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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old girl has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has been suffering from constipation and soiling for many months and her mother feels that something needs to be done now that she is starting school. She was born after a normal delivery and had no problems until the age of three. On physical examination, the only obvious abnormality is a loaded colon.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Reassure the parents that he will grow out of his symptoms

      Correct Answer: Check for related symptoms of systemic disease

      Explanation:

      Approach to Constipation in Children: Consider Systemic Disease and Avoid Stimulant Laxatives and Enemas

      Constipation in children can have various organic causes, such as anorectal malformations, but when a systemic disease is the underlying issue, other symptoms of that disease are likely to be present. Therefore, it is important to check for related symptoms of systemic disease. For instance, hypothyroidism may cause constipation along with a goitre, slow growth, weight gain, and intolerance to cold. Diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus may cause constipation due to associated polyuria.

      Stimulant laxatives may be necessary in some cases, but macrogols should be the first-line treatment for constipation in children. Hirschsprung’s disease is a possible cause of chronic constipation, but it usually presents early in life, and functional constipation is more common. Reassuring parents that their child will grow out of constipation is not advisable, as prompt treatment can help resolve symptoms sooner.

      Enemas should be avoided if possible, as they can cause emotional and physical trauma. If necessary, the child should be admitted to the hospital for this procedure. Overall, a thorough evaluation of the child’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the best approach to managing constipation.

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  • Question 2 - A 4-week-old boy comes for his 4-week check. You wish to examine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old boy comes for his 4-week check. You wish to examine for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
      Which of the following options is most suggestive of developmental dysplasia in the hip when being examined?

      Your Answer: Clicking sounds on hip examination

      Correct Answer: Hip movement is felt when forward pressure is applied to the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Understanding Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) Tests

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition where the hip joint is not properly formed, leading to instability and potential dislocation. There are several tests used to diagnose DDH, including the Ortolani and Barlow tests. The Ortolani test involves applying forward pressure to the femoral head, which can cause a palpable ‘clunk’ as the hip moves over the posterior rim of the acetabulum. The Barlow test involves applying backward pressure to the femoral head. Both tests are typically negative by three months of age.

      Contrary to popular belief, the leg tends to be externally rotated in DDH, rather than internally rotated. Limitation of hip abduction is the most reliable sign of DDH after eight weeks, with significant limitation being 60° or less. Benign hip clicks are common during testing and result from soft tissues snapping over bony prominences.

      In addition to these tests, a discrepancy in limb length (Galeazzi sign) may be noted when the child lies supine with the hip and knee flexed to 90°. Leg shortening occurs on the affected side in DDH.

      Understanding these tests and signs can aid in the early diagnosis and treatment of DDH, which is crucial for proper hip joint development and long-term mobility.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 3 - A 4-year-old boy has been brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has been brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father for a routine check-up. The GP is assessing the development of the child.
      Which of the following would be the most advanced developmental skill in this child?

      Your Answer: Removes socks and shoes without assistance

      Correct Answer: Uses four or five words in a sentence

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones for Infants

      As infants grow and develop, they acquire new skills at different rates. However, there are certain milestones that most children will have achieved by a certain age. For instance, naming a simple picture in a book is a skill that is typically mastered by the age of 23 months. By 25-26 months, most children can name several body parts. Removing socks and shoes without assistance is a skill that is usually achieved by 27-28 months. By 31-32 months, throwing a ball overarm is a skill that most children will have mastered. Finally, using four or five words in a sentence is a milestone that is typically achieved by the age of 35-36 months. It’s important to remember that there is variation in the rate of development among infants, but these milestones can serve as a general guide for parents and caregivers.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 4 - Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should...

    Incorrect

    • Following recent NICE guidelines on child maltreatment, which one of the following should prompt you to suspect child maltreatment, rather than just considering it:

      Your Answer: A 15-year-old girl who is pregnant

      Correct Answer: An anal fissure on a 7-year-old boy who is not constipated and doesn't have Crohn's

      Explanation:

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son for a concerning diaper rash. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son for a concerning diaper rash. She has attempted to treat it with barrier creams but has not seen any improvement. She seeks advice on what to do next. During the examination, the doctor observes beefy red plaques in the groin area, affecting the skin folds. There are no skin abnormalities in other areas. The child is progressing typically, growing well, has received all necessary vaccinations, and is breastfeeding satisfactorily.

      What is the probable reason for this diaper rash?

      Your Answer: Irritant contact dermatitis

      Correct Answer: Candidal dermatitis

      Explanation:

      The probable cause of the nappy rash is Candidal, as indicated by the distinct, reddish patches that resemble raw meat. This type of rash is characterized by the involvement of skin folds and the appearance of satellite lesions, which are both present in this case.

      Atopic dermatitis is unlikely as there are no other lesions on the infant’s body, and the typical locations for this condition in infants are the flexural and facial areas.

      Irritant contact dermatitis is less probable than Candidal infection, as the latter has likely progressed from an initial irritant contact dermatitis. Additionally, the skin folds would have been spared in the case of irritant contact dermatitis due to protection from the irritant.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is not a likely cause, as it typically presents on the infant’s scalp as cradle cap, which is characterized by an erythematous scaly plaque.

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman has chronic kidney disease stage 4.

    Which of the following additional...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has chronic kidney disease stage 4.

      Which of the following additional vaccines are recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B, influenza and Pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Recommendations for CKD Patients

      Patients with CKD stages 4 and 5 should receive additional vaccinations on top of the usual immunisation schedule. These include Hepatitis B, influenza, and Pneumococcal vaccines. However, there is no recommendation for these patients to receive Meningococcal ACWY, Hepatitis A, or Hib vaccine. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these vaccination recommendations to ensure the best possible care for CKD patients. By following these guidelines, patients can reduce their risk of contracting preventable illnesses and improve their overall health outcomes.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a check-up. She is anxious about his flat feet and is worried that he may experience foot pain and gait problems in the future. During the examination, the child walks normally, but an absent medial arch of the feet and genu valgum are observed when he stands still.

      What recommendations should be provided to the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common findings at this age, reassure

      Explanation:

      Flat feet (pes planus) and ‘knock knees’ (genu valgum) are common in children of this age and typically resolve on their own between the ages of 4-8 years. Therefore, reassurance should be given to the mother and orthopaedic or podiatry assessment is not necessarily required. However, if the parents are highly anxious, a paediatrician can be consulted for further reassurance. Additionally, physiotherapy is not necessary as there is no significant musculoskeletal abnormality to correct.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 8 - A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his postnatal check. He was born at 36 weeks weighing 2.7kg. On examination the GP finds that the left testicle is not present in the scrotum or groin.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review at three months of age

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testes in Infants

      Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. It is more common in unilateral cases, occurring four times more often than bilateral cases. At birth, the prevalence of undescended testes is 3.7%, which decreases to 1.0% by three months of age.

      It is important to review infants with unilateral undescended testes at three months of age and refer them before six months of age if the condition persists. While most cases will resolve on their own, surgical intervention may be necessary to prevent complications such as impaired fertility, testicular cancer, and testicular torsion. It is not appropriate to reassure and discharge infants with undescended testes, as some cases will require intervention.

      In cases where a disorder of sexual development is suspected, referral for endocrine and genetic testing may be useful. It is crucial to address undescended testes early to prevent potential complications and ensure proper treatment.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 9 - A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old son to see you in the surgery. He has had a fever for 24 hours, vomited once and complains of abdominal discomfort and pain when passing urine. He is drinking plenty of fluids. He has been potty trained for one year, but had several urinary accidents in the past couple of days. There is nothing of note in his past medical history.

      On examination there are no recessions, his chest is clear, abdomen is soft with mild lower abdominal tenderness and no loin tenderness. He has a normal ENT examination. He is well hydrated and has no rash. His urine dipstick is positive for leukocytes and protein, but negative for nitrate and blood. His temperature is 38°C, HR 120, RR 28, and CR <2 sec.

      According to the NICE 'traffic light' system what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to paediatrics as child is at high risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of UTIs in Children

      This child doesn’t exhibit any immediately life-threatening symptoms, but a UTI is the most likely diagnosis based on their clinical history. Early detection and treatment of UTIs can prevent the development of renal scarring and end-stage renal failure. Dipstick tests for leukocyte esterase and nitrite can be used to diagnose UTIs in children aged 2 years and older. However, a urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to confirm the diagnosis.

      The following table outlines urine-testing strategies for children aged 3 years and older:

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started, and a urine sample should be sent for culture if the child has a high or intermediate risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite+ – Antibiotic treatment should be started if the urine test was carried out on a fresh sample of urine. A urine sample should be sent for culture, and management will depend on the results.

      Leukocyte+ Nitrite- – A urine sample should be sent for microscopy and culture. Antibiotic treatment should not be started unless there is clear clinical evidence of a UTI.

      Leukocyte- Nitrite- – Antibiotics should not be started, and a urine sample should not be sent for culture. Other potential causes of illness should be explored.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She has no past or current history of self harm or suicidal thoughts. She was initially seen six weeks ago and is being reviewed today for the second time over this period.

      You discuss her symptoms and things are unchanged from when she was last seen four weeks ago with persistence of the mild depression. She tells you that she cannot see herself improving and is keen to engage with any help that may be appropriate.

      What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer psychological therapy in the form of individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive therapy behavioural therapy, or guided self-help

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Depression in Children and Young People

      NICE has released guidance on how to manage depression in children and young people. For those presenting with mild depression, a ‘watchful waiting’ approach should be taken, with a further assessment arranged two weeks later. If the depression persists after up to four weeks of watchful waiting, psychological therapies such as individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help can be offered for a limited period of around two to three months. Antidepressant medication should not be used at this stage. If the mild depression remains unresponsive to psychological therapies after two to three months, referral to tier 2-3 CAMHS can be made for further assessment and management. This guidance aims to provide a structured approach to managing depression in children and young people, ensuring that appropriate interventions are offered at the right time.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 11 - Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.

      Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.

      It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

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  • Question 12 - Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:

      Temperature 38.5 degrees
      Heart rate 160 bpm
      Respiratory rate 40 / min
      Oxygen saturation 95%

      The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.

      According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm

      Explanation:

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter in for review. She started walking three...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 18-month-old daughter in for review. She started walking three months ago. The mother has noticed that her daughter seems to be 'bow-legged' when she walks.

      Examination of the knees and hips is unremarkable with a full range of movement. Leg length is equal. On standing the intercondylar distance is around 7cm.

      What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure that it is a normal variant and likely to resolve by the age of 4 years

      Explanation:

      It is common for children under the age of 3 to have bow legs, which is considered a normal variation. Typically, this condition resolves on its own by the time the child reaches 4 years old.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 14 - A mother seeks advice on routine vaccination for her 4-month-old baby who was...

