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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of lip and tongue swelling, redness, and tingling after consuming apples for the past 2 months. The symptoms appear suddenly and last for approximately half an hour. However, they do not occur when the apples are cooked. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hayfever, and several food allergies, including peanuts, brazil nuts, and cashews.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Angioedema
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Food allergy symptoms usually involve nausea and diarrhea, regardless of whether the allergen has been cooked or not. However, oral allergy syndrome is a specific type of reaction that causes tingling in the lips, tongue, and mouth after consuming raw plant foods like spinach or apples. This reaction doesn’t occur when the food is cooked. Patients with this syndrome often have a history of atopic diseases like asthma. Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, presents with wheezing, hives, low blood pressure, and even collapse. Angioedema, which is swelling of the upper airway’s submucosa, is usually caused by ACE inhibitors or C1-esterase inhibitor deficiency and may be accompanied by urticaria.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has difficulty swallowing and speaking that worsens after physical activity. The physician suspects he may have myasthenia gravis.
What is the most likely target of the autoimmune antibodies that cause this disease?Your Answer: Muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Targets and Associations
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscles, leading to muscle weakness that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. In up to 90% of generalized cases, antibodies form against acetylcholine receptors (anti-AChR). However, other muscle antigens may also be targeted.
One such antigen is low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (anti-LRP4), which is found in subsets of myasthenia gravis patients. Another target is muscle-specific receptor tyrosine kinase (anti-MuSK), which is detected in about half of generalized myasthenia gravis patients who are seronegative for anti-AChR antibodies. These patients may not respond to anticholinesterase drugs but do respond to steroid immunosuppression.
An association has also been observed between myasthenia gravis and human leukocyte antigen (HLA), although it is not the most likely target. Additionally, one-half of thymoma patients develop myasthenia gravis, while 15% of myasthenia gravis patients have thymomas. Non-AChR muscle autoantibodies reacting with striated muscle titin and RyR antigens are found in up to 95% of myasthenia gravis patients with a thymoma and in 50% of late-onset myasthenia gravis patients (onset at age of 50 years or later). These antibodies are usually associated with more severe myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the various targets and associations of myasthenia gravis can aid in diagnosis and treatment of this autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner because of atopic eczema. Her patents enquire about the possible role of food allergy in her condition.
Which of the following features is most suggestive of a food allergen exacerbating the eczema of this patient?
Your Answer: Positive radioallergosorbent (RAST) test
Correct Answer: Eczema not controlled by optimum management
Explanation:Understanding Food Allergies and Atopic Eczema in Children
Atopic eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. While it can be managed with proper treatment, some cases may not respond to standard therapies. In these situations, food allergies should be considered as a possible contributing factor. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, children with moderate to severe atopic eczema that has not been controlled with optimum management, particularly if associated with gut dysmotility or failure to thrive, should be evaluated for food allergies.
Elevated levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) are often associated with atopic eczema and may indicate allergies to food or environmental allergens. However, these allergies may not be directly related to the eczema. While exclusive breastfeeding has been recommended to prevent the development of atopic eczema in susceptible infants, there is no evidence to support this claim.
Allergy tests, such as prick tests and radioallergosorbent tests (RAST), may be used to identify potential allergens. However, false positives are common in individuals with atopic eczema due to the skin’s excessive sensitivity. If a true allergy is identified and exposure to the allergen worsens the eczema, removing the allergen may improve the condition.
In summary, understanding the relationship between food allergies and atopic eczema is important for managing this common condition in children. Proper evaluation and treatment can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with a known history of peanut allergy comes to the clinic with facial swelling. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg, pulse is 120 bpm, and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. What type of adrenaline should be administered?
Your Answer: 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM
Explanation:Please find below the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS) in different scenarios:
– Anaphylaxis: 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline should be administered intramuscularly.
– Cardiac arrest: For intravenous administration, 1 mg or 10ml of 1:10,000 adrenaline or 1 ml of 1:1000 adrenaline is recommended.Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body
Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.
Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.
Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.
In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Correct
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Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines and an intranasal corticosteroid. She is seeking a refill and has questions about her condition, including why she doesn't only experience symptoms in the summer like some of her acquaintances. She is also curious about the possibility of testing. What is the most suitable explanation?
