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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female with Addison's disease is having trouble with her hydrocortisone treatment, which she takes at a dose of 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the evening. However, she often forgets to take the evening dose. She would like to switch to daily prednisolone to avoid this issue. What dose of prednisolone would be equivalent to her current daily dose of hydrocortisone?

      Your Answer: 15 mg

      Correct Answer: 7.5 mg

      Explanation:

      Ratios and Activities of Corticosteroids

      The ratios of prednisolone to hydrocortisone and dexamethasone to hydrocortisone are approximately 1:4 and 1:24, respectively. While prednisolone mainly exhibits glucocorticoid activity, hydrocortisone has some mineralocorticoid activity, making it suitable for adrenal replacement therapy on its own. However, fludrocortisone is often required for its mineralocorticoid activity. The split dose of hydrocortisone is intended to mimic normal diurnal variation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      65.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Bowls is a 65-year-old patient who presents with her ankles 'going into spasm' when using the pedals of her car over the past couple of days. She also reports a slight tingling in her hands and feet. Apart from this, she has been well recently, with no other new symptoms. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes and dyspepsia. Her regular medications include metformin, sitagliptin, omeprazole, atorvastatin, and she uses sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate after meals and before bed as required. You arrange some urgent blood tests, suspecting an electrolyte disturbance. These come back showing hypomagnesaemia.

      Which of her medications should you stop?

      Your Answer: Sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Hypomagnesaemia is often caused by proton pump inhibitors.

      Omeprazole: correct answer. Proton pump inhibitors are recognized as a common cause of hypomagnesaemia. The MHRA recommends considering testing magnesium levels before starting treatment and regularly during long-term use. However, in reality, this is likely to be infrequently carried out.

      Metformin: incorrect answer. Metformin can reduce the absorption of vitamin B12. Sitagliptin, atorvastatin, and sodium alginate with potassium bicarbonate do not lead to hypomagnesaemia.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the body. This can be caused by various factors such as the use of certain drugs like diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitleman’s and Bartter’s can also contribute to the development of this condition. Symptoms of hypomagnesaemia may include paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, arrhythmias, and decreased PTH secretion, which can lead to hypocalcaemia. ECG features similar to those of hypokalaemia may also be present, and it can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

      Treatment for hypomagnesaemia depends on the severity of the condition. If the magnesium level is less than 0.4 mmol/L or if there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. If the magnesium level is above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts can be given in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts, so it is important to monitor for this side effect. Understanding the causes and treatment options for hypomagnesaemia can help individuals manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque psoriasis. He has responded positively to a 4-week course of a potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue topical treatment. The patient inquires if he can obtain more of the medication in case of future flare-ups. What is the most suitable answer regarding the use of topical corticosteroids?

      Your Answer: He can use topical corticosteroids indefinitely as long as less than 10% of the body area is affected

      Correct Answer: He should aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to have a 4 week interval between courses of topical corticosteroids for patients with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with facial swelling that started 6 hours ago. She is a busy lawyer and has important court cases this week. During the examination, her lips are found to be swollen. Her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg and her pulse rate is 80 beats per minute. She reports no breathing difficulties or stridor.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs exhibited by this woman suggest the presence of angioedema, which is a condition characterized by swelling of the connective tissue beneath the skin in response to a trigger. Unlike anaphylaxis, angioedema doesn’t affect breathing or vital signs. antihistamines are effective in treating this condition, while adrenaline is not necessary as it is primarily used to treat anaphylaxis. Hydrocortisone is also used to treat anaphylaxis, but it is not recommended for angioedema. Furosemide is typically prescribed for leg swelling caused by heart failure and is not suitable for treating angioedema. Chlorphenamine and loratadine are both effective in reducing swelling caused by angioedema, but since the woman has an important job that requires full concentration, loratadine would be the better option as it is a non-sedating antihistamine.

      Understanding Angioedema: Causes and Treatment

      Angioedema is a condition characterized by swelling beneath the skin, which can be caused by different allergens. The treatment for this condition varies depending on the underlying cause, but it often involves the use of antihistamines. Angioedema can be triggered by a variety of factors, including food allergies, insect bites, medication reactions, and genetic factors. The swelling can occur in different parts of the body, such as the face, lips, tongue, throat, and hands. In some cases, angioedema can be life-threatening, especially if it affects the airways and causes difficulty breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Remove the Nexplanon

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man has had mild gynaecomastia since puberty, but he has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had mild gynaecomastia since puberty, but he has noticed that it has seemed noticeably larger on the left side in the past four weeks. He has a history of Klinefelter syndrome, hypertension, and eczema.