    Incorrect

    • A mother seeks advice on routine vaccination for her 4-month-old baby who was born in Spain and has already received their 2-month vaccinations. These included DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B, meningococcal group B, and the oral rotavirus vaccine. What vaccinations will this infant require for their 4-month vaccination according to the current UK routine immunization schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B + rotavirus + pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)

      Explanation:

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.

      The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

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  • Question 15 - A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father who is concerned about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father who is concerned about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, as she was recovering.

      During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across the trunk, which disappear when pressed. The child seems unaffected by them and appears healthy with regular vital signs.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Roseola

      Explanation:

      Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that typically affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The rash usually lasts for about 2 days and doesn’t blister. Roseola is caused by the human herpesvirus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.

      Chickenpox, on the other hand, would cause a very itchy rash with blistering lesions that eventually scab over. Hand, foot and mouth disease would typically affect the limbs and mouth, rather than the trunk. Measles would start from the face and spread down to the limbs, and the fever would not subside with the appearance of the rash. Rubella would cause a rash that starts from the face and disappears after 3 days. These characteristics make these illnesses less likely diagnoses in this case.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 16 - A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis of mild attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You are considering referring the child to the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS). Her father would like information about managing this condition.
      What is the most suitable advice to provide regarding the management of ADHD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You can arrange referral to a parent-training programme even before a formal diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD): Myths and Facts

      Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects children and adults. Managing ADHD can be challenging, and there are many myths and misconceptions about the condition and its treatment. Here are some common myths and facts about managing ADHD:

      Myth: Referral to a parent-training program should wait for a formal diagnosis.
      Fact: If the problems are having an adverse impact on development or family life, a General Practitioner should consider referral to a parent-training and/or education program even before a formal diagnosis. The parent program may include skills to manage problem behavior and communicate with the child and help to understand the child’s emotions and behavior.

      Myth: Eliminating artificial coloring and additives from the diet is important.
      Fact: NICE doesn’t recommend this unless there seems to be a link between deterioration in behavior and consumption of artificial additives.

      Myth: A food diary to seek a relationship between specific foods and symptoms is unhelpful.
      Fact: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that if there seems to be a clear relationship between specific foods and symptoms, parents should keep a diary recording food and drinks taken and behavior. If the diary supports a relationship, then referral to a dietician should be offered.

      Myth: Dietary fatty acid supplements (omega 3 and omega 6) are beneficial.
      Fact: Many parents have experimented with these supplements, but according to NICE guidelines, these should not be routinely recommended.

      Myth: Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) can be prescribed immediately.
      Fact: In more severe attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder or where other measures have not been successful, medication is usually recommended. Drug treatment should not be started in primary care. Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) is the most commonly used drug.

      In conclusion, managing ADHD requires a comprehensive approach that includes parent training, dietary changes, and medication when necessary. It is important to separate myths from facts to ensure that individuals with ADHD receive the best possible care.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrogol

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

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  • Question 18 - In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the...

    Incorrect

    • In your clinic you see a 6-year-old child who has arrived in the United Kingdom from India with bowed legs, muscle spasms and a pigeon chest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Childhood disintegration disorder

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  • Question 19 - A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying. He has a tender, irreducible lump in the right groin that extends into the scrotum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated hernia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Inguinal Hernia and Other Groin Conditions in Children

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition affecting 1-3% of young children, with incarcerated or strangulated hernias accounting for 10-20% of cases. These hernias present as a swelling in the external or internal inguinal ring or scrotum, which may or may not be painful. In contrast, testicular torsion typically affects teenage boys and presents with testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling. Orchitis, caused by mumps, also presents with testicular pain and swelling but doesn’t involve swelling in the groin. Hydroceles, which contain fluid and transilluminate, are not typically tender and do not involve bowel in the scrotum. Undescended or retractile testicles may cause apparent groin swelling but do not involve tenderness. When evaluating a child with apparent groin swelling, it is important to palpate both testicles and consider the presence of tenderness, transillumination, and upper border of the swelling to distinguish between these conditions.

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  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old child comes to the clinic and is suspected to have whooping...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child comes to the clinic and is suspected to have whooping cough infection. Apparently there is an outbreak in the area, and his mother objects to the principle of vaccination.

      Which one of the following signs would increase suspicion of whooping cough infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Very high fevers

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: A Contagious Disease

      Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. The incubation period lasts for 7-10 days, after which the child becomes maximally infectious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, known as the catarrhal phase. Although antibiotics do not have a significant effect on symptoms, they can reduce the period of infectivity.

      In children over two years old, a whoop may not always be present, but apnoeic episodes are common in infants. The bacterium is challenging to culture, but the use of PCR has improved diagnostic accuracy. While the annual death rate in the United Kingdom is low, pertussis is not a trivial disease, and vaccination is strongly recommended.

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  • Question 21 - Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence

      Explanation:

      Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.

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  • Question 22 - A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned mother brings her 12 day old daughter to your clinic. The baby has developed a scaly, yellowish patch on her scalp and the mother seeks your advice. Upon examination, you notice the patch located on the occipital area of the baby's head, but she appears to be in good health otherwise. What would be the best course of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance and advise use of baby shampoo

      Explanation:

      Seborrheic dermatitis, also known as ‘cradle cap’, is a frequently observed condition in newborns. Parents usually do not seek medical advice and the issue often resolves on its own with minimal intervention. It is unnecessary to seek extensive treatment for a 10-day-old child with this condition.

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Children: Common Skin Disorder

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a skin disorder that is commonly seen in children. It usually affects the scalp, nappy area, face, and limb flexures. One of the early signs of this condition is cradle cap, which can develop in the first few weeks of life. Cradle cap is characterized by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

      The management of seborrhoeic dermatitis in children depends on its severity. For mild to moderate cases, baby shampoo and baby oils can be used. However, for severe cases, mild topical steroids such as 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary.

      Fortunately, seborrhoeic dermatitis in children tends to resolve spontaneously by around 8 months of age. It is important to seek medical advice if the condition persists or worsens despite treatment. With proper management, children with seborrhoeic dermatitis can have healthy and clear skin.

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  • Question 23 - Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital infections is most commonly associated with sensorineural hearing loss in newborns?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The condition known as congenital rubella can lead to both sensorineural deafness and congenital cataracts.

      Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus

      Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.

      Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.

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  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old boy with a medical history of asthma is seen as an...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy with a medical history of asthma is seen as an emergency with an acute exacerbation.

      He has widespread wheeze on auscultation of the chest despite regular use of his salbutamol inhaler via a spacer. There is no respiratory distress and he is suitable to be managed in the community. You decide to prescribe him a three day course of prednisolone.

      He weighs 20 kg. You decide to give him a dose of 2 mg/kg once daily. Prednisolone soluble tablets come as 5 mg tablets.

      What is the correct dosage of prednisolone soluble tablets to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 tablets OD

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Prednisolone Dose for a 15 kg Patient

      When prescribing medication, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on the patient’s weight and the recommended dose per kilogram. In this case, the patient weighs 15 kg and the recommended dose is 2 mg/kg once daily. Therefore, the total dose for this patient is 30 mg once daily. Since the prednisolone soluble tablets come in 5 mg each, the patient would need to take 6 tablets once daily to achieve the correct dose. It is important to double-check calculations and ensure that the correct dose is prescribed to avoid any potential harm to the patient.

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  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old girl with persistent social interaction difficulties is undergoing assessment by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with persistent social interaction difficulties is undergoing assessment by a multidisciplinary team for a psychological developmental disorder. During her earlier years, there were no indications of developmental abnormalities and there is no delay or retardation in her language or cognitive development. Nevertheless, her parents report that she obsessively arranges her toys in a specific order every day and becomes upset if this routine is disrupted. According to the ICD-10 diagnostic criteria, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autism spectrum disorder

      Explanation:

      The child is exhibiting symptoms of autism and Asperger’s syndrome, including difficulty with social interaction and repetitive behavior. However, there are no indications of delayed language or cognitive development, which are common in autism. Attention deficit disorder may also be a factor, as the child struggles with attention and persistence. While obsessive compulsive disorder could be a possibility due to the child’s preoccupation with counting toys, it is unlikely to explain the social interaction difficulties. Reactive attachment disorder of childhood is not a likely explanation, as the child’s behavior doesn’t align with the symptoms of this disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.

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  • Question 26 - A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.

      On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.

      What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.

      Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.

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  • Question 27 - As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a...

    Incorrect

    • As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a 65-year-old who is in good health?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Pneumococcal Vaccines

      There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above.

      Moreover, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor treatment).

      Getting vaccinated against pneumococcal disease is important in preventing serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate vaccine and schedule for each individual.

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  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old girl presents with behaviour issues. Her father is concerned that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with behaviour issues. Her father is concerned that she may have attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
      Which of the following would most support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Challenging behaviour present at home and school

      Explanation:

      Understanding ADHD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by symptoms of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention. These symptoms should be present in multiple settings, such as both at home and in school, and in multiple domains of social or personal functioning. ADHD is typically diagnosed in 3-7% of school-age children.

      It is important to note that a carefree attitude to danger alone is not enough to make a diagnosis of ADHD. Evidence of impairment in other domains is necessary. Additionally, while environmental factors may play a role, genetics are also believed to be involved in the development of ADHD. Therefore, it is possible for a sibling or other family member to also have the disorder.

      According to NICE guidelines, symptoms must be present for at least six months for a diagnosis of ADHD. Poor academic achievement alone is not enough to indicate ADHD, as it is commonly seen in children without the disorder. It is important to consider a range of symptoms and domains of functioning when evaluating for ADHD.

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  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old girl presents with complaints of right knee pain and a limp....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with complaints of right knee pain and a limp. Her parents report that over the last two to three days she has been experiencing pain in the right knee, which they thought would settle but as things have persisted, they wanted her to be reviewed. There is no history of trauma or injury. There is no current systemic unwellness and no recent illness is reported. Her past medical history includes asthma and left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) which required operative fixation about 18 months ago. On examination, she is systemically well and there is no obvious swelling, erythema or heat affecting the right knee which has a full range of movement.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise anti-inflammatory use, ice, and elevation of the knee

      Explanation:

      Importance of Examining Adjacent Joints in Orthopaedic Cases

      It is crucial to examine the joints above and below when an orthopaedic problem presents. This principle applies to all age groups, including paediatric cases. For instance, when a child presents with right knee pain, the clinician should also consider hip and ankle pathology.

      In cases where the patient has a history of left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) and no signs of knee pathology, the clinician should pay particular attention to adjacent joints, especially the hip. According to NICE CKS, urgent assessment is necessary if a child over nine years old experiences painful or restricted hip movements, especially internal rotation, to exclude slipped upper femoral epiphysis. This condition is more common in this age group and requires immediate investigation, including AP and lateral X-rays of the hips.

