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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her newly diagnosed arrhythmia and expresses...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman is prescribed amiodarone for her newly diagnosed arrhythmia and expresses concern to her General Practitioner about its impact on her thyroid function due to her past medical history of autoantibody-positive hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor the patient’s thyroid function and discontinue amiodarone if it becomes deranged

      Correct Answer: Monitor thyroid function three months after starting amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Monitoring and Amiodarone Use: What Patients Need to Know

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, but it can also cause thyroid dysfunction. Patients on this drug should have their thyroid function regularly monitored, with a baseline check and another three months after starting the medication. Patients with a history of hypothyroidism can still use amiodarone, but with more stringent monitoring. Those with thyroid autoantibodies are at increased risk of drug-induced hyperthyroidism. If thyroid function becomes deranged, amiodarone may need to be discontinued or thyroxine supplements dose-adjusted. Regular thyroid monitoring is crucial for patients on amiodarone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statement regarding the 2010 Mental Capacity Act is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Applies to patients of any age

      Explanation:

      The Mental Capacity Act is not applicable to minors. It is important to presume that all patients have the ability to make decisions, regardless of their condition, until it is demonstrated otherwise.

      The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.

      To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.

      When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an episode of collapse. He tells you that on a few occasions whilst playing basketball he has had some chest pain and breathlessness, and has felt as though he were going to faint. Last night during practice he collapsed and 'blacked out' for a few seconds. On examination he has a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a palpable systolic thrill at the left sternal edge; and a prominent jerky carotid pulse. What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition caused by left ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to septal hypertrophy. It can be inherited or sporadic, and a family history of sudden death should be considered. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, pre-syncope, and syncope. Clinical signs include a ‘jerky’ pulse, double apex impulse, and a prominent systolic thrill with a harsh ejection systolic murmur.

      Brugada syndrome is a rare inherited cardiac condition that can cause sudden cardiac death. It is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the cardiac sodium channels and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.

      Long-QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired and predisposes to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. Causes include various drugs, ischaemic heart disease, and metabolic abnormalities such as hypocalcaemia.

      Pericarditis can present acutely with chest pain that worsens when lying flat and with inspiration. A pericardial rub may be audible, and causes include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and systemic diseases.

      Constrictive pericarditis occurs when the pericardium becomes rigid and mainly leads to signs of right heart failure. Clinical signs include a diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, and Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rises with inspiration paradoxically). It can occur after an episode of acute pericarditis.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway that conducts between the atrium and ventricle, facilitating abnormal conduction and often presenting with supraventricular tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?

      Your Answer: Baked potato

      Explanation:

      Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.

      Understanding the Glycaemic Index

      The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.

      Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.

      The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding adolescent health surveillance in the UK is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: The midwife should visit the mother for at least the first 2 weeks following birth

      Correct Answer: The health visitor distraction test is the first screening test done on infants hearing

      Explanation:

      The primary screening test for infant hearing is now the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme, which is replacing distraction testing. Midwives rarely conduct visits beyond 4 weeks in their daily routine.

      Child Health Surveillance in the UK

      Child health surveillance in the UK involves a series of checks and tests to ensure the well-being of children from before birth to Preschool age. During the antenatal period, healthcare professionals ensure that the baby is growing properly and check for any maternal infections that may affect the baby. After birth, a clinical examination is conducted, and the newborn hearing screening programme is carried out to detect any hearing problems. The mother is also given a Personal Child Health Record.

      Within the first month, a heel-prick test is conducted to check for hypothyroidism, PKU, metabolic diseases, cystic fibrosis, and medium-chain acyl Co-A dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD). A midwife visit may also be conducted within the first four weeks. In the following months, health visitor input is provided, and a GP examination is conducted at 6-8 weeks. Routine immunisations are also given during this time.

      Preschool children are screened for vision problems through a national orthoptist-led programme. Ongoing monitoring of growth, vision, and hearing is conducted, and health professionals provide advice on immunisations, diet, and accident prevention. Although midwife visits are supposed to occur up to four weeks after birth, in practice, health visitors usually take over at two weeks. Overall, child health surveillance in the UK aims to ensure that children receive the necessary care and support for their physical and developmental well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner, reporting changes in her skin over the past year. She has noticed several pale patches on her fingers and wrists of both hands, as well as similar areas on her abdomen.
      She had a history of mild acne in her teenage years, treated with topical creams and antibiotics.
      Upon examination, there are well-defined, white lesions on the dorsum of both hands over the fingers and on the palmar surface of both wrists. The borders are smooth. The lesions are flat and non-itchy.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Symmetrical Acquired Depigmentation

      Symmetrical acquired depigmentation is a common skin condition that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the history and examination findings suggest vitiligo as the most likely diagnosis. Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder that results in the destruction of melanocytes in the skin, leading to smooth, well-demarcated, milky white lesions with no scale. It can occur alone or alongside other autoimmune disorders.

