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Question 1
Correct
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Which Piagetian stage is accurately paired with the corresponding developmental period?
Your Answer: Preoperational - 2-7 years
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with concerns that she may be losing her mind. She reports experiencing peculiar odors, such as burnt rubber, and frequently experiences feelings of 'jamais vu'. However, no one else detects any unusual smells during these episodes. She remains fully conscious and can recall the events vividly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizophreniform attack
Correct Answer: Simple partial seizure
Explanation:If the individual were to experience impaired consciousness during the attack, this would be classified as a complex partial seizure. However, based on the current symptoms, it appears to be a simple partial seizure with retained consciousness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is one of the main skills proposed by Thurstone?
Your Answer: Matrix reasoning
Correct Answer: Word fluency
Explanation:All the other choices are components of the WAIS (Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale).
Thurstone’s Theory of Intelligence
Louis Leon Thurstone believed that intelligence could not be reduced to a single factor. Instead, he proposed that intelligence is composed of seven distinct abilities, which he called the primary abilities. These abilities include word fluency, verbal comprehension, spatial visualization, number facility, associative memory, reasoning, and perceptual speed. According to Thurstone, each of these abilities is independent of the others and contributes to an individual’s overall intelligence. This theory challenged the prevailing view of intelligence at the time, which held that intelligence could be measured by a single factor known as the g factor. Thurstone’s theory has had a lasting impact on the field of psychology and has influenced the development of modern intelligence tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which gene is mutated to cause the CGG repeats observed in fragile X syndrome?
Your Answer: MAPT
Correct Answer: FMR1
Explanation:Fragile X is caused by a mutation in FMR1 that leads to the presence of CGG trinucleotide repeats. The remaining genes mentioned are associated with dementia.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder Causing Learning Disability and Psychiatric Symptoms
Fragile X Syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and large testicles in men. Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, avoid eye contact, and have difficulties reading facial expressions. They also display stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. Fragile X Syndrome is the most common inherited cause of learning disability.
The speech of affected individuals is often abnormal, with abnormalities of fluency. This disorder is caused by the amplification of a CGG repeat in the 5 untranslated region of the fragile X mental retardation 1 gene (FMR1). These CGG repeats disrupt synthesis of the fragile X protein (FMRP), which is essential for brain function and growth. The gene is located at Xq27. The greater number of repeats, the more severe the condition, as with other trinucleotide repeat disorders.
The fragile X phenotype typically involves a variety of psychiatric symptoms, including features of autism, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, anxiety, and aggression. Both males and females can be affected, but males are more severely affected because they have only one X chromosome. The prevalence estimate of Fragile X Syndrome is 1/3600-4000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which substance follows zero order kinetics during metabolism?
Your Answer: Lithium
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Self-injurious behaviour is linked to a lack of which enzyme?
Your Answer: Alpha-secretase
Correct Answer: Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase
Explanation:Niemann-Pick disease is caused by a deficiency in sphingomyelinase.
Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.
People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.
The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.
Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What factor indicates a negative outcome?
Your Answer: Few of no episodes in the past
Correct Answer: Gradual onset
Explanation:A slow and steady development indicates a negative outcome, while all other factors suggest a positive prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Aetiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which brain system enables the integration of emotional sensory information between the cortex and hypothalamus?
Your Answer: Papez circuit
Explanation:In 1937, James Papez proposed a neural circuit that explained how emotional experiences occur in the brain. According to Papez, sensory messages related to emotional stimuli are first received by the thalamus, which then directs them to both the cortex (stream of thinking) and hypothalamus (stream of feeling). The cingulate cortex integrates this information from the hypothalamus and sensory cortex, leading to emotional experiences. The output via the hippocampus and hypothalamus allows cortical control of emotional responses. This circuit has since been reconceptualized as the limbic system.
The medial longitudinal fasciculus carries fibres from cranial nerves III, IV and IV. The nucleus accumbens plays a major role in the reward circuit, while the somatosensory cortex is involved in processing pain. The basal ganglia are involved in voluntary motor control.
Overall, the Papez circuit theory provides a framework for understanding the functional neuroanatomy of emotion. It highlights the importance of the limbic system in emotional experiences and the role of various brain regions in processing different aspects of emotional stimuli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 9
Correct
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What scale necessitates the clinician to possess prior familiarity with the patient's ailment?
Your Answer: Clinical global impression
Explanation:In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which antidepressant is most commonly linked to neutropenia?
Your Answer: Reboxetine
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Sertraline use has been linked to the development of leucopenia. Patients are advised to report any signs of infection, such as fever, sore throat, of stomatitis, during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the symptoms of ADHD?