      In summary, examining adjacent joints is crucial in orthopaedic cases, and clinicians should pay attention to any relevant history and symptoms to ensure prompt and accurate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 7-year-old girl from a Somali immigrant family has been experiencing discomfort in...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl from a Somali immigrant family has been experiencing discomfort in her arms and legs. Upon examination, you observe that she also has bow legs.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Rickets and its Risk Factors in Dark-Skinned Populations

      Rickets is a condition that affects bone development in children, and dark skin is a risk factor for this condition in certain populations. In the United Kingdom, South Asian, African Caribbean, and Middle Eastern descent populations are particularly at risk. A study conducted in Bristol found that most cases of rickets were among Somali patients. The study identified 31 children with vitamin D deficiency, seven of whom had bone or limb pain, seven had bow legs or swollen joints, one had convulsions, and one had respiratory difficulty. Twelve children were asymptomatic and diagnosed through screening after a family member was found to have vitamin D deficiency. Fibromyalgia, infantile tibia vara, juvenile chronic arthritis, and physiological bow leg deformity are not related to rickets. It is important to identify and address risk factors for rickets in order to prevent and treat this condition.

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  • Question 31 - Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and...

    Incorrect

    • Under what circumstances is it safe to administer the MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child with congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Contraindicated

      1. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to Gelatin:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine contains gelatin as a stabilizer. Individuals with a previous confirmed anaphylactic reaction to gelatin should not receive the MMR vaccine due to the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
      2. Previous Confirmed Anaphylactic Reaction to MMR Vaccination:
        • Contraindication: If a person has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of the MMR vaccine, it is contraindicated to administer the vaccine again. An alternative plan should be discussed with an allergist or immunologist.
      3. Pregnant Woman:
        • Contraindication: The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the potential risk to the developing fetus. Women are advised to wait at least one month after receiving the MMR vaccine before becoming pregnant.
      4. Severely Immunosuppressed Individual:
        • Contraindication: Individuals who are severely immunosuppressed (e.g., due to chemotherapy, high-dose corticosteroids, or advanced HIV/AIDS) should not receive the MMR vaccine. The live attenuated viruses in the vaccine could potentially cause disease in these individuals.

      Circumstances When MMR Vaccination is Safe

      1. Child with Congenital Heart Disease:
        • Safe to Administer: Children with congenital heart disease can safely receive the MMR vaccine. Congenital heart disease itself is not a contraindication for the MMR vaccine, and these children should be protected from measles, mumps, and rubella, which could potentially be more severe if contracted.

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  • Question 32 - A mother comes to see you about her 16-year-old daughter. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A mother comes to see you about her 16-year-old daughter. She has been diagnosed with major depression and is due to see a specialist the next day.

      You discuss both medical and non-medical therapies.

      It is anticipated that she will need medical therapy. Which of the following drugs, if required, is most likely to be prescribed for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Fluoxetine as the Only Effective Medication for Treating Depression in Children and Adolescents

      According to the British National Formulary (BNF), fluoxetine is the only medication that has been proven effective in clinical trials for treating depressive illness in children and adolescents. It is important to note that medication is not typically prescribed by non-specialists in this age group. However, as a healthcare provider, it is important to have a general understanding of any specialist-initiated treatments and investigations to be able to discuss them with patients.

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  • Question 33 - A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive.
    Previously, her parents had no concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive.
      Previously, her parents had no concerns about her health. However, over the past few months, she has become increasingly fussy and her bowel movements have changed, with her now having up to three strong-smelling stools per day.
      During the examination, her abdomen is soft but slightly distended, and there is noticeable wasting of the thigh muscles. When plotted on a growth chart, her weight was following the 50th percentile until around 2 years of age but has now dropped below the 5th percentile.
      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease in Children

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects young children, typically presenting by the age of 2 with failure to thrive. This occurs when gluten is introduced into their diet through the consumption of cereals. Symptoms include irritability, abdominal distention, buttock wasting, and abnormal stools due to malabsorption. Children can also present later on in childhood with anaemia or failure to thrive with very subtle or no gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Diagnosis requires a jejunal biopsy for histological confirmation, and treatment is with a gluten-free diet. There appears to be a genetic link, and first-degree relatives of people with coeliac disease have a 1 in 10 chance of having the disease. Patients with coeliac disease also have a higher risk of type 1 diabetes, thyroid disease, and other autoimmune diseases.

      It is important to consider offering testing (by tTG antibody testing) to first-degree relatives because a strict gluten-free diet is essential in reducing the associated risk of GI malignancy, especially lymphoma, in people with coeliac disease.

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  • Question 34 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare,...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite the MMR scare, he had her immunised. However, he is concerned about the recent increase in measles cases and wonders if she needs a booster shot. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months

      Explanation:

      According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.

      MMR Vaccine: Information on Administration, Contraindications, and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule for children.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, some adverse effects may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to note that the benefits of the MMR vaccine far outweigh the risks, as it protects against serious and potentially life-threatening diseases.

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  • Question 35 - A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms

      Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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  • Question 36 - A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the last three months, each lasting a few days. The pain variably increases and decreases during an episode. It has been severe enough to affect school attendance. When his mother brings him she has no pain and physical examination is normal.
      Select from this list the most likely eventual finding for the cause of the symptoms in this boy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No cause will be found

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children: Possible Causes and Diagnosis

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, but it is often difficult to identify the underlying cause. In many cases, no organic pathology can be found, but a significant number of cases are organic and require careful examination and investigation. Recurrent abdominal pain is defined as pain that occurs for at least three episodes within three months and is severe enough to affect a child’s activities.

      The most probable causes of recurrent abdominal pain in children are irritable bowel syndrome, abdominal migraine/periodic syndrome, constipation, mesenteric adenitis, and urinary tract infections. However, other possible causes should also be considered.

      Despite the lack of organic pathology in most cases, psychological factors are not always the cause. A study found no significant differences in emotional and behavioral scores between patients with organic pathology and those without. Therefore, a thorough examination and investigation are necessary to identify the underlying cause of recurrent abdominal pain in children.

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  • Question 37 - Which one of the following statements regarding iron deficiency anaemia is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding iron deficiency anaemia is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The prevalence is around 2%

      Explanation:

      Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Children: Causes and Prevention

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a common nutritional disorder among children, affecting approximately 10% of children in the UK. The prevalence of this condition is higher in children of Asian, Afro-Caribbean, and Chinese descent. The causes of iron deficiency anaemia in children are multifactorial, including socioeconomic factors, unmodified cow’s milk, and ethnic origin. Iron supplemented milk formulas may be more expensive, making it difficult for some families to afford. Unmodified cow’s milk is a poor source of iron due to its form, which is not easily absorbed. Therefore, it is recommended to introduce cow’s milk after one year of age. Additionally, some ethnic groups, such as Asian mothers, may introduce solids later, which can contribute to iron deficiency anaemia.

      Prevention of iron deficiency anaemia in children can be achieved through various measures. These include supplementary iron in milk, dietary education, and free formulas for at-risk infants. While breast milk is relatively low in iron, it is present in a form that is easily absorbed. Therefore, breastfeeding is recommended as the primary source of nutrition for infants. By understanding the causes and implementing preventative measures, iron deficiency anaemia in children can be reduced.

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  • Question 38 - A 24-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-month-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her father who is concerned she is ‘showing abnormal behaviour’.
      Which of the following behaviours would cause MOST concern in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure to engage with toys, songs and games

      Explanation:

      Common Developmental Issues in Young Children

      Young children often exhibit emotional and behavioral issues that are usually harmless and self-limiting. However, persistent problems may indicate developmental disorders such as autism, speech and language disorders, or learning disabilities. Here are some common issues to look out for:

      1. Failure to engage with toys, songs, and games: A 12-month-old child who shows no interest in toys or games may be an early indicator of autism. Lack of eye contact and communication problems may also be present.

      2. Tantrums: Tantrums are common in children aged 1-4 years and are sudden displays of anger or frustration. Most children stop having tantrums by age 4-5 when they learn better ways to handle strong emotions.

      3. Body rocking: Repetitive and rhythmic self-rocking is a common method of self-soothing in young children. While it is usually harmless, it can be a feature of autism or other developmental disorders.

      4. Difficulty settling off to sleep: It is normal for 30% of 1-year-olds to still wake up in the night. Stable sleep patterns may not be present until age 5 years, but parental or environmental factors can encourage the development of normal circadian rhythm.

      5. Refusal of food: Most children with selective eating or food refusal will have no problems with health or growth. However, a small number of children may have a problem, particularly if the behavior continues for a number of years.

      It is important to monitor these issues and seek professional help if they persist or worsen. Early intervention can greatly improve outcomes for children with developmental disorders.

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  • Question 39 - You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a...

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    • You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a urinary tract infection and showed improvement after receiving antibiotics within 48 hours. She was discharged after 2 days. As per NICE guidelines, what follow-up (if any) should be scheduled?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan within 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a child under 6 months old has a UTI that responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours, an ultrasound scan should be done within 6 weeks. However, if the UTI is atypical or recurrent, additional tests such as ultrasound during the acute infection, DMSA 4-6 months after the acute infection, and MCUG are recommended.

      An atypical UTI may present with symptoms such as being seriously ill, poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, elevated creatinine, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or non-E. coli organisms. Recurrent UTI is defined as having two or more episodes of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection, one episode of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection plus one or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection, or three or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

      Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

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  • Question 40 - A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after...

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    • A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she noticed a red rash on her daughter's legs that doesn't disappear when pressed. The child has been unwell with a fever and cough since yesterday, but her symptoms have worsened throughout the day. The mother is worried because her daughter is also complaining of a headache and has cold hands and feet. During the examination, the child is found to have a petechial rash on her lower legs and a temperature of 38.4ºC. The mother reports that her daughter is allergic to penicillin and had a rash and vomiting after taking amoxicillin for an ear infection 2 years ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phone 999 + administer intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.

      If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.

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  • Question 41 - A parent brings her 5-year-old son to the pediatrician's office. She informs you...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings her 5-year-old son to the pediatrician's office. She informs you that her son has head lice and the school nurse has recommended keeping him at home until the treatment is finished to prevent the spread of head lice to other children. The parent asks for your advice on what to do next.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No school exclusions apply

      Explanation:

      There is no need to exclude children with head lice from school, so the answer to the question is no. The mother should be comforted that her daughter can still attend school, and there is no reason for the patient to stay home. Therefore, the other answer options for this question are incorrect.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 42 - You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 4-year-old boy who is under the paediatric cardiologists with a congenital heart condition. He is prescribed propranolol.

      The latest hospital letter following a recent appointment has advised an increase in his dosage from 0.25 mg/kg three times daily to a dose of 0.5 mg/kg three times daily.

      His current weight is 15 kg. Propranolol oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 5 mg/5 ml.

      What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 ml TDS

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Propranolol Dose

      When calculating the dose of propranolol, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the daily dose required. For example, if the patient weighs 12 kg and requires a daily dose of 0.5 mg/kg, the total daily dose would be 6 mg TDS.