      On examination you note breast tissue behind the nipples on both sides. You cannot feel a discrete separate lump on the left side, but the amount of breast tissue does seem to be greater.

      What should your next step be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic urgently

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer in Males with Klinefelter Syndrome

      Breast cancer in males is rare, but those with Klinefelter syndrome have a significantly higher risk, up to 50 times greater than the rest of the male population. Other risk factors include hyperoestrogenism, high alcohol consumption, and genetic factors such as BRCA2 mutations and Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.

      Men with Klinefelter syndrome are also more likely to develop gynaecomastia, which is usually bilateral and often present during puberty. However, any unilateral gynaecomastia or unilateral change in existing gynaecomastia should be examined for other causes, such as breast cancer.

      Checking hormone levels, as well as thyroid, liver, and renal function, is important in new onset gynaecomastia. Referral to a genetics clinic may not be necessary, but input from a geneticist may be useful if the patient is considering having children, as Klinefelter syndrome is associated with an increased risk of autosomal and sex chromosome abnormalities. However, one of the complications of Klinefelter syndrome is severe subfertility, so referral to a fertility clinic may be necessary.

      Reassurance in this case would be inappropriate, as it ignores the higher risk of breast cancer in men with Klinefelter syndrome. Therefore, any changes in breast tissue in this group should be dealt with cautiously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a red eye on...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a red eye on the left side that has been bothering him for three days. He reports experiencing photophobia, pain, blurred vision, and tearing. There is no visible discharge, and he has never had a similar episode before.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to local eye casualty

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Potential Anterior Uveitis

      The patient’s history suggests potential anterior uveitis (iritis), which requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist for further management. Anterior uveitis is typically treated with a combination of therapies by an ophthalmologist. Cyclopentolate 1% eye drops may be used to dilate the pupil, reducing pain and the risk of glaucoma. Dexamethasone 0.1% eye drops are commonly used to reduce inflammation, but should only be prescribed after a slit lamp examination confirms the diagnosis. Ibuprofen can be used as an adjunct to reduce inflammation, but it is not the primary management option. Prednisolone is typically reserved for cases of treatment failure with eye drops or in treating posterior uveitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female boxer visits her GP clinic complaining of itchy feet and toes, along with scaling of the skin between her toes. Despite completing a 4-week course of topical imidazole, her symptoms have not improved since her initial presentation 4 weeks ago, which confirmed athlete's foot through a positive culture of skin scrapings. What is the recommended treatment at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a course of oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      If the initial topical treatment for athlete’s foot is unsuccessful, it is recommended to use oral antifungal treatment. Continuing with topical treatment is not the best approach, and referring the patient to a dermatologist is another option. Topical corticosteroids should only be used in cases of severe inflammation and irritation to alleviate symptoms. Flucloxacillin, being an antibiotic, is not appropriate for this condition.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She...

    Incorrect

    • A very sensible parent brings her 9-year-old into the surgery for review. She is concerned as her child is complaining of recurrent episodes of dull abdominal pain and missing significant days off school. Your physical examination is entirely normal.
      What would count most against a diagnosis of functional recurrent abdominal pain in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above average intellectual ability

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children over the age of five, with approximately 10% experiencing it. It is crucial to determine the nature of the pain, its impact on the child’s daily life, and how the child and their family cope with it. Organic causes, such as gastrointestinal, urological, haematological, and miscellaneous causes, must be ruled out. Non-organic pain is suggested by peri-umbilical pain, and vomiting may be present, but weight loss is rare. Other important questions to ask include the timing of the pain, associated symptoms, family history, and social history. Physical examination is often unhelpful, and investigations are unlikely to provide a diagnosis when non-organic pain is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - You come across a 30-year-old woman with a breast lump that has been...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 30-year-old woman with a breast lump that has been there for 4 weeks. She is generally healthy and takes only the combined hormonal contraceptive pill (COCP). There is no history of breast cancer in her family.