Your Answer: Gonadotropin levels are lowered in anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa share similar clinical syndromes, and individuals with eating disorders may transition between the two disorders multiple times. The bulimic subtype of anorexia nervosa involves binge episodes. Anorexia nervosa is more prevalent in females, with a female-to-male ratio of 10:1. Endocrine abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, low levels of gonadotropins (LH and FSH), low levels of estrogen and progesterone, low levels of triiodothyronine, high levels of cortisol, high levels of fasting growth hormone, and irregular vasopressin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the most dependable indicator of the sudden and unforeseen demise of an individual with epilepsy?
Your Answer: Alcohol use
Correct Answer: Frequent generalised tonic-clonic seizures
Explanation:SUDEP, of sudden unexpected death in epilepsy, is a condition where patients with epilepsy die suddenly and unexpectedly without any apparent cause. It is estimated to be responsible for 20-30% of deaths in epilepsy patients. The condition is more common in adults than in children, affecting 1 in 1,000 adults with epilepsy per year. The main risk factor for SUDEP is having active generalised tonic clonic seizures (GTCS), and better control of these seizures through improved compliance can reduce the risk of SUDEP. Other risk factors include nocturnal seizures, lamotrigine, never having been treated with an antiepileptic drug, intellectual disability, and male sex. However, the evidence for these factors is considered low. Autopsy findings in SUDEP cases do not reveal any specific cause of death, but obstruction of the airways and cardiorespiratory events such as arrhythmia are thought to be possible mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Correct
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To which category does the dentate gyrus belong?
Your Answer: Hippocampus
Explanation:The dentate gyrus is a component of the hippocampal formation.
A gyrus is a ridge on the cerebral cortex, and there are several important gyri to be aware of in exams. These include the angular gyrus in the parietal lobe for language, mathematics, and cognition; the cingulate gyrus adjacent to the corpus callosum for emotion, learning, and memory; the fusiform gyrus in the temporal lobe for face and body recognition, as well as word and number recognition; the precentral gyrus in the frontal lobe for voluntary movement control; the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe for touch; the lingual gyrus in the occipital lobe for dreaming and word recognition; the superior frontal gyrus in the frontal lobe for laughter and self-awareness; the superior temporal gyrus in the temporal lobe for language and sensation of sound; the parahippocampal gyrus surrounding the hippocampus for memory; and the dentate gyrus in the hippocampus for the formation of episodic memory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication belongs to the substituted benzamide class?
Your Answer: Pimozide
Correct Answer: Sulpiride
Explanation:Sulpiride belongs to the substituted benzamide class of drugs.
Chlorpromazine falls under the phenothiazine category.
Flupentixol is classified as a thioxanthene medication.
Haloperidol is a butyrophenone compound.
Pimozide is a diphenylbutylpiperidine drug. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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What gene is thought to increase the likelihood of individuals developing frontotemporal dementia?
Your Answer: Progranulin
Explanation:Genes Associated with Dementia
Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.
Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.
In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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This is an example of a verbal fluency test, which assesses a person's ability to generate words within a specific category of starting with a particular letter. The man demonstrated good verbal fluency for words starting with F, but his performance decreased when asked to generate words starting with A. This could indicate a difficulty with cognitive flexibility of retrieval of information.
For instance, during clinical assessment, a 70-year-old woman is asked to name animals beginning with the letter B, which she does, naming ten words in one minute. She is then asked to name animals beginning with the letter G and replies, goat, giraffe....Your Answer: Expressive dysphasia
Correct Answer: Perseveration
Explanation:To assess recall failure, the clinician typically asks the client to remember and then recall three objects after a delay. In the scenario described, the client’s difficulty cannot be attributed to a failure to maintain attention on the task, as their performance over the previous minute does not support this interpretation. However, the client’s perseveration in providing examples of words beginning with F suggests a possible issue with set-shifting, while expressive dysphasia may be identified through failure in speech of naming of objects during cognitive assessment. Disorientation, on the other hand, is typically evaluated through ten questions at the beginning of a mini-mental state examination of through screening questions during clinical assessment, and refers to a lack of recognition of place, time, of person.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cognitive Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which option is not one of Bowlby's stages of grief?
Your Answer: Yearning-searching
Correct Answer: Bargaining
Explanation:Understanding Grief: Normal and Abnormal Phases
Grief is a natural response to loss, and it is a complex process that can take different forms and durations. John Bowlby and Kubler-Ross have proposed models to describe the typical phases of grief, which can vary in intensity and duration for each individual. Bowlby’s model includes shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization, while Kubler-Ross’s model includes denial-dissociation-isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
However, some people may experience abnormal grief, which can be categorized as inhibited, delayed, of chronic/prolonged. Inhibited grief refers to the absence of expected grief symptoms at any stage, while delayed grief involves avoiding painful symptoms within two weeks of loss. Chronic/prolonged grief is characterized by continued significant grief-related symptoms six months after loss.