      To determine the amount of propranolol needed, it is important to know the concentration of the medication. In this case, the concentration is 5 mg/5 ml, which can be simplified to 1 mg/1 ml. Therefore, the total daily dose of 6 mg would be equivalent to 6 ml TDS.

      It is important to accurately calculate the dose of propranolol to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication for their condition. By considering the patient’s weight and the medication concentration, healthcare professionals can determine the correct dosage for their patients.

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  • Question 43 - A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old sustains an injury playing football and presents with pain in the thigh and a shorter leg.

      Possible diagnoses include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that primarily affects boys aged 10 to 15. It occurs when the upper femoral epiphysis slips in a posterior inferior direction with respect to the femur. The exact cause of this condition is unclear, but it has been suggested that hormonal or calcification abnormalities may play a role. Obese children with delayed secondary sexual development or tall thin boys are particularly susceptible.

      Symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include rest pain, limp, pain on movement, reduced range of abduction and internal rotation, and an externally rotated and shortened affected leg. It is important to note that musculoskeletal disease doesn’t typically present with a shortened leg.

      Other conditions that may be mistaken for slipped upper femoral epiphysis include Perthes’ disease, Osgood-Schlatter syndrome, and chondromalacia patellae. Perthes’ disease is avascular necrosis of the femoral head in childhood, while Osgood-Schlatter syndrome is an overuse syndrome associated with physical exertion before skeletal maturity. Chondromalacia patellae is softening of the articular cartilage of the patella usually caused by indirect trauma.

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  • Question 44 - A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34...

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    • A toddler boy is now 2 years old, having been born at 34 weeks’ gestation. You see his mother during a follow-up appointment and she expresses concerns about potential complications of prematurity during early childhood.
      Which of these problems is MOST LIKELY to be a complication of preterm (premature) birth during early childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blindness

      Explanation:

      Health Risks Associated with Premature Birth

      Premature birth, defined as birth before 37 weeks of gestation, can lead to a range of health problems for the newborn. These include cerebral palsy, blindness, deafness, learning disabilities, motor function problems, and speech and language problems. Premature infants are also at an increased risk of having special educational needs. The risk of these health problems is higher for infants born at earlier gestational ages and with lower birthweights.

      One specific visual problem that premature infants may experience is retinopathy of prematurity, a vascular disorder of the immature retina. Additionally, premature infants are at an increased risk of developing chronic kidney disease during adulthood, although the reason for this is not clear.

      However, not all health problems are associated with premature birth. Cystic fibrosis, for example, is caused by an autosomal-recessive gene and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Similarly, congenital adrenal hyperplasia is caused by several autosomal-recessive genes and is not more prevalent in premature infants. Developmental dysplasia of the hip, while more common in infants with neuromuscular disorders, is not commonly associated with prematurity.

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  • Question 45 - What is the accurate statement about depression in individuals below 18 years of...

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    • What is the accurate statement about depression in individuals below 18 years of age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is good evidence for the efficacy of SSRIs in the treatment of moderate to severe depression in the under 8s

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for deliberate self-harming in adolescents

      SSRIs and tricyclics are not recommended for the treatment of deliberate self-harming in adolescents. The Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) advises that the balance of risks and benefits for the use of SSRIs in individuals under 18 years is unfavorable. Fluoxetine has shown some benefit, but there are concerns regarding an increased risk of self-harm and suicidal thoughts. Therefore, counselling with family therapy is the preferred option for treating deliberate self-harming in adolescents. It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of any treatment option and to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the best course of action for each individual case. By prioritizing the mental health and well-being of adolescents, we can help prevent and manage deliberate self-harming behaviors.

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  • Question 46 - A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl came to the clinic with her older sister, complaining of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Upon taking a detailed medical history, it was revealed that the discharge started three weeks ago, after she returned from a trip to Sudan where she had a celebration to mark her transition into womanhood. Initially hesitant to undergo a vaginal examination, she eventually agreed after her sister's persuasion. During the examination, you observe indications that suggest female genital mutilation (FGM). You discover that she has a younger sister at home. What would be the most appropriate next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call the police to make a report, refer all children urgently to social services and treat the infection

      Explanation:

      If you come across a case of Female Genital Mutilation (FGM) in a female under the age of 18, it is important to report it to the police immediately. FGM is considered a form of child abuse and violence, and is illegal in England and Wales. This can be reported either by the child themselves or through physical examination.

      It is crucial to take action as doing nothing is not an option when it comes to child abuse and the safety of other children. A safeguarding alert alone is not sufficient, as there is a mandatory reporting duty for healthcare professionals who encounter a confirmed case of FGM.

      There is no need to contact the parents for further information as physical evidence has already been observed. It is also not appropriate to advise the child to call the police, as they are vulnerable and it is the duty of healthcare professionals to provide assistance.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a practice that involves the partial or total removal of the external female genitalia or other forms of injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. This practice is classified into four types by the World Health Organization (WHO). Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while Type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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  • Question 47 - A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever, urinary frequency, and dysuria. A urine dipstick test is done on a fresh urine sample which shows positive for nitrites and negative for leucocytes. She has no signs of systemic illness and no abdominal or loin symptoms. The child has been healthy in the past and has never had a urinary tract infection. What is the best initial management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat as a UTI with antibiotic but do not send urine for culture

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common issue in children, but managing them can be challenging. To effectively manage UTIs in children, it is important to know when to use urine dipstick testing and when to send urine for culture.

      In infants and children over 3 months old with suspected UTIs, a urine dipstick test should be performed on a fresh urine sample. If the test is positive for nitrites and negative for leukocytes, antibiotics should be started, and a fresh urine sample should be sent for culture to confirm the diagnosis. The results should be reassessed.

      If the dipstick test is positive for nitrites and leukocytes, antibiotics should be started for a UTI. Urine should only be sent for culture if the child is under 3 years old, there is suspected pyelonephritis, there is a risk of serious illness, there is a past history of UTI, or there is no response to treatment and a urine sample has not already been sent.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage UTIs in children and ensure appropriate use of urine dipstick testing and urine culture.

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  • Question 48 - A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister has recently lost a baby due to sudden-infant-death syndrome (SIDS). She asks for the current advice on minimising the risk of SIDS in her own family.
      Which of the following pieces of advice is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The baby should not be exposed to secondhand smoke in the room

      Explanation:

      Common Myths and Facts about Safe Sleeping for Babies

      There are many misconceptions about safe sleeping for babies that can put them at risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Here are some common myths and facts to help parents ensure their baby is sleeping safely.

      Myth: It’s okay to smoke around the baby.
      Fact: Smoking during and after pregnancy increases the risk of SIDS. Passive smoking also significantly increases the risk of SIDS, and the risk increases further when both parents smoke.

      Myth: The ideal room temperature for a baby is 20-24°C.
      Fact: This temperature might be uncomfortably warm; the ideal room temperature is 16–20 °C.

      Myth: Babies should sleep in the same room as their parents for the first year of life.
      Fact: Infants should share the same room, but not the same bed, as their parents for the first six months to decrease the risk of SIDS.

      Myth: Place the baby on their front to sleep.
      Fact: Babies should be placed on their backs to sleep, with feet touching the end of the cot, so that they cannot slip under the covers. The use of pillows is not recommended.

      Myth: The use of pacifiers is not recommended.
      Fact: The use of pacifiers while settling the baby to sleep reduces the risk of cot death.

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  • Question 49 - During a routine baby check, you observe a small, soft umbilical hernia in...

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    • During a routine baby check, you observe a small, soft umbilical hernia in a 7 week-old baby boy. What steps should be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Watch and wait

      Explanation:

      It is common for babies to have small umbilical hernias, which typically resolve on their own by the time the child is 12 months old. Parents should not worry as treatment is usually not necessary. However, they should be aware of the signs of obstruction or strangulation, such as vomiting, pain, and the inability to push the hernia in. These symptoms are rare in infants. If the hernia is still present when the child is around 2 years old, parents should bring the child to a surgeon for referral. It is not helpful to try to treat the hernia by strapping or taping things over the area, as this can irritate the skin.

      Understanding Umbilical Hernia in Children

      Umbilical hernia is a common condition that can be found in children during their newborn exam. It is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While it may cause concern for parents, it usually resolves on its own by the age of three and doesn’t require any treatment.

      However, certain associations have been identified with umbilical hernia in children. Afro-Caribbean infants are more likely to develop this condition, as well as those with Down’s syndrome and mucopolysaccharide storage diseases. It is important for parents to be aware of these associations and to inform their healthcare provider if their child falls into any of these categories.

      Overall, umbilical hernia in children is a common and usually harmless condition. With proper monitoring and awareness of any associated risk factors, parents can ensure their child’s health and well-being.

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  • Question 50 - A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her baby to the GP for a check-up and seeks guidance on her child's developmental milestones. She mentions that her baby was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation. Considering the premature birth, at what age can the baby be expected to display a responsive social smile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 to 16 weeks

      Explanation:

      When assessing a premature baby’s developmental milestones, their corrected age is used instead of their actual age. The corrected age is calculated by subtracting the number of weeks the baby was born early from 40 weeks. A responsive smile is typically expected to appear between 6 to 8 weeks of age. However, for a premature baby born at 32 weeks gestation, their corrected age would be 14 to 16 weeks when assessing their ability to show a responsive smile. The corrected age is used as a reference until the child reaches the age of 2.

      Developmental Milestones in Social Behaviour, Feeding, Dressing, and Play

      Developmental milestones are important markers in a child’s growth and development. In terms of social behaviour and play, there are several milestones that parents and caregivers can look out for. At six weeks, a baby may start to smile, which develops into laughter by three months. At six months, they become less shy, but by nine months, they may exhibit shyness. Additionally, babies at this age tend to put everything in their mouths.

      In terms of feeding, a six-month-old may start to put their hand on the bottle while being fed. By 12-15 months, they can drink from a cup and use a spoon, which develops over a three-month period. At two years, they become competent with a spoon and don’t spill with a cup, and by three years, they can use a spoon and fork. Finally, at five years, they can use a knife and fork.

      When it comes to dressing, a child may start to help with getting dressed and undressed at 12-15 months. By 18 months, they can take off shoes and hats but may not be able to replace them. At two years, they can put on hats and shoes, and by four years, they can dress and undress independently, except for laces and buttons.

      Lastly, in terms of play, a nine-month-old may start to play peek-a-boo and wave bye-bye. By 12 months, they may play pat-a-cake, and at 18 months, they can play contentedly alone. At two years, they may play near others but not necessarily with them, and by four years, they can play with other children. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s development and ensure they are meeting age-appropriate goals.