Your Answer: Pollen allergy is the cause
Correct Answer: Mainly adults have this condition
Explanation:Understanding Perennial Rhinitis: Causes and Diagnosis
Perennial rhinitis is a condition that occurs throughout the year, and it is more common in adults than in children. While seasonal rhinitis is more likely to affect older children and adolescents, perennial rhinitis is persistent and can be caused by various allergens, including house-dust mites, feathers, animal dander, or allergens at work.
Skin-prick testing is the most sensitive way to investigate the condition, as it measures specific IgE antibodies in the blood. However, it may not always be sensitive enough, and other tests, such as patch testing, may be indicated.
It is important to note that not all cases of perennial rhinitis have an allergic cause, but the response to medication can often provide clues. If an allergic cause is suspected, avoidance measures may be considered to manage symptoms.
Overall, understanding the causes and diagnosis of perennial rhinitis can help individuals manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher, and two children in the kindergarten have developed Chickenpox. Her own mother is certain that she had Chickenpox as a child.
What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give in order to reassure this woman that her baby is not at risk from this Chickenpox contact?
Your Answer: Positive IgG and positive IgM serology
Correct Answer: The patient is at low risk of developing an infection as she is sure she had a previous Chickenpox infection
Explanation:Understanding Chickenpox Serology Results in Pregnancy
Chickenpox infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, it is important to determine a woman’s immunity status before she is exposed to the virus. Serology testing can help determine if a woman has been previously infected or vaccinated against Chickenpox. Here are the possible results and their implications:
– Negative IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has not been previously exposed to the virus and is not immune. She should avoid exposure and receive immunoglobulin if she has significant exposure. She should also be vaccinated postpartum.
– Positive IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has been previously infected or vaccinated and has protective immunity against re-infection. This is the desired result if the woman has no history of Chickenpox.
– Positive IgG and positive IgM serology: This suggests recent infection, but should not be used alone to diagnose infection. Clinical presentation should also be considered. If the woman develops Chickenpox, she should receive acyclovir.
– No serology testing needed: If the woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, she is considered immune and doesn’t need serology testing.It is important to note that a history of Chickenpox may not be a reliable predictor of immunity in women from overseas, and serology testing may be necessary. The NICE guidance on Chickenpox infection in pregnancy provides further recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 54-year-old man comes to the general practice clinic to discuss his aftercare: he was discharged from hospital six weeks ago after a successful liver transplant. He is being treated by the local liver unit and has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and liver cirrhosis caused by alcohol consumption. He is also a smoker. He has some concerns about his ongoing care and would like some guidance on lifestyle issues and managing his blood pressure. What is the best advice to give this patient?
Your Answer: The use of nicotine patches is safe post liver transplant
Explanation:Post-Liver Transplant Patient Care: Important Considerations
Liver transplant patients require specialized care to ensure optimal outcomes. Here are some important considerations:
Encourage smoking cessation: Smoking can promote fibrosis and increase the risk of hepatoma development. Nicotine replacement therapy is a safe option.
Limit alcohol intake: For non-alcohol indications, maintaining alcohol intake below 14 units/week is appropriate to prevent significant relapse and graft damage.
Encourage exercise: Exercise can provide cardiovascular benefits and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Strenuous exercise should be avoided for the first 12 months after transplant.
Consider statins: Pravastatin and atorvastatin are safe and effective for managing hypertriglyceridaemia following a liver transplant.
Use calcium channel blockers for hypertension: These drugs have minimal side effects and do not interact with calcineurin inhibitors like tacrolimus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is a contraindication for pregnant women receiving the pertussis vaccination to protect their unborn infants?
Your Answer: Mothers planning to breastfeed
Correct Answer: Anaphylactic reaction to neomycin
Explanation:Pertussis Vaccine Information
Most combined vaccine formulations for pertussis contain neomycin. However, the only reason an individual cannot receive the vaccine is if they have an anaphylactic reaction. Boostrix-IPV is an inactivated vaccine that will not be affected by anti-D treatment. Even if a pregnant woman has a feverish illness or suspected whooping cough, the pertussis vaccine should still be offered to provide optimal antibody levels for the baby. Evidence shows that immunization during pregnancy can increase pertussis antibodies in breast milk, potentially protecting the baby from the illness. However, this doesn’t replace the need for the infant to complete the recommended primary immunization schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss the results of some recent blood tests she had done due to ongoing symptoms of chronic fatigue. She has a previous diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) from a few years ago, but is otherwise healthy and has never had her blood checked before. She reports experiencing intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, and abdominal pains. She is not taking any medications, her weight is stable, and her blood tests show microcytic anemia with low ferritin levels. Which of the following tests is most likely to lead to an accurate diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis gene (HFE) testing
Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase (TTG)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms: A Case Study
A 28-year-old female patient presents with intermittent abdominal bloating, constipation, abdominal pains, and persistent fatigue. She has never had any blood tests before. The following diagnostic tests are available:
Tissue Transglutaminase (TTG) Test: This test is used to diagnose coeliac disease, an immune-mediated disorder triggered by exposure to dietary gluten. The patient’s symptoms and history suggest coeliac disease, and a TTG test should be requested. If the result suggests possible coeliac disease, the patient should be referred to gastroenterology for endoscopic intestinal biopsy.