      Other possible differentials include lichen sclerosus, which is a chronic skin disorder that affects the genital and perianal areas, but is usually seen in women over the age of 50 and doesn’t affect the hands. Pityriasis alba, characterised by flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation on the skin, is generally asymptomatic and often found on the cheeks and upper arms, but is unlikely in this patient as there is no history of flaky pink patches and hypopigmentation. Tinea versicolor, a common yeast infection of the skin, appears as flaky discoloured patches on the chest and back, but there are no lesions on the trunk seen in this patient and no indication that the lesions are flaky.

      Lastly, steroid-induced skin depigmentation is unlikely in this patient as the steroid use was historical and ceased 13 years ago, and only involved mildly potent steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
    Investigations...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner following an Occupational Health screen.
      Investigations have shown the following hepatitis B (HBV) serology:
      Test Result
      HBsAg
      (Hepatitis B surface antigen)
      Positive
      HBeAg
      (Hepatitis B e-antigen)
      Positive
      Anti-HBs
      (Antibody to HBsAg)
      Negative
      Anti-HBe
      (Antibody to HBeAg)
      Negative
      Anti-HBc IgG
      (Antibody to hepatitis B core-antigen immunoglobulin G)
      Positive
      Which of the following most accurately reflects this patient’s HBV status?

      Your Answer: Persistent carrier, high infectivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Understanding the results of hepatitis B tests is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here, we will discuss the different test results and what they mean.

      Persistent Carrier with High Infectivity:
      If a patient is positive for surface antigen, e-antigen, and core antibody, and negative for surface antibodies and e-antibodies, it suggests chronic carrier status. The presence of e-antigen confers high infectivity, indicating active viral replication. Core antibodies are a marker of past infection and will not be found in vaccinated individuals who have never been infected.

      Persistent Carrier with Low Infectivity:
      If a patient is positive for surface antigen and core antibody, but negative for e-antigen and e-antibodies, it suggests a moderately high viral load and elevated ALT levels. This is caused by a hepatitis B virus that has certain mutations (pre-core mutation) that allow the virus to replicate even when the e-antigen is absent.

      Previous Vaccination against Hepatitis B:
      If a patient has surface antibodies but not core antibodies, it indicates previous vaccination against hepatitis B.

      Spontaneously Cleared Infection:
      If a patient has lost surface antigen and developed surface antibodies, it marks seroconversion and indicates immunity. If IgM antibodies to core antigen (anti-HBc IgM) are present, it indicates recent infection.

      In conclusion, understanding hepatitis B test results is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for interpretation of test results and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 74-year-old woman who had an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis two months ago for which she takes apixaban. She presents to her GP following a 20-minute episode of unilateral arm weakness that occurred 2 hours ago and has now completely resolved. Her neurological examination is normal.

      What should her initial management be?

      Your Answer: Immediate referral to the emergency department for imaging

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and is taking warfarin, a DOAC, or has a bleeding disorder, they must be admitted immediately for imaging to rule out a haemorrhage.

      For patients without these conditions, administering 300 mg of aspirin immediately and then evaluating them by a specialist within 24 hours is recommended. The primary secondary prevention method is taking clopidogrel 75 mg once daily.

      Referring patients to neurology as a routine measure would cause an unnecessary delay in treatment.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

    Negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

      Negative for Anti-HBs
      Positive for Anti-HBc
      Positive for HBs antigen
      Negative for IgM anti-HBc

      What is the hepatitis B status of this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous immunisation to hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive result for anti-HBc IgG, negative result for anti-HBc IgM, and negative result for anti-HBc while HBsAg is present, it indicates that the person has a chronic HBV infection. The absence of IgM anti-HBc suggests that the infection is not acute but rather long-term.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding...