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  • Question 51 - The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 6-year-old girl with asthma are worried about potential side-effects from asthma treatment. Upon examination, you notice that her asthma has been poorly managed for the past six months and she has been frequently visiting the nurse-led asthma clinic. She is currently taking 100 micrograms of beclomethasone twice daily, but her asthma remains uncontrolled. What is the best course of action for managing this child's asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to the current beclomethasone regimen

      Explanation:

      Management of Asthma in Children Under Five Years Old: Adding a Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist to the Current Regimen

      The British Guidelines on the Management of Asthma and The Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend prescribing an inhaled corticosteroid for prophylaxis of asthma in children under five years old when they require a beta-2 agonist more than twice a week, experience symptoms that disturb sleep at least once a week, or have suffered an exacerbation in the last two years requiring a systemic corticosteroid. However, long-term use of high doses of inhaled corticosteroids can cause adrenal suppression, and growth impairment may occur. Therefore, it is important to monitor height and weight.

      If a child’s asthma remains poorly controlled despite receiving the recommended very low dose of beclomethasone (100 µg twice a day), a leukotriene receptor antagonist (e.g. montelukast) should be added before considering an increase in corticosteroid dosage. Both NICE and SIGN guidelines agree on this approach.

      It is important to note that a long acting beta-agonist is not the preferred add-on treatment for children under five years old, as recommended for children aged five years and older. Referral to a respiratory paediatrician is also not necessary in this case, as NICE recommends referral for investigation and further management by an asthma expert only if control is not achieved with a low dose of inhaled corticosteroid and a leukotriene receptor antagonist as maintenance therapy.

      In summary, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist to the current beclomethasone regimen is the appropriate next step in managing asthma in children under five years old.

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  • Question 52 - You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder...

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    • You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder who is looking after a 5-year-old boy who she feels has suspicious injuries.

      She says that when she commented on the injuries to his mother, when he was dropped off earlier in the morning, she gave an unconvincing account of what might have happened to him. She suspects non-accidental injury and from the history given, you do too, but are not sure. You arrange to see the child with his mother later that same day.

      When should you make notes about this first consultation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Importance of Timely and Accurate Note-Taking in Medical Practice

      Making notes immediately after a consultation with a patient is crucial in medical practice. It is equally important to make further contemporaneous notes whenever you see the patient again. This ensures that all relevant information is recorded accurately and in a timely manner.

      It is easy to forget or omit making notes about telephone consultations, which can lead to repeat prescribing of the wrong drug in the future. Therefore, it is essential to record all encounters with patients, including telephone consultations, in the clinical record.

      Cases involving child protection are particularly important, and it is good practice to record the contents of the consultation immediately, even if the eventual diagnosis is uncertain. This ensures that all relevant information is documented and can be used to inform future decisions.

      In summary, timely and accurate note-taking is essential in medical practice to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and can be used to inform future decisions.

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  • Question 53 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his mother who has noticed his legs 'look strange' since he started walking over the past 5 weeks. His mother says that when he stands straight, his knees are very close together and his feet have a wide gap between them. The boy has no pain in his knees and there is no limp when he walks. He runs around the house without any problems.

      On examination, there are no lumps along the bones of either leg.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Genu valgus

      Explanation:

      This young woman has a noticeable inward curvature of her knees, also known as genu valgus or ‘knock knees’. Her symptoms are typical and there are no concerning signs in her medical history or physical examination. Genu varus, on the other hand, is characterized by outward curvature of the legs or ‘bow legs’, with a significant gap between the knees and ankles. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common condition among athletes that causes knee pain. Rickets is a disorder that results in soft and weak bones, often leading to bone pain, delayed growth, muscle weakness, or skeletal issues. It is typically caused by a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. Synovial sarcoma is a rare type of cancer that usually presents as a painless lump near a joint.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 54 - A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old formula-fed baby, born at 37 weeks, has been experiencing symptoms of cow's milk protein allergy for the past 2 weeks. The baby is increasingly unsettled around 30-60 minutes after feeds, with frequent regurgitation, 'colic' episodes, and non-bloody diarrhoea. Mild eczema is present on examination, but the baby's weight remains stable between the 50-75th centile. The baby was started on an extensively hydrolysed formula, but there is still some persistence of symptoms reported by the parents. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this baby's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amino-acid based formula trial

      Explanation:

      Soya milk is not a suitable alternative as a significant proportion of infants who have an allergy to cow’s milk protein are also unable to tolerate it.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 55 - A father brings his 15-month-old daughter to your clinic. He reports that she...

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    • A father brings his 15-month-old daughter to your clinic. He reports that she has had a runny nose and cough for the past 3 days. He is concerned because this morning, her cough sounded like a seal. However, she has been eating and drinking normally. During the examination, the child seems content and plays with toys in the room. She has an occasional barking cough, but there is no audible stridor at rest. There is no intercostal or suprasternal recession, and her chest is clear. Vital signs are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action for you to take in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a single dose of dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      For mild, moderate, or severe croup, a single dose of dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately, according to NICE guidelines. In cases of moderate or severe croup, or if respiratory failure is imminent, immediate admission is recommended by CKS. To manage fever and pain, paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used, but they are not necessary in this scenario as there is no evidence of fever or pain. Tepid sponging is not recommended, and humidified air is not advised.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 56 - A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint...

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    • A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ºC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).

      Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.

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  • Question 57 - You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy...

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    • You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy baby a few days earlier. At the end of the consultation, she asks you about immunisations.
      At what age would her child receive an orally administered vaccine as part of the UK immunisation schedule if they were 6 months old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Route and Timing of Immunisations in the UK

      The UK routine immunisation schedule includes various vaccines that are administered through different routes. One of these is the rotavirus vaccine, which is the only vaccine given orally. It is given to infants at 8 and 12 weeks of age. On the other hand, the polio vaccine used to be administered orally in the past, but it is no longer part of the routine UK immunisation schedule. It is important to follow the recommended route and timing of immunisations to ensure their effectiveness in protecting against diseases.

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  • Question 58 - A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery...

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    • A 4-year-old boy from a traveller community family is brought to the surgery by his mother.

      She informs you that he began with what appeared to be a severe catarrhal cold, but now experiences intense paroxysms of coughing, causing him to turn completely red in the face and struggle to catch his breath. Upon examination, he has no fever.

      What feature on history, examination, or investigation, although not conclusive, is consistent with the presence of whooping cough?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of pyrexia

      Explanation:

      Whooping Cough: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      The incubation period for whooping cough, also known as pertussis, typically lasts seven to 10 days but can extend up to 21 days. Patients with this condition often experience a paroxysmal cough with an inspiratory whoop, and lymphocytosis is commonly observed. While extensive consolidation is uncommon, pockets of lower respiratory tract infection may occur due to atelectasis. Notably, a lack of fever is a strong indication of whooping cough.

      Children from travelling families may be at a higher risk of contracting whooping cough if they have missed the standard vaccination schedule. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 59 - What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan? ...

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    • What is the definition of a Child Protection Plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A plan to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and decide goals to reduce the risk of harm and how to best protect the child while clarifying the responsibilities of the people involved

      Explanation:

      Child Protection Plans

      At an initial Child Protection conference, the decision to make a child subject to a Protection Plan is made. This plan is created if a child is at continuing risk of significant harm. The purpose of the Child Protection Plan is to assess the likelihood of the child suffering harm and to decide on goals to reduce the risk of harm and protect the child. It should also clarify the responsibilities of the people involved and actions to be taken. Additionally, the plan should outline how the processes will be monitored and evaluated.

      Overall, the Child Protection Plan is a crucial tool in ensuring the safety and well-being of vulnerable children. It provides a framework for all parties involved to work together towards a common goal of protecting the child from harm. By setting clear goals and responsibilities, the plan helps to ensure that everyone is on the same page and working towards the same objectives. Regular monitoring and evaluation of the plan also help to ensure that it remains effective and relevant over time.

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  • Question 60 - A mother of a 12-week-old baby expresses concern that her baby has been...

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    • A mother of a 12-week-old baby expresses concern that her baby has been acting differently for the past day. The baby is not smiling as much and is having 20% fewer breastfeeds. The baby was born at full term without any complications, has been thriving well, and has received all of his immunizations. During examination, the only notable finding is a temperature of 38.5ºC. What would be the best initial course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for same-day paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      If a child under the age of 3 months has a fever exceeding 38ºC, they should be considered at high risk for serious illness according to the NICE traffic light system. This is classified as a red alert. NICE CKS provides additional information, stating that research from six studies indicates that the risk of serious illness is more than 10 times greater in this age group compared to older children.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 61 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child...

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    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.

      What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

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  • Question 62 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

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    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 63 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that...

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    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that he has been eating less and refusing food for the past few weeks. Despite this his father has noticed that his abdomen is distended and he has developed a 'beer belly'. For the past year he has opened his bowels around once every other day, passing a stool of 'normal' consistency. There are no urinary symptoms. On examination he is on the 50th centile for height and weight. His abdomen is soft but slightly distended and a non-tender ballotable mass can be felt on the left side. His father has tried lactulose but there has no significant improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to a local paediatrician

      Explanation:

      The evidence for the history of constipation is not very compelling. It is considered normal for a child to have a bowel movement of normal consistency every other day. However, the crucial aspect of this situation is identifying the abnormal examination finding – a palpable mass accompanied by abdominal distension. While an adult with such a red flag symptom would be expedited, it is more appropriate to consult with a pediatrician to determine the most appropriate referral pathway, which would likely involve a clinic review within the same week.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

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  • Question 64 - An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had...

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    • An apprehensive mother has called the clinic to report that her family had significant contact with a confirmed case of measles yesterday. Her husband believes he had measles when he was younger, but their three children, aged 6 months, 5 years, and 11 years, have not received the MMR vaccine. You are contemplating administering post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine.

      What is the minimum age requirement for the MMR vaccine to be effective as post-exposure prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      MMR Vaccine Administration Guidelines

      The MMR vaccine can be administered at any age, but it is recommended to consult with your local Health Protection Team if the child is under 1 year of age. In case of exposure to measles, mumps, or rubella, most individuals can receive post-exposure prophylaxis with the MMR vaccine within three days, provided that the vaccine is not contraindicated. However, the response to MMR vaccine in infants under 6 months of age is not optimal, and it is not recommended as post-exposure prophylaxis in this age group.

      For children under 6 months of age, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals, human normal immunoglobulin should be considered if the MMR vaccine cannot be given. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines for MMR vaccine administration to ensure the best protection against these diseases.

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  • Question 65 - You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift....

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    • You see a six-year-old girl one evening during your out of hours shift. She has become very sick quite suddenly, with a high fever, sore throat, and difficulty breathing.

      When you examine her, she is sitting upright with her mouth open, and you observe that saliva is drooling down her chin. She has a soft stridor audible at rest.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute tonsillitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Stridor

      A sudden onset of stridor without any warning signs such as cough and runny nose may indicate epiglottitis. Symptoms to look out for include respiratory distress, cyanosis, agitation, and drooling. However, there are other causes of acute stridor such as croup, bacterial tracheitis, subglottic stenosis, foreign body inhalation, and retropharyngeal abscess. Smoke inhalation, diphtheria, and angioneurotic edema can also lead to stridor. In all cases, it is important to administer oxygen to maintain adequate saturation. Severe cases may require ventilation. Enlarged adenoids and tonsils can also cause snoring.