Faecal Immunochemical Testing (FIT): FIT testing can be used to look for occult faecal blood if colorectal cancer is suspected. However, the patient’s young age and stable weight make colorectal cancer less likely.
Cancer-Antigen 125 (CA-125) Test: This test is used to diagnose ovarian cancer, which is difficult to diagnose due to nonspecific symptoms. However, the patient’s age makes ovarian cancer less likely than other options.
Faecal Calprotectin Test: This test is used to distinguish between inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). However, the patient’s symptoms do not suggest IBD, and faecal calprotectin may not be the most likely test to lead to the correct diagnosis.
Haemochromatosis Gene (HFE) Testing: This test is used to detect hereditary haemochromatosis, which presents with iron overload rather than deficiency. The patient’s symptoms suggest iron-deficiency anaemia, and HFE testing may not be necessary.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, a TTG test for coeliac disease is the most appropriate diagnostic test to request.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner during the summer. She has suffered from mild asthma for many years, controlled with an inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (SABA). She has started working at a construction site and has noticed that her asthma is much worse, with daily symptoms. She has to use her current inhaler several times a day.
On examination, her chest is clear. Her best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is 480 l/min. Today, her PEFR is 430 l/min.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Provide her with a home allergy testing kit
Correct Answer: Start an inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:Managing Worsening Asthma Symptoms: Starting Inhaled Corticosteroids
This patient’s asthma symptoms have worsened, likely due to exposure to allergens at the stable. While her chest is clear and her PEFR has only mildly dropped, her daily symptoms and use of SABA indicate poorly controlled asthma. The first step in managing her symptoms is to start an inhaled corticosteroid as part of the stepwise approach to asthma management. Urgent allergy testing or a home allergy testing kit are not necessary at this stage, and oral steroids are not yet indicated. Instead, allergen avoidance measures can be discussed. It is not necessary for the patient to stop working at the stable at this time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You have a female patient aged 30 who works in a factory producing latex products. She has developed asthma and you have referred her to the respiratory unit for further investigation into the possibility of occupational asthma. She wants to know what tests she may need.
Which test is of proven value in diagnosing occupational asthma?Your Answer: Patch testing
Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements
Explanation:Diagnosis of Occupational Asthma
Investigations that have been proven valuable in diagnosing occupational asthma include serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. To accurately measure peak flow, it should be measured more than four times a day at and away from work for three weeks. Results should be plotted as daily minimum, mean, and maximum values, and intraday variability should be calculated as a percentage of either the mean or highest value (normal upper value is 20%).
Occupational asthma can be confirmed if there is a consistent fall in peak flow values with increased intraday variability on working days, and improvement on days away from work. Computer-based analysis may be necessary. It is important to note that these investigations are only useful when the patient is still in the job with exposure to the suspected agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes zoster virus (HZV)
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
Explanation:The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).
Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother into the out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts, and is waiting for an allergy clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party around 30 minutes ago, and quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
You suspect anaphylaxis.
What is the most appropriate immediate management option?
Your Answer: Administer 500 µg 1 : 1000 adrenaline IM
Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1 : 1000 adrenaline IM
Explanation:Managing Anaphylaxis: Correct Doses and Emergency Treatment
Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate drug management. Adrenaline 1 : 1000 is the correct immediate management choice, with doses varying depending on the patient’s age. For a 7-year-old child, the correct dose is 300 µg IM.
In addition to adrenaline, other emergency drugs may be necessary, and it is important to attend the nearest emergency department for further treatment. Chlorphenamine is a sedating antihistamine that may be administered, but only after initial stabilisation and not as a first-line intervention. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation, especially in patients with persisting skin symptoms.
It is crucial to administer the correct dose of adrenaline, as an overdose can be dangerous. The adult dose is 500 µg, while the dose for children aged between six and 12 years is 300 µg. A 1000 µg dose is twice the recommended dose for adults and should not be given to a 7-year-old child.