    Correct

    • A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding a patient's antibiotic prescribing and monitoring. She has initiated treatment with antibiotics and after a period of stable monitoring, has entered into a shared care agreement with you for ongoing prescribing and monitoring, with any future dose changes initiated by the consultant.
      With regard to shared care prescribing, the legal responsibility for prescribing lies with:

      Your Answer: Both the specialist and the GP

      Explanation:

      Legal Responsibility for Prescribing

      According to the British National Formulary, the Department of Health has advised that legal responsibility for prescribing lies with the doctor who signs the prescription. This guideline is outlined in circular EL (91) 127, which clarifies the responsibility for prescribing between hospitals and general practitioners.

      Prescribing issues are a popular examination theme, and it is important to remember this guidance when answering related questions. By understanding that the doctor who signs the prescription holds legal responsibility, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective prescribing practices. Remembering this key point can help prevent errors and ensure patient safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      337.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman has had a fall. She has been well all her life and has rarely had to see the doctor. She smokes 10 cigarettes a week. Examination is unremarkable other than a left-sided ptosis and some slight thinning of the muscles of her left hand, which she thinks might be long-standing.
      What is the most probable reason for her left-sided ptosis?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Causes and Characteristics of Unilateral Ptosis and Lid Lag in Thyrotoxicosis

      Unilateral ptosis, or drooping of one eyelid, can be caused by disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris, Horner syndrome, or a third nerve palsy. Local inflammation of the conjunctiva can also lead to ptosis. Myasthenia gravis typically results in bilateral ptosis, but it may be asymmetrical.

      Disinsertion of the aponeurosis of the levator palpabrae superioris is characterized by the loss of the crease normally seen on the upper eyelid and is often due to dysfunction of the superior rectus and levator muscles. It may be iatrogenic or degenerative due to senility.

      Lid lag, where the upper eyelid lags behind the upper edge of the iris as the eye moves downward, is a common characteristic of thyrotoxicosis. A similar phenomenon can occur with the lower edge when the eye moves upwards.

      In cases where weakness of hand muscles is present, a T1 root lesion is likely, indicating Horner syndrome. Miosis, or constriction of the pupil, can be subtle and easily missed. In smokers, a high suspicion of a Pancoast’s tumor (apical pulmonary tumor) should be considered in patients with such a presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules...

    Correct

    • From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules 2, 3, or 4 under the Misuse of Drugs regulations 2001 (and subsequent amendments), how many days is it considered valid?

      Your Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs

      Prescriptions for medications and controlled drugs must adhere to specific guidelines to ensure patient safety and prevent misuse. A prescription for medication is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription, and the quantity prescribed should not exceed a 30-day supply unless exceptional circumstances are clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to even stricter regulations, including requirements for indelible prescriptions signed and dated by the prescriber, specifying the prescriber’s address, and stating the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, and the dose. A pharmacist cannot dispense a controlled drug unless all required information is provided on the prescription. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and appropriate use of medications and controlled drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old woman comes in with a 2-month history of significant fatigue. She had initial blood tests for 'always feeling tired' 3 weeks ago, which showed no abnormalities. Additionally, she reports experiencing tingling sensations in both legs for the past 10 days.

      However, what brought her in today was an exacerbation of right-sided eye pain when moving her eye and some loss of color vision.

      What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Lethargy is a common early symptom of multiple sclerosis, an autoimmune condition that affects the myelin in the brain and spinal cord. The patient’s description of symptoms of optic neuritis is also typical of multiple sclerosis. Lyme disease can sometimes mimic multiple sclerosis, but there is no history of a tick bite. Myasthenia gravis, which causes weakness and fatigue, is not likely to cause paresthesia or optic neuritis. Sarcoidosis, a systemic inflammatory disease that often presents with fatigue, is a potential option, but multiple sclerosis is more likely to cause optic neuritis.

      Features of Multiple Sclerosis

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition that can present with nonspecific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis is based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect various parts of the body, leading to different symptoms. Visual symptoms include optic neuritis, optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome. Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms may include ataxia and tremor. Other symptoms may include urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration.