      After examining the patient, you refer her to the breast clinic for further investigation under the 2-week wait scheme. She inquires about what she should do regarding her COCP.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The UKMEC provides guidance for healthcare providers when selecting appropriate contraceptives based on a patient’s medical history. For women with an undiagnosed breast mass, starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill is considered UKMEC 3, while continuing its use is classified as UKMEC 2. It is important to note that hormonal contraceptives may impact the prognosis of women with current or past breast cancer, which is classified as UKMEC 4 and UKMEC 3, respectively. Women with benign breast conditions or a family history of breast cancer are classified as UKMEC 1.

      The choice of contraceptive for women may be affected by comorbidities. The FSRH provides UKMEC recommendations for different conditions. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular disease, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women under 35 and UKMEC 3 for those over 35 who smoke less than 15 cigarettes/day, but is UKMEC 4 for those who smoke more. Obesity increases the risk of venous thromboembolism, and the COCP is recommended as UKMEC 2 for women with a BMI of 30-34 kg/m² and UKMEC 3 for those with a BMI of 35 kg/m² or more. The COCP is contraindicated for women with a history of migraine with aura, but is UKMEC 3 for those with migraines without aura and UKMEC 2 for initiation. For women with epilepsy, consistent use of condoms is recommended in addition to other forms of contraception. The choice of contraceptive for women taking anti-epileptic medication depends on the specific medication, with the COCP and POP being UKMEC 3 for most medications, while the implant is UKMEC 2 and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS are UKMEC 1. Lamotrigine has different recommendations, with the COCP being UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS being UKMEC 1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 11 - What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Paediatric Circumcision

      Paediatric circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the foreskin covering the head of the penis. While it is not a routine procedure, there are certain indications that may require it.

      The most common indication for paediatric circumcision is pathological phimosis, which is scarring of the foreskin opening that makes it non-retractable. However, this condition is rare before the age of 5 years. It is important to note that a non-retractile prepuce without inflammation is a normal variant in the first few years of life.

      Recurrent episodes of infection beneath the foreskin, known as balanoposthitis, may also be an indication for circumcision. This condition can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention to prevent further complications.

      In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 12 - A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.

      In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and the right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus.
      Joint position sense is impaired at her left big toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Upper limb neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      Understanding Brown-Séquard Syndrome: Identifying the Location of the Spinal Cord Lesion

      Brown-Séquard Syndrome is a rare condition that results from a lesion in one-half of the spinal cord. This can be caused by various factors such as trauma, neoplasia, cysts, multiple sclerosis, haemorrhage, and infections. The syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral hemiplegia and dorsal column sensory loss, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits due to the crossing of the fibres of the spinothalamic tract.

      To identify the location of the spinal cord lesion, a thorough neurological examination is necessary. If the sensory level is around T10, the lesion is likely to be above this, ruling out the left lumbosacral plexus. A cervical spine lesion is unlikely if the upper limb neurological examination is normal. A midline mid-thoracic cord lesion is less likely as a hemicord lesion is more consistent with the combination of one-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with contralateral pain and temperature sensation deficits.

      Therefore, a right mid-thoracic cord lesion is the most probable cause of Brown-Séquard Syndrome in this scenario. The left-sided hemiplegia and loss of proprioception, with right-sided loss of pinprick sensation, indicate a left-sided hemicord lesion. Understanding the location of the spinal cord lesion is crucial in diagnosing and managing Brown-Séquard Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.

      Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.

      Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 15 - Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
    She has recently...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice nurse brings her 14-year-old daughter to see you.
      She has recently been seen by a child and adolescent psychiatrist, who has diagnosed mild to moderate depression. She is being seen again tomorrow and mother wants to talk through the treatment options with you.
      What is the first line treatment for mild to moderate depression in a 14-year-old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with a tricyclic antidepressant alone

      Explanation:

      First Line Treatment for Psychological Disorders

      When it comes to treating psychological disorders, it is important to offer the right therapy as a first line treatment. According to experts, one of the following specific psychological therapies should be offered for at least three months: individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help. However, before starting any therapy, it is recommended to wait for up to four weeks and monitor the symptoms. This is known as watchful waiting. If the symptoms persist, then one of the psychological therapies mentioned above should be offered. By following this approach, patients can receive the most effective treatment for their psychological disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis

      When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old female presents to the rheumatology clinic with progressive dyspnea. She has been taking medication for her rheumatoid arthritis for an extended period. During examination, her oxygen saturation levels on room air are found to be at 89%. Further investigations reveal bilateral interstitial shadowing on her chest x-ray. Which medication is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents at the clinic for a medication review. She was started on contraception by a colleague six months ago but is now experiencing irregular bleeding and weight gain. She is unsure if the contraceptive is causing her symptoms. The patient has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine. She is a social smoker and has no family history.