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  • Question 66 - Sophie is a 12-year-old who has been under your care for the last...

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    • Sophie is a 12-year-old who has been under your care for the last 3 months with worsening classical symptoms of migraine. Despite trying simple analgesia (paracetamol and ibuprofen), she has not experienced any relief. She has attempted to eliminate potential triggers and is currently maintaining a headache diary. She is interested in exploring additional medical treatments. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for Sophie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sumatriptan 10 mg nasal spray

      Explanation:

      Children can use nasal triptans, but oral triptans are not approved for use and should not be the first choice. It is also important to avoid aspirin as it can increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      Headache in Children: Migraine and Tension-Type Headache

      Headaches are a common complaint in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing paediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanied by nausea/vomiting and/or photophobia/phonophobia. Acute management of paediatric migraine involves ibuprofen, which is more effective than paracetamol, and triptans, which may be used in children over 12 years old but require follow-up. Prophylaxis for migraine is limited, with pizotifen and propranolol recommended as first-line preventatives, followed by valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline as second-line options.

      Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children. The IHS diagnostic criteria for TTH in children include headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with at least two of three specific pain characteristics and no nausea/vomiting but with photophobia/phonophobia present. Treatment for TTH involves identifying and addressing triggers, as well as using non-pharmacological interventions such as relaxation techniques and cognitive-behavioural therapy. Overall, headache in children requires careful diagnosis and management to improve quality of life and prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 67 - A 6-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She was feeling a...

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    • A 6-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She was feeling a bit sick yesterday with a fever, tiredness, and a sore throat. Today, her father is concerned as he has noticed 'blisters' in and around her mouth and she is refusing to eat or drink. During the examination, the child appears unhappy but not seriously ill, her temperature is 38.2ºC and she has a combination of shallow ulcers and red papules scattered over her hard palate, tongue, and lips. Upon further examination, a few red maculopapular lesions are also visible along the sides of her fingers, around her left heel, and over her buttocks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Explanation:

      Hand foot and mouth disease is the correct answer. The patient’s history reveals a mild illness with symptoms such as systemic upset, sore throat, and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and lesions on the hands and feet. It is worth noting that the lesions may also be present in the groin or buttocks area. The rash is characterized by scattered erythematous macules and papules, usually with a central greyish vesicle measuring around 25 mm.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

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  • Question 68 - A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other...

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    • A mother has noticed that her 2-year-old daughter takes little interest in other children. She comes to clinic concerned the child may have autism.
      Which of the following features is most suggestive of a diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of gestures (eg pointing, waving goodbye)

      Explanation:

      Identifying Early Signs of Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism spectrum disorder is a complex developmental condition that affects social interactions and restricts interests. Early identification is crucial for effective intervention. Here are some important indicators that should lead to further evaluation in a young child:

      – Lack of gestures (e.g. pointing, waving goodbye) by 12 months
      – No use of single words by 16 months
      – No use of two-word phrases by 24 months
      – Regression of language or social skills at any time
      – Reduced or missing ‘make-believe’ play

      It’s important to note that not all children with autism will display these signs, and some may develop typically before showing symptoms. However, if you have concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to seek professional advice.

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  • Question 69 - A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born...

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    • A 4-week-old boy is brought in for a routine check-up. He was born at 35 weeks gestation via normal vaginal delivery and spent a few days in the neonatal intensive care unit due to low birth weight. During the examination, it is noted that only one testicle can be felt.

      What is the recommended course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended testicles are more common in premature infants, such as the patient in this case. According to new guidelines, it is recommended to review the patient at 3 months and refer them for consideration of orchidopexy before they reach 6 months of age if the condition persists.

      While a referral to a pediatrician is not necessary at this stage, it can be arranged if the parents are concerned. However, if the patient has bilateral undescended testes, an urgent referral is required to rule out any genetic abnormalities.

      Similarly, a referral to a pediatric urologist is not needed yet. A review at 3 months may show that the testes have descended normally, and parents should be reassured that observation is useful in preventing unnecessary surgeries.

      By 6 months of age, the testis should have descended, and if it hasn’t, it is definitely abnormal. Delaying referral until 12 months of age is not ideal, as surgical procedures are typically planned for this age group, and undescended testes can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, and testicular cancer. Therefore, earlier review and referral are crucial.

      Undescended testis is a condition that affects approximately 2-3% of male infants born at term, but is more common in premature babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.

      To manage unilateral undescended testis, it is recommended to consider referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.

      For bilateral undescended testes, it is important to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation.

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  • Question 70 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is currently being treated for a cold but her mother is worried about her heart rate. What is the typical heart rate for a 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90 - 140 bpm

      Explanation:

      Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.

      Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
      < 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
      1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
      2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
      5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
      > 12 60 – 100 15 – 20

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  • Question 71 - As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is...

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    • As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is a thirteen-month-old boy who has not yet started walking. His mother is worried because he has had six nosebleeds in the past two weeks, which have stopped on their own after basic first aid.

      The child's medical history is unremarkable, and he has no known allergies or regular medications. During the examination, you observe a lethargic-looking child with a normal heart rate and tympanic temperature. Upon inspecting his nose, there are no visible abnormalities, and his tonsils are slightly enlarged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fast-track referral to Paediatrics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis in Children

      Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, are common in children and can be caused by various factors. The most common cause is nose picking, followed by the presence of a foreign body, upper respiratory tract infections, and allergic rhinitis. However, it is important to note that children under the age of 2 years should be referred to a healthcare professional as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be a result of trauma or bleeding disorders. It is crucial to understand the underlying cause of epistaxis in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Proper education and guidance on how to prevent nose picking and the importance of seeking medical attention for any underlying conditions can help reduce the incidence of epistaxis in children.

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  • Question 72 - A mother brings her 4-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic. Lily has been...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old daughter, Lily, to the clinic. Lily has been experiencing discomfort in her genital area and has difficulty urinating, often dribbling. During the examination, with a chaperone present, you observe that she has a labial adhesion that is causing a small opening over the urethra. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen cream applied for 6 weeks until membrane dissolves, and then emollient for 2 months

      Explanation:

      In most cases, labial adhesion can be resolved through conservative methods. However, if the individual experiences symptoms such as pain, difficulty urinating, or dribbling, it is recommended to apply oestrogen cream for a period of 6 weeks until the membrane dissolves. Following this, an emollient should be applied for a duration of 2 months.

      Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.

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  • Question 73 - You are requested by the practice nurse to assess a mother who has...

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    • You are requested by the practice nurse to assess a mother who has brought in her 12-week-old baby who appears unwell. The mother is concerned because the baby seems to have a fever.

      Upon examination, you observe that the baby has an upper respiratory tract infection. The family members have recently had a cold. Although the baby is pyrexial at 37.8°C, you cannot detect any indications of lower respiratory tract infection.

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mother should be advised to give the child paracetamol for as long as it appears distressed

      Explanation:

      Fever Management in Children

      A fever over 38°C is an indication for admission. However, antipyretics should only be administered if the child appears distressed by the fever, rather than for the sole aim of reducing body temperature. It is important to note that antipyretic agents do not prevent febrile convulsions and should not be used specifically for this purpose. When using paracetamol or ibuprofen in children with fever, it is recommended to continue only as long as the child appears distressed and to consider changing to the other agent if the distress is not alleviated. It is not recommended to give both agents simultaneously, and only consider alternating these agents if the distress persists or recurs before the next dose is due.

      In most cases, fever of this nature is viral in origin, and specific antibacterial intervention is not required. Cold sponging is also not effective in reducing fever. It is important to note that while a significant percentage of children suffer from febrile fits, these do not usually predispose the patient to the development of epilepsy later. The risk is very small, one to two in one hundred in the general population and one in fifty for the febrile convulsion group. Proper management of fever in children is crucial to ensure their well-being and prevent any unnecessary complications.

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  • Question 74 - A 6-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of genital itching, redness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of genital itching, redness, and discomfort that worsens during urination. She is asymptomatic otherwise and has normal vital signs. What is the best initial approach to managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hygiene advice

      Explanation:

      For pre-pubertal girls with vulvovaginitis and no red flags, general measures should be attempted before further investigations. The most appropriate measure is providing hygiene advice, which includes wiping from front to back, maintaining hand hygiene, wearing loose cotton underwear, and avoiding irritants such as soaps, bubble baths, and laundry detergents. Vinegar baths and barrier creams may also be helpful. Clotrimazole pessary, oral metronidazole, and oral trimethoprim are not recommended for this age group and scenario. It is important to note that vulvovaginitis in young girls often resolves on its own as they grow older.

      Gynaecological Problems in Children: Vulvovaginitis

      In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon, and vulvovaginitis is the most prevalent disorder. This condition is often caused by poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. Bacterial or fungal organisms may be responsible for the infection, and in rare cases, sexual abuse may present as vulvovaginitis. If there is a bloody discharge, it is essential to consider a foreign body.

      It is not recommended to perform vaginal examinations or vaginal swabs on children. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. Most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.

      The management of vulvovaginitis includes advising the child about hygiene, using soothing creams, and applying topical antibiotics or antifungals. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be necessary. It is crucial to seek medical attention if the symptoms persist or worsen.

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  • Question 75 - A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.

      It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.

      If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.

      Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.

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  • Question 76 - A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has a temperature of 39°C and symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no high-risk signs to suggest that admission to hospital is necessary and it is decided that the child should be looked after at home.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give to the parents regarding antipyretic interventions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antipyretic drugs are only needed if the child appears distressed or unwell

      Explanation:

      Antipyretic Interventions for Children with Fever

      Antipyretic drugs, such as paracetamol and ibuprofen, are recommended for children with fever if they appear distressed or unwell. However, these drugs should not be given solely to reduce body temperature or prevent febrile convulsions. Over-wrapping or underdressing a child with fever should also be avoided.

      Either paracetamol or ibuprofen can be given, but ibuprofen should be avoided if the child is dehydrated. Both drugs are equally effective and well tolerated, but they should not be given at the same time. If one drug is not effective, the other drug may be added with caution over dosing intervals.

      Aspirin should not be given to children under 16 years old due to safety concerns about the risk of developing Reye syndrome. Ibuprofen and/or paracetamol are appropriate for use.

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  • Question 77 - A mother of a 9-month-old seeks guidance. Initially, she opted out of the...

    Incorrect

    • A mother of a 9-month-old seeks guidance. Initially, she opted out of the oral rotavirus vaccine for her child to limit the number of immunisations. However, due to an outbreak at her baby's daycare, she now desires the vaccine. What should she do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain that is no longer safe to give the vaccine to her child

      Explanation:

      The oral rotavirus vaccine must be administered before 15 weeks for the first dose.