      It is important to note that MS symptoms can vary greatly between individuals and may change over time. Therefore, it is crucial for patients to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their symptoms and receive appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to see his General Practitioner with sudden onset of severe right flank pain that radiates to his groin and vomiting. He has no medical history. During examination, his heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/79 mmHg, and temperature is 36.5 °C. He is well hydrated. A urine dipstick shows microscopic haematuria but nothing else. The doctor suspects renal colic. What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe paracetamol and codeine as analgesics

      Correct Answer: Management of the patient from home

      Explanation:

      Management of Renal Colic at Home

      When managing a patient with renal colic at home, it is important to ensure that there are no urgent indications for admission, such as signs of sepsis or dehydration. If the patient is well hydrated and responding to analgesia, home treatment may be appropriate. However, urgent renal imaging should be arranged within 24 hours to confirm the diagnosis. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be offered as the first-line analgesic, but if contraindicated, intravenous paracetamol or opioid analgesia can be considered. Antibiotics are not necessary in the absence of infection, and prophylactic use should be avoided. It is important to monitor the patient’s symptoms and seek urgent medical attention if there is any deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      127.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and is currently receiving olanzapine depot injections to manage his psychotic symptoms. Prior to starting the treatment, his psychiatrist conducted a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. If the patient continues to take olanzapine in the long term, how frequently should these parameters be monitored?

      Your Answer: Annually

      Explanation:

      Before starting a patient on antipsychotics and on an annual basis thereafter, it is recommended to conduct a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function test. Any other options presented in this scenario are incorrect. It is important to note that different antipsychotics may have varying monitoring requirements, and consulting the BNF is advised if unfamiliar with these drugs.

      Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

    Which of the following...

    Correct

    • You see an elderly patient who complains of facial erythema.

      Which of the following is most suggestive of a diagnosis of rosacea?

      Your Answer: Facial skin thickening and irregular surface nodularities especially across the nose

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features of Rosacea

      A diagnosis of rosacea can be made based on the presence of at least one diagnostic clinical feature or two major clinical features. The two diagnostic clinical features are phymatous changes and persistent erythema. Phymatous changes refer to thickened irregular skin, which can affect the nose and is termed rhinophyma. Persistent erythema is centrofacial redness that can increase with certain triggers. Major clinical features include flushing/transient erythema, inflammatory papules and pustules, telangiectasia, and ocular symptoms. Minor clinical features such as burning sensation, stinging sensation, skin dryness, and oedema are subjective and not individually diagnostic of rosacea.

      Facial skin thickening/surface nodularities, especially across the nose, is in keeping with phymatous change, which is a diagnostic clinical feature of rosacea. Itch and red papules can occur with rosacea, but these are usually seen in the centrofacial area. Rosacea can affect the chin area as well, but itchy and tender red papules specifically in a muzzle distribution are more in keeping with perioral dermatitis. Open and closed comedones across the forehead, cheeks, and chin are suggestive of acne vulgaris. Scaly disc-like plaques with scarring are suggestive of discoid lupus, while scaly pink ill-defined plaques in the skin folds on both sides of the face describe seborrheic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      591.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - At the age of 35, Mary recently gave birth to her first child,...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 35, Mary recently gave birth to her first child, a son named Tom, who has Down syndrome. His parents have come to terms with the diagnosis, Tom seems to be thriving in all other respects, and there is no reported family history, although Mary's husband Peter was adopted.

      At the three month immunisation visit, Mary tells you that she wants to try for another child and wonders what the risk is of having another affected child. You have the option of referring your patients to the genetic clinic for chromosome analysis, if deemed suitable.

      Which of the following is the single best answer to her question?

      Your Answer: Chromosome analysis from Mary may help answer her question

      Correct Answer: Chromosome analysis from Tom may help answer her question

      Explanation:

      Recurrence Risk for Down Syndrome

      There is a small chance of recurrence (about 1%) for Down syndrome if it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21. However, if the individual has inherited a translocation from either parent, the risk of recurrence is higher. To determine the risk, a chromosome analysis of the individual’s blood is necessary.

      If the individual has a translocation between chromosomes 21 and 13 or 14 (which occurs in 3-4% of Down syndrome cases), the risk of recurrence increases to 2-3% if carried by the father and 10% if carried by the mother. If the individual has a translocation of chromosome 21 onto another chromosome 21 (known as isochromosome 21, found in 1% of cases), and it is found in either parent, then the recurrence risk is practically 100%.

      Therefore, if an individual with Down syndrome has a translocation, both parents should be tested to clarify the risk. However, if the individual has a simple trisomy, the parents can be reassured that the recurrence risk is normal (1%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      85.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man treated for depression with psychosis has developed a parkinsonian tremor. His movements seem slower and he has cog-wheel rigidity when his arms are flexed and extended.
      Which of the following is most likely to cause these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Conventional antipsychotics

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Medications and their Side Effects

      When it comes to medication, it is important to understand the potential side effects that may occur. In this case, the patient is experiencing a tremor and excessive urination and thirst. Let’s compare the potential causes of these symptoms based on different types of medication.