      During the examination, her body mass index is 28 kg/m², indicating a weight gain of 4 kg. Her blood pressure is 108/78 mmHg. What type of contraceptive is most likely to have been prescribed to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depo-provera injection

      Explanation:

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that Noristerat, another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, is rarely used in clinical practice. It is given every 8 weeks. The BNF gives different advice regarding the interval between injections, stating that a pregnancy test should be done if the interval is greater than 12 weeks and 5 days. However, this is not commonly adhered to in the family planning community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game. He has noticeable swelling and redness in his left ear. Upon examination, it appears to be an auricular hematoma. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes a specific mention of auricular haematomas.

      Auricular haematomas are frequently observed in individuals who participate in rugby or wrestling. It is crucial to seek immediate medical attention to prevent the development of ‘cauliflower ear’. The management of auricular haematomas necessitates an evaluation by an ENT specialist on the same day. Incision and drainage have been demonstrated to be more effective than needle aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 20 - What is the percentage of the population that falls within 2 standard deviations...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of the population that falls within 2 standard deviations of the mean for a given biochemical test in the hospital laboratory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution

      When it comes to understanding normal distribution, it’s important to know that one standard deviation includes 68% of the population. This means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 68% of the scores would fall within one standard deviation of the mean. Two standard deviations include approximately 95% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 95% of the scores would fall within two standard deviations of the mean. Finally, three standard deviations include 99.7% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 99.7% of the scores would fall within three standard deviations of the mean. Understanding normal distribution is important in many fields, including statistics, finance, and science.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains...

    Incorrect

    • During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains of the appearance of a mole.

      Which of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesion has irregular outline

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Melanoma: The ABCDE Mnemonic

      Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be deadly if not detected and treated early. To help identify potential melanomas, dermatologists use the ABCDE mnemonic. Each letter represents a characteristic that may indicate the presence of melanoma.

      A stands for asymmetry. If one half of a mole or lesion doesn’t match the other half, it may be a sign of melanoma. B is for border irregularity. Melanomas often have uneven or jagged edges. C represents color variegation. Melanomas may have multiple colors or shades within the same lesion. D is for diameter. Melanomas are typically larger than a pencil eraser, but any mole or lesion that is 6mm or more in diameter should be examined by a dermatologist. Finally, E stands for evolution. Any changes in size, shape, or color of a mole or lesion should be monitored closely.

      By remembering the ABCDE mnemonic, individuals can be more aware of the characteristics of melanoma and seek medical attention if they notice any concerning changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old patient during his chronic kidney disease follow-up. He has been undergoing haemodialysis for the past 6 years. What is the leading cause of mortality for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Causes of Chronic Kidney Disease

      Chronic kidney disease is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to kidney failure if left untreated. There are several common causes of chronic kidney disease, including diabetic nephropathy, chronic glomerulonephritis, chronic pyelonephritis, hypertension, and adult polycystic kidney disease. Diabetic nephropathy is a complication of diabetes that affects the kidneys, while chronic glomerulonephritis is a condition that causes inflammation in the kidneys. Chronic pyelonephritis is a type of kidney infection that can lead to scarring and damage to the kidneys. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also cause damage to the kidneys over time. Finally, adult polycystic kidney disease is an inherited condition that causes cysts to form in the kidneys, leading to kidney damage and eventually kidney failure. It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic kidney disease in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with metformin.

      You recently started her on gliclazide, a sulphonylurea. She had an episode late one afternoon, when she felt shaky and disorientated. She was at home at the time and her husband had to help her sit down in a chair. He took her BM, which was 4.2 and gave her a sugary drink and a biscuit, after which her symptoms quickly resolved. She had not suffered similar episodes in the past.

      Physical examination is normal and a recent HBA1c is 75 mmol/mol.

      She would like advice about driving her car.

      What will you tell her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She doesn't have to stop driving

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance for Diabetic Patients on Driving and Hypoglycaemia

      DVLA guidance exists for patients with diabetes who are controlled with oral medication that may cause hypoglycaemia. This includes medications such as sulfonylureas and glinides. The guidance doesn’t differentiate between hypoglycaemic episodes that occur while driving and those that occur at other times.