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.

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  • Question 78 - A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in...

    Incorrect

    • A father requests access to his 16-year-old son's medical records. He is in the process of separating from his son's mother, and they have been married for twenty-five years.

      What is the most appropriate action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seek consent from the son, and if he is competent, disclose only information that is not prejudicial to a third party with his consent

      Explanation:

      Confidential Medical Records for Adolescents

      When it comes to disclosing confidential medical records of a 15-year-old adolescent, it is important to consider their maturity level. If they are deemed ‘Gillick’ competent, then their decision to disclose or withhold their medical record should be respected. However, practitioners must carefully review any third-party information and any information that may cause harm to an individual’s physical or mental health. If necessary, this information can be withheld under the Data Protection Act 1998. It is crucial to handle confidential medical records with care to protect the privacy and well-being of adolescents.

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  • Question 79 - You are working in a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in...

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    • You are working in a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no known allergies to any medications and is usually in good health.

      You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.

      The daughter is scheduled to go on a field trip to the zoo the next day and is very excited about it. The mother asks if it is safe for her daughter to go on the field trip.

      What is your plan for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed

      Explanation:

      Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, even if there is suspicion or confirmation of fusidic acid resistance. However, prescribing topical antibiotics is an option. It is important to advise the patient that he cannot attend school or go on his school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 80 - For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer...

    Incorrect

    • For which children is it necessary to defer their polio vaccination and refer them to a child specialist for additional guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A child with uncontrolled epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Polio Vaccination and Neurological Conditions

      The Department of Health’s ‘Green Book’ provides guidelines for polio vaccination and neurological conditions. According to the book, stable pre-existing neurological conditions such as spina bifida and congenital brain abnormalities do not prevent polio vaccination. However, if a child has an unstable or deteriorating neurological condition, vaccination should be deferred, and the child should be referred to a specialist for further assessment and advice. This includes children with uncontrolled epilepsy.

      It is important to note that a family history of seizures or epilepsy doesn’t prevent immunization. However, if there is a personal or family history of febrile seizures, there is an increased risk of these occurring after any fever, including post-immunization. In such cases, immunization should proceed as recommended, with advice on the prevention and management of fever beforehand.

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  • Question 81 - A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old boy is brought to you by his mother due to concerns about his walking pattern. During examination, you observe an in-toeing gait. Further examination of his limbs reveals bilateral femoral anteversion as the only abnormality. The child is otherwise developing normally.

      What would be the appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      It is normal for toddlers and young children to walk with their feet facing inwards, a condition known as in-toeing. This should resolve on its own by the age of 8-10 years, and parents should not be overly concerned. In-toeing is often caused by femoral anteversion, which typically corrects itself as the child grows. Orthotics and physiotherapy are not necessary for this condition, except in cases where it is associated with metatarsus adductus. However, if in-toeing persists beyond the age of 8 with symptoms such as frequent tripping or pain, referral to an orthopaedic specialist may be necessary. It is not necessary to refer children with in-toeing to paediatrics, as it is considered a normal variation.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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  • Question 82 - You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5º,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 9-month-old boy. He initially had of temperatures up to 39.5º, runny nose and was generally irritable. The fever has now settled but his mother is worried as the patient has developed a rash on his face and body. On examination, you note small red spots that blanch when touched. No itchiness or blisters are noted.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Possible Childhood Viral Infections and Their Features

      Roseola is a likely diagnosis in a child who presents with high fever, upper respiratory symptoms, and a characteristic rash that appears as the fever subsides. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, typically manifests as a slapped cheek appearance. Hand, foot and mouth disease usually causes symptoms on the hands, feet, and mouth, such as red macules that develop into vesicles and ulcers. Measles has a prodromal phase with fever, malaise, coryza, cough, and conjunctivitis, followed by an erythematous and maculopapular rash that often starts on the head and spreads to the trunk and limbs. Koplik spots may also appear in the oral mucosa. Unlike Roseola, the rash often coincides with the fever. Finally, Molluscum contagiosum presents as small round white, pink, or brown papules with a central indentation. Knowing these features can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for childhood viral infections.

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  • Question 83 - In the case of diaper rash in an infant, what skin care advice...

    Incorrect

    • In the case of diaper rash in an infant, what skin care advice would be suitable to provide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bath the child daily

      Explanation:

      To prevent nappy rash, it is recommended to leave the nappies off for as long as possible and use water or fragrance-free and alcohol-free baby wipes for cleaning. After cleaning, it is important to dry the area gently without rubbing vigorously. Bathing the child daily is also recommended, but excessive bathing (more than twice a day) should be avoided as it may dry out the skin. It is advised not to use soap, bubble bath, or lotions. Additionally, using nappies with high absorbency, such as disposable gel matrix nappies, and changing the child as soon as possible after wetting or soiling can also help prevent nappy rash.

      Understanding Napkin Rashes and How to Manage Them

      Napkin rashes, also known as nappy rashes, are common skin irritations that affect babies and young children. The most common cause of napkin rash is irritant dermatitis, which is caused by the irritant effect of urinary ammonia and faeces. This type of rash typically spares the creases. Other causes of napkin rash include candida dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, psoriasis, and atopic eczema.

      To manage napkin rash, it is recommended to use disposable nappies instead of towel nappies and to expose the napkin area to air when possible. Applying a barrier cream, such as Zinc and castor oil, can also help. In severe cases, a mild steroid cream like 1% hydrocortisone may be necessary. If the rash is suspected to be candidal nappy rash, a topical imidazole should be used instead of a barrier cream until the candida has settled.

      It is important to note that napkin rash can be uncomfortable for babies and young children, so it is essential to manage it promptly. By following these general management points, parents and caregivers can help prevent and manage napkin rashes effectively.

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  • Question 84 - You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 12-year-old boy with an unusual pattern of bruising on his back. He is accompanied by his older sister who is aged 20, as the mother is unwell. The boy says he fell awkwardly while at school.

      After the consultation, the older sibling tells the boy to wait in the waiting room and then tells you that she thinks that her mother is hitting the boy. She asks you not to say anything as she doesn't want to get her mother into trouble.

      How would you manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should refer the child to a haematologist to investigate the bruising

      Explanation:

      Responding to Suspected Child Abuse in a Medical Setting

      When presented with possible cases of child abuse, it is our duty to be vigilant and take action. If a child discloses abuse to you in a medical setting, it is important to respond appropriately. The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has produced a toolkit to assist practices in managing suspected cases of abuse.

      If a child discloses abuse to you, it is important to stay calm and listen actively to what they are saying. Find an appropriate opportunity to explain that the information will likely need to be shared with others and avoid promising to keep secrets. Allow the child to continue at their own pace and ask only clarifying questions, avoiding leading questions.

      Reassure the child that they have done the right thing by telling you and explain what you will do next and with whom the information will be shared. It is important to record what has been said in writing, using the child’s own words as much as possible, and noting the date, time, any names mentioned, and to whom the information was given. Do not delay passing this information on.

      In summary, responding to suspected child abuse in a medical setting requires active listening, appropriate communication, and prompt action.

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  • Question 85 - A 35-year-old woman comes in for her 6 week postpartum check after giving...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in for her 6 week postpartum check after giving birth to a baby with Down's syndrome. Genetic testing confirmed non-disjunction as the cause of the trisomy. The patient is curious about the likelihood of having another child with Down's syndrome in the future. What is the probability of this occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      The recurrence rate of Down’s syndrome is typically 1 in 100.

      Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.

      There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.

      The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.

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  • Question 86 - A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents with swelling under his arm. He was well until six days before, when he developed mild fever and malaise. Immunisations are up-to-date. No family history of note. The family have a pet kitten and there were visible scratches on his arm.

      On examination the temperature is 37.8°C. He has a 2.5 cm smooth enlargement of a node in the right axilla. This is slightly red but not fluctuant. Otherwise there are no abnormalities to find.

      What is the single most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin and incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      Cat-Scratch Disease: A Brief Overview

      The patient’s medical history suggests subacute regional gland enlargement due to inflammation. This is a common symptom of cat-scratch disease, which is caused by the bacteria Bartonella henselae. The incubation period for this disease is typically 3-30 days, and small erythematous lesions may be found along the scratch marks. After 1-4 weeks, regional adenopathy develops.

      In most cases, patients who are not immunocompromised do not require specific antibiotic treatment for cat-scratch disease. However, those with severe symptoms or compromised immune systems may benefit from treatment with either azithromycin or ciprofloxacin. It is important to note that early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications from this disease.

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  • Question 87 - A 16-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis comes for his yearly...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male with a history of cystic fibrosis comes for his yearly check-up. What is the most suitable recommendation for his diet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

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  • Question 88 - You see a 10-month-old girl with her mother who is concerned as her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 10-month-old girl with her mother who is concerned as her daughter seems pale and has a high temperature. She states that she has been lethargic and not smiling for the last 24 hours. She has had a snotty nose and a cough for the last 2 days. Everyone at home also has a nasty cold. She is managing to drink milk well and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. Her mother hasn't noticed any rashes.

      On examination, she looks pale and miserable but lets you examine her. Her temperature is 38.1ºC, she has moist mucous membranes and her capillary refill time is 3 seconds. You observe her heart rate to be 140 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 50 breaths per minute and her chest sounds clear. Her oxygen saturations are 98% in air. You undress her fully and there are no rashes and her abdomen is soft. Her throat is red with large tonsils and both her eardrums are bright red and bulging.

      Which observation that you have made is normal in this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A heart rate of 140 bpm.

      Explanation:

      In children under 12 months old, a heart rate of 140 is within the normal range of 110-160 bpm. However, pallor and not smiling are considered amber symptoms according to the NICE traffic light system for feverish children and should be monitored closely. A respiratory rate of 50 and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds or more are also abnormal and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.

      Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.

      Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
      < 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
      1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
      2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
      5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
      > 12 60 – 100 15 – 20

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  • Question 89 - A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her mother, complaining of a rash of small red dots on both arms that has been gradually worsening over the past month. The patient reports feeling generally well, but has been experiencing increased fatigue lately. Upon examination, you note a petechial rash on both forearms and her left calf, as well as hepatomegaly and splenomegaly (3 cm and 2cm below the costal margin, respectively). What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer her for an immediate specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      The presence of a deteriorating petechial rash, fatigue, and hepatosplenomegaly indicates a possible case of leukemia in this patient. As per NICE guidelines, an urgent referral for specialist evaluation is advised. The specialist will conduct additional tests, including blood tests and bone marrow biopsy, and discuss potential hospitalization and treatment options.

      Understanding Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children, accounting for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children aged 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, fever, and testicular swelling.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and pre-B phenotype. T-cell ALL accounts for 20% of cases, while B-cell ALL accounts for only 5%.