In summary, managing anaphylaxis requires prompt and appropriate drug management, with correct doses of adrenaline and other emergency drugs. It is also important to seek further treatment at the nearest emergency department.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings
Explanation:Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies
Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.Peanut Allergy:
Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.Allergic Rhinitis:
Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.Chronic Urticaria:
Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are instructing a woman on the proper use of an EpiPen. What is the most suitable guidance regarding the injection site?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh
Explanation:The anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh is the recommended site for injecting IM adrenaline.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman arrived as an immigrant in the UK two years ago, and it is not clear what vaccines she has received in her own country. You enquire about her immune status relating to measles.
What is the minimum requirement to satisfy you that she is immune to measles?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella-virus-specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies in the serum
Explanation:Understanding Rubella Immunity: Factors to Consider
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can have serious consequences for pregnant women and their unborn babies. To prevent maternal infection and congenital rubella syndrome, it is important to ensure immunity through vaccination or past infection. Here are some factors to consider when assessing rubella immunity:
– MMR Vaccine: The MMR vaccine is recommended for children and adults, with a two-dose schedule providing the best protection. A single dose can still offer high levels of immunity, but a booster may be necessary.
– Immunisation History: Individuals who have received rubella-containing vaccines in their country of origin may have some level of immunity, but it is important to verify their vaccination status. Those without a reliable history of immunisation should be assumed as unimmunised.
– Childhood History: A history of rubella in childhood may indicate immunity, but it can be difficult to diagnose. Other viral exanthems can have similar symptoms, so a clinical diagnosis may not be reliable.
– Rubella Antibodies: The presence of rubella-virus-specific IgG antibodies in the serum indicates immunity from past infection or immunisation. However, immunity can wear off over time, so it is important to check immunity levels before every pregnancy. Rubella-virus-specific IgM antibodies in the serum can indicate recent or current infection, but these antibodies can persist for up to 12 months after infection or immunisation.By considering these factors, healthcare providers can help ensure that individuals are protected against rubella and its potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate advice to give to a patient with a confirmed food allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Food allergens may be encountered by routes other than ingestion e.g. skin contact, inhalation
Explanation:Managing Food Allergies and Intolerances
Food allergies and intolerances can be managed through food avoidance. Elimination diets should only exclude foods that have been confirmed to cause allergic reactions, and the advice of a dietician may be necessary. It is important to read food labels carefully, although not all potential allergens are included. Cross contact of allergens during meal preparation should be avoided, and high-risk situations such as buffets and picnics should be avoided as well. It is also important to note that there is a possibility of food allergen cross-reactivity, such as between cows’ milk and goats’ milk or between different types of fish. Additionally, there is a risk of exposure to allergens through routes other than ingestion, such as skin contact or inhalation during cooking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl presents with her father with a history of tingling lips and mouth within minutes of eating kiwi. There are no other symptoms. It has occurred on a number of occasions over the past few weeks but only after eating kiwi. Her past medical history includes a diagnosis of eczema. The pediatrician suspects the diagnosis is oral allergy syndrome.
What other condition is the girl likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Birch pollen allergy
Explanation:Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally thought to be asthmatic, but his response to treatment has been poor. He does respond to antibiotics, but the courses he has had in the previous 12 months have totalled 2 months. Primary immunodeficiency is suspected.
Which of the following is the most appropriate test?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin assay
Explanation:Understanding Common Variable Immunodeficiency: Prevalence, Diagnosis, and Delayed Treatment
Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is the most prevalent primary antibody deficiency, affecting approximately 1 in 25,000 individuals. However, due to its rarity, only a small fraction of healthcare professionals will encounter a patient with CVID during their career. This, coupled with a delay in diagnosis, increases the risk of irreversible lung damage and bronchiectasis.
Defects in humoral immunity account for 50% of primary immunodeficiencies, with combined humoral and cellular deficiencies making up 20-30% of cases. Inherited single-gene disorders are the most common cause of primary immune deficiencies. While many of these defects present in infancy and childhood, CVID typically presents after the age of five, with a peak in the second or third decade of life.
A diagnosis of CVID is based on defective functional antibody formation, accompanied by decreased serum immunoglobulin levels (IgG and IgA), generally decreased serum IgM, and exclusion of other known causes of antibody deficiency. Identifying defective functional antibody formation may involve measuring the response to a vaccine such as the pneumococcal vaccine.
