burning sensation may limit its use. Versatis® is licensed for post-herpetic neuralgia, but it should only be used for 12 hours a day, followed by a 12-hour plaster-free period. If there is no response after four weeks, it should be discontinued. While NICE doesn’t comment on its use, the Scottish Medicines Consortium accepts it as a treatment option when first-line therapies are ineffective or not tolerated.
In summary, managing neuropathic pain requires a tailored approach, and healthcare professionals should work closely with their patients to find the most effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is NOT inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:The following are X-linked conditions: Duchenne/Becker, haemophilia, and G6PD.
X-Linked Recessive Conditions: Inherited Disorders with Varying Patterns
X-linked recessive conditions are genetic disorders that are inherited in a specific manner. These conditions are caused by mutations in genes located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. As a result, these conditions are more common in males than in females, as males only have one X chromosome while females have two.
Some of the most well-known X-linked recessive conditions include Duchenne muscular dystrophy, haemophilia A and B, and colour blindness. Other conditions such as Fabry’s disease, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, and Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome are also inherited in this manner.
It is important to note that some diseases have varying patterns of inheritance, with the majority being in an X-linked recessive fashion. For example, chronic granulomatous disease is inherited in over 70% of cases in an X-linked recessive manner. Understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is terminally ill with carcinoma of the pancreas. He has abdominal and back pain and his analgesic combination of full doses of paracetamol and codeine is no longer controlling this.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication: A Guide to Opioids and Adjuvants
When it comes to managing pain, healthcare professionals often follow the World Health Organization’s analgesic ladder. This involves starting with non-opioid medications, such as paracetamol, and weak opioids, such as codeine, before moving on to stronger opioids like morphine if necessary.
In cases where bone pain or soft tissue infiltration is present, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen can be added as an adjuvant at any step in pain management. However, it is important to note that these adjuvants are unlikely to be a substitute for stronger opioids like morphine.
Dihydrocodeine and tramadol are both weak opioids and are therefore unlikely to provide significant pain relief in cases where stronger medication is needed. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, is an adjuvant typically used for neuropathic pain and is unlikely to be effective in this scenario.
For patients who require a strong opioid but are unable to take oral medication, fentanyl may be prescribed as a transdermal patch. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication and adjuvants will depend on the individual patient’s needs and the severity of their pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.
One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.
Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.
It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.
In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and positive antiphospholipid antibodies requests to restart the combined pill. She is currently on hydroxychloroquine monotherapy and has a healthy BMI and blood pressure. She doesn't smoke and has no personal or family history of venous or arterial thrombosis or breast cancer.
What advice would you give regarding her request to restart the combined pill?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is an unacceptably high clinical risk and she cannot use the pill anymore
Explanation:Due to the presence of positive antiphospholipid antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is classified as UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use UKMEC 4, which is an absolute contraindication. The risk of arterial and venous thrombosis is unacceptably high, and alternative contraceptive options should be considered. It should be noted that the isolated presence of antiphospholipid antibodies, but not the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome, is also classified as UKMEC 4. If the patient had SLE without antiphospholipid antibodies or did not test positive again after 12 weeks, the use of the COCP would be classified as UKMEC 2. The statement that the advantages of using the pill generally outweigh the risks is not correct, as this is equivalent to UKMEC 2. The statement that the risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the COCP is also not correct, as this is equivalent to UKMEC 3. Finally, the statement that there is no risk or contraindication to restarting the COCP is not correct, as this is equivalent to UKMEC 1.
Contraindications for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential cautions and contraindications on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 represents a condition for which there is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method, while UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, immobility, and a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension.