      Certain factors can affect the prognosis of ALL, including age, white blood cell count at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, race, and sex. Children under 2 years or over 10 years of age, those with a WBC count over 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, and those with T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian, and male sex have a poorer prognosis.

      Understanding the different types and prognostic factors of ALL can help in the early detection and management of this cancer. It is important to seek medical attention if any of the symptoms mentioned above are present.

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  • Question 90 - A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing....

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby presents with a brief history of cough and difficulty breathing. During the examination, the infant has a temperature of 38.6°C and a respiratory rate of 37. The baby appears distressed, and there are widespread crackles and wheezing sounds when listening to the chest. The pulse rate is 170 BPM. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchiolitis in Children

      This child is experiencing acute bronchiolitis and needs to be admitted to the hospital for supportive care. Ribavirin may also be necessary. The child is showing clear signs of respiratory distress. The most common cause of acute bronchiolitis is respiratory syncytial virus, but adenoviruses and parainfluenza viruses can also be responsible.

      Acute bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in young children, especially those under the age of two. It is characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the small airways in the lungs, making it difficult for the child to breathe. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Treatment typically involves supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and fluids, and may also include antiviral medications like ribavirin.

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  • Question 91 - A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has...

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    • A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
      What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.

      It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.

      IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.

      HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.

      Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.

      In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 92 - A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local nephrologists is brought to the surgery by his mother.

      He has been complaining of pleuritic chest pain for the past 24 hours and told his mother that he has coughed up some blood. On one occasion he became distressed and vomited. Other past medical history of note includes asthma and some problems with tonsillitis.

      On examination his BP is 90/60 mmHg, his pulse 105 regular. He looks in pain, but there are no focal signs on respiratory examination.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Embolism in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Pulmonary embolus is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that may be missed due to its rarity. However, its presentation in children is similar to that in adults, with symptoms such as hypotension, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and possibly haemoptysis. In children with nephrotic syndrome, the risk of pulmonary embolism is increased due to abnormalities in clotting factors and hypercoagulability. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential complication and consider it in the differential diagnosis of children with nephrotic syndrome presenting with respiratory symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent serious consequences and improve outcomes for these patients.

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  • Question 93 - A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl and is worried about her daughter's...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl and is worried about her daughter's swollen, painful fingers. The mother describes the fingers as looking like sausages when they are swollen. You observe that the patient has had previous consultations for joint pains in her knees and hands. During the examination, you notice some nail pitting.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Types of Juvenile Arthritis and Their Symptoms

      Juvenile arthritis is a condition that affects children and adolescents, causing joint pain, swelling, and stiffness. There are different types of juvenile arthritis, each with its own set of symptoms. It is important to identify the type of arthritis a child has in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Juvenile psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that should be considered if a child has arthritic symptoms along with dactylitis, nail pitting, or nail onycholysis, even if there is no personal or family history of psoriasis. This is because arthritis can occur before psoriasis develops.

      Enthesis-related JIA should be considered if the arthritis is associated with inflammation at the site of a tendon or ligament insertion, such as heel pain.

      Oligoarticular JIA should be considered if the arthritis is affecting up to four joints for over six months, often presenting with joint swelling and stiffness but with no or mild pain.

      Septic arthritis and Systemic JIA are usually associated with fever and do not explain the nail pitting or dactylitis.

      In summary, identifying the type of juvenile arthritis a child has is crucial for proper treatment. Symptoms such as dactylitis, nail pitting, and inflammation at the site of a tendon or ligament insertion can help differentiate between different types of juvenile arthritis.

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  • Question 94 - A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset...

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    • A 12-year-old boy with cystic fibrosis comes to the clinic with abrupt onset of intense pleuritic chest pain. There is no record of hemoptysis. During the examination, he has a normal body temperature but an elevated respiratory rate and reports sharp chest pain with every inhalation. The pain is localized to the right side of his chest. Auscultation reveals breath sounds on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax in Children with Cystic Fibrosis

      Pneumothorax is a known complication of cystic fibrosis, and sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain is a common symptom. However, only large pneumothoraces give the classic reduced breath sounds and hyperresonant percussion note. Children with congenital lung disease like cystic fibrosis may develop small pneumothoraces, which can be difficult to diagnose due to airflow limitation.

      If a child with cystic fibrosis presents with sudden onset of severe pleuritic chest pain, they should be referred to the hospital for a chest X-ray to confirm the diagnosis and assess the need for drainage. Pneumothoraces can also occur due to chest trauma or pneumonia infection.

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  • Question 95 - A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call

      Explanation:

      Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.

      Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.

      The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.

      Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.

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  • Question 96 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you by his mother due to...

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    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you by his mother due to concerns about his hearing. The school has raised concerns about his lack of attention in class and his speech and language development. The mother reports that at home, she has noticed her son sitting close to the television and frequently having to repeat herself when speaking to him.

      Upon reviewing the medical records, it is noted that the child has had recurrent episodes of acute otitis media affecting both ears over the past 18 months. He was last seen by a colleague at the practice three months ago and was treated for right-sided acute otitis media with a course of oral amoxicillin.

      On examination, the child appears to be in good health, but both tympanic membranes are intact and have a grey color with absent light reflexes.

      What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Media with Effusion (Glue Ear)

      Eighty percent of children under 10-years-old will have experienced at least one episode of otitis media with effusion (OME), commonly known as glue ear. This condition is characterized by relapsing and remitting episodes that can last for 6-10 weeks, with bimodal peaks at 2 and 5 years of age. The main concern with glue ear is the associated conductive hearing impairment, which can have significant repercussions for a child’s education and speech and language development.

      In cases where symptoms persist, specialist referral to audiometry or ENT for hearing assessment is indicated, probably leading to the need for ENT intervention (grommet insertion) based on the clinical picture (developmental issues are present and the problems are persistent). It is worth noting that antibiotics, topical and systemic steroids, decongestants, mucolytics, and antihistamines are not recommended in the routine management of OME.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend a period of watchful waiting for three months, with two pure-tone audiograms three months apart, to confirm and quantify the hearing loss. Audiometry is important to ensure there is not a more significant hearing deficit. Ultimately, surgical treatment in the form of ventilation tube (grommet) insertion is effective in managing OME.

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  • Question 97 - In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions That Necessitate Surgical Intervention

      1. Hirschsprung’s Disease:
        • Description: Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital condition characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a segment of the colon, leading to bowel obstruction due to a lack of peristalsis in the affected area.
        • Surgical Intervention: Surgery is required to remove the aganglionic segment of the colon. This is typically done through a procedure called a pull-through surgery, where the diseased segment is removed, and the healthy bowel is connected to the anus.

      Conditions That May or May Not Require Surgical Intervention

      1. Tongue Tie (Ankyloglossia):
        • Description: Tongue tie occurs when the lingual frenulum (the band of tissue under the tongue) is too short or tight, restricting tongue movement.
        • Surgical Intervention: A frenotomy or frenuloplasty may be performed if the tongue tie significantly affects breastfeeding, speech, or oral hygiene. However, not all cases require surgery, and some may resolve as the child grows.

      Conditions That Typically Do Not Require Surgical Intervention in Newborns

      1. Umbilical Hernia:
        • Description: An umbilical hernia is a protrusion of the intestine or other tissue through a weakness in the abdominal muscles near the belly button.
        • Management: Most umbilical hernias in newborns close spontaneously by the age of 1-3 years. Surgery is usually only considered if the hernia persists beyond this age or if complications arise (e.g., incarceration or strangulation).
      2. Non-retractile Prepuce (Phimosis):
        • Description: Non-retractile prepuce is common in newborns and infants, where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis.
        • Management: This is typically physiological and resolves naturally as the child grows. Surgery, such as circumcision, is generally only considered if there are recurrent urinary tract infections or other complications.
      3. Capillary Haemangioma (Infantile Hemangioma):
        • Description: Capillary hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that appear as red or purple skin lesions in newborns.
        • Management: Most infantile hemangiomas do not require surgical intervention and tend to regress spontaneously over time. Surgery or other treatments may be considered if the hemangioma causes complications, such as obstruction of vision or airway, ulceration, or bleeding.

      Summary

      • Surgical intervention is necessary for Hirschsprung’s disease in the newborn period.
      • Tongue tie may require surgery if it affects feeding or speech, but many cases do not.
      • Umbilical hernia, non-retractile prepuce, and capillary hemangioma generally do not require immediate surgical intervention in newborns unless complications occur.

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  • Question 98 - Which one of the following statements regarding the pertussis vaccine is accurate? ...

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    • Which one of the following statements regarding the pertussis vaccine is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be offered to all pregnant women

      Explanation:

      All pregnant women are now eligible to receive the pertussis (whooping cough) vaccine.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

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  • Question 99 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She...

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    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She has come to the surgery alone. You attempt to discuss the request in more detail but she seems nervous and fidgety, not making eye contact with you. You ask her if she would like someone else present for the discussion.
      She says she wants to start taking the pill as she is in a relationship and wants to be safe. She appears to be listening but is not asking any questions.
      You explain to her that you need to make a thorough assessment if you are to prescribe, and you need to make sure she understands the implications of using contraception and becoming sexually active. You ask her if she has any questions or concerns, and she asks a few questions but seems hesitant to discuss further.
      What is the most appropriate approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review her or refer her to a specialist young person's clinic

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines and Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for assessing young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment. According to these guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, are at risk of physical or mental harm without treatment, and require advice or treatment in their best interests without parental consent.

      However, there can be considerable differences in the maturity of teenagers seeking contraception, and it is important to consider whether the failure of the consultation is due to the doctor’s communication skills or the young person’s anxiety. For instance, a young person who is not sexually active may not understand the importance of contraception and may need education or counselling to help them make informed decisions about their sexual health.

      In such cases, a specialist young people’s service may be able to provide the necessary support, such as counselling, education, or youth work interventions, to help the young person understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about their sexual health. By providing young people with the information and support they need, healthcare professionals can help them make responsible choices about their sexual health and reduce the risk of physical and mental harm.

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  • Question 100 - Which one of the following is an example of a primary accident prevention...

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    • Which one of the following is an example of a primary accident prevention strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stair guards

      Explanation:

      Accidents and Preventive Healthcare

      Accidents are a common cause of childhood deaths, with road traffic accidents being the most common cause of fatal accidents. Boys and children from lower social classes are more likely to have an accident. Around 15-20% of children attend Emergency Departments in the course of a year due to an accident. Preventive healthcare can be divided into primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies. Primary prevention aims to prevent accidents or diseases from happening, while secondary prevention aims to prevent injury from the accident or disease. Tertiary prevention aims to limit the impact of the injury. Examples of preventive healthcare strategies include teaching road safety, wearing seat belts, and teaching parents first aid. Some strategies, such as reducing driving speed, may have a role in both primary and secondary accident prevention. By implementing these strategies, we can reduce the number of accidents and improve the overall health and safety of children.

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