Overall, understanding the prevalence, diagnosis, and delayed treatment of CVID is crucial in providing appropriate care for individuals with this rare but potentially debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department with facial swelling that he has had for 2 hours. He started taking a new medication yesterday. During the examination, his lips are found to be swollen. His blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute. He reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.
What medication could be responsible for this reaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valsartan
Explanation:Angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling under the skin, can be caused by various allergens as well as certain medications such as ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs. antihistamines are a common treatment option depending on the underlying cause. However, the medications listed other than ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs are not known to cause angioedema.
Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment
Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Immunodeficiency is most likely to result from which of the following conditions? Please select one option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Causes of Secondary Immunodeficiency
Secondary immunodeficiency can be caused by various factors such as lymphoreticular malignancy, drugs, viruses, malnutrition, metabolic disorders, trauma or major surgery, and protein loss. Lymphoma, myeloma, cytotoxic drugs, and immunosuppressants like corticosteroids are some of the common causes of secondary immunodeficiency. HIV is also a significant cause of secondary immunodeficiency. Malnutrition, particularly protein calorie deficiency, is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiency worldwide. Metabolic disorders like renal disease requiring peritoneal dialysis can also lead to secondary immunodeficiency. Trauma or major surgery and protein loss due to nephrotic syndrome or ulcerative or erosive gastrointestinal disease can also cause secondary immunodeficiency. While heart failure, lung cancer, and polycythemia are consequences of HIV infection, sarcoidosis has been reported to occur in patients with common variable immunodeficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity
Explanation:postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery
Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:
1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.
2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.
3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.
4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.
5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.
6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.
In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old healthcare worker presents to her General Practitioner with an itchy rash on her hands. She reports that the rash develops quickly while she is wearing gloves at work and is diagnosed with a latex allergy. She also mentions experiencing similar symptoms related to food. Which of the following foods is she most likely allergic to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Banana
Explanation:Latex-Fruit Syndrome: Allergies to Certain Fruits and Vegetables
Latex allergies are immediate hypersensitivity reactions that can cause itching, urticaria, angioedema, anaphylaxis, and other symptoms. Latex-fruit syndrome occurs when there is a co-existing allergy to latex and certain fruits or vegetables due to cross-reactivity. The most common fruits associated with this syndrome are bananas, chestnuts, kiwi fruit, avocado, and tomato. Melon, apple, papaya, and potato are less commonly associated with this syndrome. It is believed that the resemblance of these fruits and vegetables to a latex protein component is responsible for the cross-reactivity. If you have a latex allergy, it is important to be aware of the potential for cross-reactivity with certain fruits and vegetables.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the only true statement about allergy from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergy is more common in developed areas than rural areas
Explanation:Understanding the Causes and Patterns of Allergies
Allergies have become increasingly prevalent in recent years, affecting up to 30-35% of people at some point in their lives. This rise is seen not only in developed countries but also in those undergoing development. The causes of allergies are multifactorial, with both environmental and genetic factors playing a role. Outdoor pollution, particularly diesel exhaust particles, has been linked to an increase in respiratory allergies. The hygiene hypothesis suggests that inadequate exposure to environmental micro-organisms during childhood may result in a tendency towards allergy. This is supported by studies showing that children with regular contact with farm animals have a lower incidence of allergy. The pattern of allergy is also changing, with a significant increase in food allergies, particularly among children. Immunotherapy for allergies should only be carried out in hospital where facilities for resuscitation are immediately available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A father has called to report that his preteen son is experiencing breathlessness and swelling about ten minutes after being stung by a bee. The boy's condition has worsened since the sting and he is now having increased difficulty breathing, although he can still speak in complete sentences. Currently, he is lying on the couch and appears to be unwell. An initial diagnosis of anaphylaxis is suspected. They reside in the same town as your clinic, and the father has transportation and is willing to bring his son to the clinic. How would you handle this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An emergency ambulance should be called
Explanation:Managing Anaphylaxis: The Importance of Immediate Medical Attention
Anaphylaxis is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. If a patient presents with symptoms of anaphylaxis, such as difficulty breathing, swelling, and hives, it is crucial to call for an ambulance right away. Basic life support and possible cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) may be necessary.
Transporting the patient in a personal vehicle should only be considered if there are no other options. In most cases, an emergency ambulance will be quicker at responding. If the patient presents at a medical facility, adrenalin should be administered intramuscularly, along with antihistamines and steroids. Adrenalin can be repeated after five minutes if the patient is not responding.