      Conventional Antipsychotics:
      Common extrapyramidal side-effects include dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. It is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent.

      Atypical Antipsychotics:
      Atypical antipsychotics have low rates of causing extrapyramidal side effects and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Lithium:
      Excessive urination and thirst are common side effects associated with lithium, with rates up to 70% in long-term patients who are treated with it. However, it is not known to cause extrapyramidal side effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor:
      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors typically cause headache, dry mouth, insomnia, and restlessness. However, it is more likely that this patient’s symptoms are caused by a drug such as an atypical antipsychotic, which more commonly causes extrapyramidal side effects such as a tremor.

      Tricyclic Antidepressants:
      Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause antimuscarinic side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention. They do not usually cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as a parkinsonian tremor.

      In conclusion, based on the symptoms described, it is likely that the patient’s tremor has been caused by a conventional antipsychotic agent. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer: PSA testing is recommended to all men over the age of 60 as a screening tool for prostate cancer and so he should have a PSA performed

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      85.3
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man with predictable chest pain on exertion visits his doctor to...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with predictable chest pain on exertion visits his doctor to discuss medication options. He has previously been diagnosed with angina and undergone necessary investigations. The doctor initiates treatment with aspirin and a statin.

      Which medication would be the most suitable for prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      25.2
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been drinking alcohol heavily for over 20 years but now needs to drink more to feel drunk as well as to avoid being irritable. He works as a bank manager and gave up driving 5 years ago at the insistence of his wife. There is no evidence of chronic liver disease on physical examination. Assessment of his mental state reveals episodes of low mood. He no longer goes out with friends.
      Select from the list the single most correct diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Alcohol dependence

      Explanation:

      Alcohol Dependence and Social Withdrawal: Understanding the Symptoms

      Alcohol dependence is a syndrome characterized by withdrawal symptoms, tolerance, and loss of control over alcohol use. The CAGE questionnaire is a useful screening tool for alcohol-related disorders. Episodes of low mood may be related to alcohol dependence. Social withdrawal is a feature of various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia, personality disorders, autism spectrum disorders, depression, social anxiety disorder, and traumatic brain injury. Understanding the symptoms of alcohol dependence and social withdrawal can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports experiencing generalised abdominal discomfort and constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined this year. On examination, she appears pale and thin, with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and no postural drop in BP. Her laboratory results show a Hb of 134 g/L (115-165), WBC of 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelet of 290 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 7 mm/hr (<10), Na of 131 mmol/L (135-144), K of 2.7 mmol/L (3.4-4.5), Urea of 3.0 mmol/L (3-7), Creat of 90 µmol/L (50-100), Bicarbonate of 35 mmol/L (20-28), Alkaline phosphatase of 90 IU/L (50-110), Bilirubin of 12 µmol/L (0-17), AST of 30 IU/L (5-40), and Albumin of 36 g/L (33-44). Her CXR is normal. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis Considerations for a Patient with Anorexia Nervosa

      This patient is presenting with anorexia nervosa and self-induced vomiting, which can explain the low levels of sodium, potassium, and alkalosis. It is important to note that hypoalbuminemia may not be present until later stages of the disease.

      When considering other potential diagnoses, Addison’s disease can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemic acidosis, but the patient’s clinical presentation doesn’t align with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no postural drop in blood pressure, which is not supportive of Addison’s disease.

      Cushing’s disease can cause hypokalemic alkalosis, but again, the patient’s presentation doesn’t fit with this diagnosis.

      Conn’s syndrome, which is associated with adrenal adenoma, can cause hypertension and hypokalemia. However, this diagnosis is not likely in this case.

      In summary, the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa with self-induced vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      690.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying the gene for Huntington's disease.

      The father was diagnosed with the disease at age 32. The mother has been genetically screened and is not a carrier of the gene.

      What is the probability of their son developing Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 4

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Genetics of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease (HD) is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is required for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.

      Symptoms of HD typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for HD is located on chromosome 4, and a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation can occur, where the disease develops earlier in life in subsequent generations.

      Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. Understanding the genetics of HD is crucial in managing the disease and providing support for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      17.6
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  • Question 24 - You have a White patient with cystic fibrosis. His 25-year-old brother, who doesn't...