It is important to distinguish between normal grief and major depression, as a high proportion of people may meet the criteria for major depression in the first year following bereavement. Some features that can help differentiate between the two include generalized guilt, thoughts of death unrelated to the deceased, feelings of worthlessness, psychomotor retardation, and prolonged functional impairment.
Overall, understanding the phases and types of grief can help individuals and their loved ones navigate the grieving process and seek appropriate support and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the definition of transcription?
Your Answer: The process where messenger RNA is produced from DNA
Explanation:Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.
Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.
The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old child with emerging evidence of a learning disability is referred by the paediatricians. They have an unusual facial appearance consisting of a broad, flat nasal bridge and a high forehead. The paediatrician describes this as a 'Greek warrior helmet' appearance. The eyes are widely spaced and may be protruding.
The child had recurrent seizures as a child, but this have begun to resolve.
Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities do you most suspect?Your Answer: The loss of function of genes in chromosome 15
Correct Answer: A deletion near the end of 4p
Explanation:Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome, also referred to as 4p deletion syndrome, is caused by the loss of genetic material located towards the end of the short arm (p) of chromosome 4. This condition is often characterized by a distinct facial appearance resembling a Greek warrior helmet.
Chromosomal location is an important factor in understanding genetic conditions. As a candidate for the MRCPsych, it is essential to be able to link specific disorders to their corresponding chromosomes. For instance, Presenilin 2 is associated with Alzheimer’s disease and is located on chromosome 1. Similarly, DISC-1 and DISC-2 are linked to schizophrenia and are located on chromosome 1 and 6, respectively. RGS-4, which interacts with neuregulin, is also associated with schizophrenia and is located on chromosome 1.
Other disorders linked to specific chromosomes include Huntington’s disease (chromosome 4), Cri-du-Chat syndrome (chromosome 5), and Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes (chromosome 15). Chromosome 17 is associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, Smith-Magenis syndrome, and neurofibromatosis 1. Chromosome 21 is linked to Down’s syndrome, while chromosome X/Y is associated with Fragile X, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, Turners syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
In summary, understanding the chromosomal location of genetic disorders is crucial for psychiatrists and other medical professionals. It helps in the diagnosis, treatment, and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is not indicated by a limited emotional expression?
Your Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with histrionic personality disorder are commonly characterized as having superficial and unstable emotions.
Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect
Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Correct
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The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which ethical theory serves as the foundation for the principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice?
Your Answer: Utilitarianism
Correct Answer: Principlism
Explanation:Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.
More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 23
Correct
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How can the cognitive aspect of social capital be defined?
Your Answer: Values
Explanation:Social Capital: An Explanation for Inequalities in Morbidity and Mortality
The concept of social capital may provide insight into the observed disparities in morbidity and mortality based on occupational social class and material standard of living (McKenzie 2002). Social capital is considered the binding force of society, and it is believed that groups lacking in social capital may be at higher risk for mental illness.
Social capital is defined as the features of social life – networks, norms, and trust – that enable participants to act together more effectively to pursue shared objectives (Putnam, 1996). It is a characteristic of groups rather than individuals and can be divided into structural and cognitive components. Structural social capital includes roles, rules, behaviors, networks, and institutions that bond individuals in groups, bridge divides between societal groups, of vertically integrate groups with different levels of power and influence in a society, leading to social inclusion. Cognitive social capital refers to the values, attitudes, and beliefs that produce cooperative behavior (Colletta & Cullen, 2000).
In summary, social capital may offer an explanation for the observed inequalities in morbidity and mortality by occupational social class and material standard of living. It is a property of groups and can be broken down into structural and cognitive components.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What statement accurately describes the Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale?
Your Answer: It is a 16 item scale
Correct Answer: It can be used in both males and females
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What statement accurately describes Eugen Bleuler?
Your Answer: He coined the term dementia praecox
Correct Answer: He introduced the concept of accessory symptoms in schizophrenia
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage in an emergency situation?
Your Answer: MRI
Correct Answer: CT
Explanation:Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 27
Correct
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What sublingual preparation of an SSRI has demonstrated efficacy in treating depression?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 28
Correct
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In comparison to conventional antipsychotics, which side-effect is more frequently observed with atypical antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following literally translates as 'overthinking' and is a culture-bound syndrome observed in individuals who think that excessive thinking leads to different psychiatric problems and physical symptoms?
Your Answer: Taijin kyofusho
Correct Answer: Kufungisisa
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What substance can be safely consumed along with monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Your Answer: Red wine
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Taking paracetamol with MAOIs is safe, but other medications and certain foods and drinks should be avoided to prevent the cheese reaction. The list of high-tyramine foods is provided in the drug’s leaflet. MAOIs are not commonly prescribed in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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