In 2016, the UKMEC was updated to reflect that breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum is now classified as UKMEC 2 instead of UKMEC 3. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. It is important for healthcare providers to consider these contraindications when deciding whether to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill to their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 193
Incorrect
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You have been caring for a 50-year-old man with chronic lower back pain for a while now. As you review his medications, you notice that he has been taking regular paracetamol, PRN NSAIDs, and oral morphine. He is currently taking a total of 120mg of morphine within 24 hours, but he is uncertain if it has ever been effective and requests an increase in dosage. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing his pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to a different opioid
Explanation:Maximum Oral Morphine Use and Tapering Off
The Faculty of Pain Management has established a maximum threshold for oral morphine use to prevent harm without additional benefits. The maximum dose should not exceed 120mg/day of oral morphine equivalent. In cases where patients report no benefit from the medication, it is sensible to taper them off completely. This approach is unlikely to lead to increased pain and can free the patient from opioid-related side effects. Switching to a different opioid or route of administration is also unlikely to be beneficial if the patient has reported no benefit from the current dose. Immediate-release preparations can provide flexibility in dosing, and patients can be encouraged to avoid taking opioids whenever possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review. He reports experiencing evening headaches for the past four weeks that start from his neck and extend to the occipital area. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Common Types of Headaches and Their Clinical Features
Tension Headache:
A tension headache can be diagnosed when the headache is featureless, without any accompanying symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement. This differentiates it from migraine, which typically presents with one or more of these features and is the main differential diagnosis. Tension headaches can be either chronic or episodic.Cluster Headache:
Cluster headache is a severe unilateral pain that is localized in or around the eye and is accompanied by ipsilateral autonomic features such as lacrimation and rhinorrhea. These attacks occur in bouts lasting 6-12 weeks, once or twice a year, often at the same time each year. A chronic form of cluster headache also exists.Fibromyalgia:
Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain disorder characterized by chronic widespread pain, unrefreshing sleep, and fatigue. Pain occurs at multiple sites, including headaches, which may be migrainous.Migraine:
Migraine is the main differential diagnosis for tension headache. However, it typically presents with one or more of the following symptoms: nausea/vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, or aggravation with movement, which are not reported by patients with tension headaches.Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus:
Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a condition that usually affects elderly patients and is characterized by ventricular dilatation in the absence of raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure. It is characterized by a triad of gait abnormality (similar to Parkinson’s), urinary or bowel incontinence, and dementia. The dementia is potentially reversible. About half of the cases are idiopathic, while the remainder may be secondary to meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, tumor, or head injury. Headache is rarely present in normal pressure hydrocephalus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and drained and requests some tests. She has a medical history of hypertension treated with valsartan, chronic atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure managed with digoxin and furosemide, and asthma for which she uses salbutamol. During the examination, her potassium level is measured and found to be low at 3.1 mmol/l. Which medication is the probable culprit for her hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salbutamol
Explanation:Medications and their effects on potassium levels
Whilst both salbutamol and furosemide can lead to hypokalaemia, furosemide has a more significant impact on potassium levels at therapeutic doses. On the other hand, digoxin toxicity may cause vomiting and hypokalaemia, but it is not directly linked to low potassium levels. In contrast, spironolactone and valsartan are known to cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels to ensure appropriate monitoring and management of electrolyte imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old nursing student comes to you with a 2-year history of low mood, anhedonia, and poor concentration. She has been taking fluoxetine for 6 months and wants to switch to a different antidepressant. What important factors do you need to consider when changing her medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Long half-life
Explanation:Compared to other SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life. Therefore, it is recommended to wait for about 4-7 days after discontinuing fluoxetine before starting a new antidepressant. Although fluoxetine undergoes first-pass metabolism and is excreted through the kidneys, this doesn’t affect the process of switching to another antidepressant. Instead, it may impact the appropriateness of fluoxetine for a specific patient.
Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants
When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.
When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.
If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.
Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with macular degeneration seeks guidance on antioxidant dietary supplements. Is there any reason why such supplements should not be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Current smoker
Explanation:Antioxidant dietary supplements are not recommended for smokers due to the increased risk of lung cancer associated with beta-carotene.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli
Explanation:Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention
Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.
To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old phlebotomist accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient with a known HIV infection. What is the likelihood of the phlebotomist contracting HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.30%
Explanation:Compared to hepatitis B and C, the transmission rate of HIV is relatively low.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 200
Incorrect
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Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 2 months ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help.
Emma has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for Emma to commence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take SSRIs such as sertraline or paroxetine as the amount of antidepressant passed on to the infant through breast milk is very low and not considered harmful. Therefore, it is recommended that women with postnatal depression continue to breastfeed while receiving antidepressant treatment.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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