    Incorrect

    • You have a White patient with cystic fibrosis. His 25-year-old brother, who doesn't have cystic fibrosis, comes to ask you about the chances of his future children having cystic fibrosis. They have the same parents.
      What is the best advice you can provide them concerning genetic inheritance?

      Your Answer: She has a 1 in 4 chance of being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene

      Correct Answer: Her White partner has a 1 in 25 chance of being a cystic fibrosis carrier

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease that is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. It is more common in people of White ethnicity, with a carrier frequency of 1 in 25. The most common mutation is DeltaF508, which can be screened for genetically. A clinical diagnosis of cystic fibrosis can only be made in someone who is homozygous. If one parent is a carrier, there is a 1 in 4 chance that their child will have the disease, a 2 in 4 chance of being a carrier, and a 1 in 4 chance of not being a carrier. Without further testing, it cannot be determined if someone is a carrier or not, but in this case, the woman has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman says she is currently struggling to cope at work and feels she needs some time off work. She has become depressed but denies any suicidal thoughts or intent. She feels anxious, shaky and nauseous most mornings. She admits to drinking about 40 - 50 units of alcohol per week. She is aware that this is too much but has not connected it to her current problems.
      What is the most appropriate response to this patient’s situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Provide him with information about specialist alcohol services

      Explanation:

      Providing Support for Alcohol Dependence: A Patient-Centered Approach

      When working with a patient who displays signs of alcohol dependence, it is important to approach the situation with empathy and understanding. Referral to specialist alcohol services is recommended for those with moderate or severe dependence, and screening with an AUDIT or AUDIT-C questionnaire can help quantify the level of dependence. It is not helpful to use the threat of job loss as a means of motivating the patient to stop drinking, and offering a Statement of Fitness for Work should not be conditional on immediate cessation of alcohol use. Prescribing fluoxetine may not be effective while alcohol use is ongoing, and making judgemental statements about the patient’s behavior is not productive. Instead, a patient-centered approach that focuses on support and understanding can help the patient address their underlying issues with alcohol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man reports experiencing a creeping sensation and an irresistible urge to move his legs during the night. He recalls his mother also suffering from a similar condition, which she managed with magnesium salts.

      Which test is most probable to reveal an anomalous outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      The most important blood test for diagnosing restless legs syndrome is measuring the ferritin level, as it is commonly associated with iron deficiency. While a full blood count may be performed to ensure the patient is not anemic, it is not the most likely test to be abnormal. Magnesium levels are not the most likely abnormality in this condition, although it may be appropriate to check along with other tests for a comprehensive assessment. Nerve conduction studies would not be warranted for a patient with restless leg syndrome unless there was diagnostic uncertainty and concern for possible nerve damage.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old female is attempting to quit smoking. She recently smoked 10 cigarettes...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female is attempting to quit smoking. She recently smoked 10 cigarettes a day but has managed to cut down to 5 cigarettes a day by using nicotine gum. She is also curious about the effectiveness of E-cigarettes in aiding smoking cessation.

      In your discussion with her, you may want to cover the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is probably preferable to use E-cigarettes than normal cigarettes as the harm is likely to be less

      Explanation:

      Although E-cigarettes have been found to aid smoking cessation, their short-term use has been linked to harm. However, there is still a lack of long-term data on their effects.

      There is growing concern that teenagers who start using E-cigarettes may be more likely to transition to regular cigarette smoking.

      It is worth noting that preparations of nicotine replacement therapy are approved for use in children over 12 years old and can be used alongside E-cigarettes without issue.

      Overall, the long-term health effects of E-cigarettes are not yet fully understood, and while they may be less harmful than traditional cigarettes, they still contain addictive nicotine and can have negative health consequences.

      While E-cigarettes may be helpful for some individuals trying to quit smoking, it is important to remember that they are not FDA-approved for this purpose. Nicotine replacement therapy, such as gum or patches, has been shown to be effective and may be a better option.

      Quitting smoking is a challenging process that may require multiple attempts, so it is important to have a support system and be patient with oneself.

      Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.

      Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

      Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.

      In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 28 - A consultant pediatrician creates a new survey for use in schools that aims...

    Incorrect

    • A consultant pediatrician creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to identify children with developmental delays. What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies its intended purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      0
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child...

    Incorrect

    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.

      What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Mental Health (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/3) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Passmed