      If a patient experiences warning symptoms of a hypoglycaemic attack, it is mandatory for them to have hypoglycaemic awareness in order to be allowed to drive. However, if it is the patient’s first episode, they do not have to stop driving. It is still recommended that they refrain from driving until they are established on an appropriate dose of diabetic medication. Patients should also be encouraged to recognize their symptoms of impending hypoglycaemia, and keeping a blood glucose diary can help with this.

      The DVLA guidelines do not specify a particular blood glucose level that would produce hypoglycaemic symptoms, as this can vary between individuals. If a patient has had only one episode of disabling hypoglycaemia in the last 12 months, they do not meet the requirements for DVLA notification and can continue driving. However, if a patient has had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance from another person within the preceding 12 months, they are not allowed to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 25 - A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.

      During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.

      CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.

      MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.

      While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.

      Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.

      Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He is of Afro-Caribbean heritage...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes in for a check-up. He is of Afro-Caribbean heritage and has been on a daily dose of amlodipine 10 mg. Upon reviewing his blood pressure readings, it has been found that he has an average of 154/93 mmHg over the past 2 months. Today, his blood pressure is at 161/96 mmHg. The patient is eager to bring his blood pressure under control. What is the most effective treatment to initiate in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      If a black African or African-Caribbean patient with hypertension is already taking a calcium channel blocker and requires a second medication, it is recommended to add an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. This is because studies have shown that this class of medication is more effective in patients of this heritage. In this case, the patient would benefit from the addition of candesartan to lower their blood pressure. An alpha-blocker is not necessary at this stage, and a beta-blocker is not recommended as it is better suited for heart failure and post-myocardial infarction. Increasing the dose of amlodipine is also unlikely to be helpful as the patient is already on the maximum dose.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old widow presents to you with complaints of recurrent pains throughout her body every morning, which often leave her bedridden for a few hours. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and there is no evidence of arthritis. Blood tests, including a full blood count, renal profile, liver function tests, ESR, and bone profile, have all been unremarkable. She reports having trouble sleeping since her husband passed away 2 years ago. What would be the most suitable treatment option for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Physical symptoms are a common manifestation of depression, especially in older patients who may not directly express their mood difficulties. Therefore, it is important to investigate a patient’s mood when they present with unexplained symptoms. Although regular paracetamol may have a placebo effect, it cannot address the underlying issue. Antipsychotics like haloperidol are not suitable in this scenario. Gabapentin is unlikely to be effective unless the patient has neuropathic pain. While zopiclone may improve sleep, it is not a long-term solution and cannot address the root cause of the problem.

      Understanding Depression in Older Adults

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects people of all ages, including older adults. However, older patients are less likely to report feelings of depressed mood, which can make it difficult for healthcare professionals to identify and manage the condition. Instead, older adults may present with physical complaints, such as hypochondriasis, agitation, and insomnia.

      To manage depression in older adults, healthcare professionals typically prescribe selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) as a first-line treatment. This is because the adverse side-effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) can be more problematic in older adults. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the unique challenges associated with managing depression in older adults and to work closely with patients to develop an individualized treatment plan that addresses their specific needs and concerns. By doing so, healthcare professionals can help older adults manage their depression and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man who is taking lithium for bipolar disorder comes in for a check-up. Upon routine examination, he is discovered to have hypertension with a blood pressure of 166/82 mmHg, which is confirmed by two separate readings. His urine dipstick is negative and his renal function is normal. What medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity may be caused by diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and angiotensin II receptor antagonists. According to the BNF, the combination of lithium with diltiazem or verapamil may increase the risk of neurotoxicity, but there is no significant interaction with amlodipine. Although alpha-blockers are not known to interact with lithium, they are not recommended as the first-line treatment for hypertension. The NICE guidelines for hypertension suggest that amlodipine could be a suitable initial option, even if the patient is taking lithium.

      Lithium is a drug used to stabilize mood in patients with bipolar disorder and refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole. Symptoms of toxicity include coarse tremors, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and coma.

      To manage mild to moderate toxicity, volume resuscitation with normal saline may be effective. Severe toxicity may require hemodialysis. Sodium bicarbonate may also be used to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, but there is limited evidence to support its use. It is important to monitor lithium levels closely and adjust the dosage accordingly to prevent toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
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