While the use of auto-inject pens is debated, some GPs trained in this area do prescribe them. It is important to remember that anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Delaying treatment can have serious consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
What is the most appropriate advice to give her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth
Explanation:Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
– Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
– Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
– The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
– The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
– The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department feeling fatigued and short of breath. During the examination, her haemoglobin level is measured at 70 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l), and her serum vitamin B12 level is found to be 95 ng/l (normal range: 130–700 ng/l). Which of the following positive tests would suggest that pernicious anaemia is the likely cause of her vitamin B12 deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor (IF) antibody
Explanation:Autoantibodies in the Diagnosis of Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a type of megaloblastic anaemia caused by impaired absorption of vitamin B12 due to autoimmune destruction of gastric glands and loss of intrinsic factor (IF). IF antibodies, specifically type I and type II, are present in 50% of patients with pernicious anaemia and are specific to this disorder. Therefore, they can be used to confirm the diagnosis.
Other autoantibodies, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and gastric anti-parietal cell (GPC) antibodies, are not specific to pernicious anaemia but may be present in some patients. ANA is used in the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus and other autoimmune diseases, while GPC antibodies occur in 90% of patients with pernicious anaemia but are also positive in 10% of normal individuals.
Tests such as the Coombs test, which detect antibodies that attack red blood cells, are not used in the investigation of pernicious anaemia. Similarly, the immunoglobulin A tissue transglutaminase measurement is not diagnostic of pernicious anaemia but is used as the first-choice test for suspected coeliac disease in young people and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman in her 30s presents with an eczematous rash on her hands suggestive of contact dermatitis, possibly related to wearing protective gloves at work. She requests confirmatory tests.
Select the single test that is most likely to be helpful establishing the diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patch testing
Explanation:Understanding Patch Testing for Contact Allergic Dermatitis
Patch testing is a diagnostic tool used to identify substances that may be causing delayed hypersensitivity reactions, such as contact allergic dermatitis. This type of reaction occurs when the skin comes into contact with an allergen, resulting in a localized rash or inflammation. During patch testing, diluted chemicals are placed under patches on a small area of the back to produce a reaction. The chemicals included in the patch test kit are the most common offenders in cases of contact allergic dermatitis, including metals, rubber, leather, hair dyes, formaldehyde, lanolin, fragrance, preservatives, and other additives. If a patient has identified a possible allergen, such as shavings from the inside of gloves, it can be included in the test. Patches are removed after 48 hours, and the skin is inspected for reactions. The patient may return after 96 hours to check for late reactions.
Skin-prick testing, intradermal testing, and measurement of specific IgE are used to investigate immediate hypersensitivity reactions. However, direct exposure to gloves is not usually helpful in diagnosing contact allergic dermatitis, as the patient needs to continue wearing them. Additionally, not all cases of hand eczema are allergic in origin and may be caused by constitutional eczema or irritant dermatitis. In these cases, patch testing may be negative or show an irrelevant result. Understanding patch testing and its limitations can help healthcare providers accurately diagnose and treat contact allergic dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a chronic medical condition has had two recent upper respiratory tract infections that have been prolonged and complicated with sinusitis and bronchitis. His general practitioner is concerned that the patient may have a secondary immunodeficiency due to the chronic medical condition (rather than being caused by the medication used to treat his condition).
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause a secondary immunodeficiency?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Understanding Immunodeficiency in Various Medical Conditions
Immunodeficiency is a condition where the immune system is weakened, making individuals more susceptible to infections. While some medical conditions are directly associated with immunodeficiency, others are not. Chronic kidney disease, particularly end-stage disease requiring dialysis, is linked to secondary immunodeficiency, making patients vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, peritonitis, influenza, tuberculosis, and pneumonia. Similarly, some disease-modifying drugs used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis have immunomodulatory and immunosuppressive effects, increasing the risk of infection. Asthma and psoriasis are not typically associated with immunodeficiency, but long-term use of oral corticosteroids and certain medications used to treat severe psoriasis can increase the risk of infection. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a direct cause of immunodeficiency, but disease-modifying drugs used in its treatment can increase the risk. Overall, drug treatment is a common cause of secondary immunodeficiency, with cancer treatment being a significant concern. Other causes include HIV, surgery or trauma, and malnutrition. Understanding the relationship between various medical conditions and immunodeficiency is crucial in managing patient care and preventing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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