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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man had a fasting blood glucose test as part of a work-up for hypertension. It comes back as 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated and reported as 6.7 mmol/l. He says he feels constantly tired but denies any polyuria or polydipsia. How should these results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia

      Explanation:

      A fasting blood glucose level from 110 to 126 mg/dL (5.5 to 6.9 mmol/L) is considered prediabetes. This result is sometimes called impaired fasting glucose.
      Diabetes mellitus (type 2): diagnosis

      The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made by plasma glucose. If the patient is symptomatic:
      fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l
      random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l (or after 75g oral glucose tolerance test)
      If the patient is asymptomatic the above criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of following does not promote the release of endothelin?

      Your Answer: ADH

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin (PGI2) generated by the vascular wall is a potent vasodilator, and the most potent endogenous inhibitor of platelet aggregation so far discovered. Prostacyclin inhibits platelet aggregation by increasing cyclic AMP levels. Prostacyclin is a circulating hormone continually released by the lungs into the arterial circulation. Circulating platelets are, therefore, subjected constantly to prostacyclin stimulation and it is via this mechanism that platelet aggregability in vivo is controlled.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50 year old man undergoes a colonoscopy due to the finding of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old man undergoes a colonoscopy due to the finding of blood in his stools. The colonoscopy revealed four polyps which were variable in size from one at 0.5cm, 2 at approximately 1.5cm and one at 2 cm. When should this patient have a follow up colonoscopy?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      For the question, you need knowledge of the British Society of Gastroenterology guidelines. This patient has 3-4 adenomas with 3 of them > 1 cm. This places him at medium risk and the recommendation if for a 3-year follow up period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
      The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.

      *please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 yr. old male patient with NSTEMI was started on low dose aspirin as secondary prevention. Which of the following, describe the action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the production of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      The antithrombotic action of aspirin is due to inhibition of platelet function by acetylation of the platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) at the functionally important amino acid serine529. This prevents the access of the substrate (arachidonic aid) to the catalytic site of the enzyme at tyrosine385 and results in an irreversible inhibition of platelet-dependent thromboxane formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements is most accurate regarding the lung?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The medial basal segment is absent in the left lower lobe

      Explanation:

      The right and left lung anatomy are similar but asymmetrical. The right lung consists of three lobes: right upper lobe (RUL), right middle lobe (RML), and right lower lobe (RLL). The left lung consists of two lobes: right upper lobe (RUL) and right lower lobe (RLL). The right lobe is divided by an oblique and horizontal fissure, where the horizontal fissure divides the upper and middle lobe, and the oblique fissure divides the middle and lower lobes. In the left lobe there is only an oblique fissure that separates the upper and lower lobe.

      The lobes further divide into segments which are associated with specific segmental bronchi. Segmental bronchi are the third-order branches off the second-order branches (lobar bronchi) that come off the main bronchus.

      The right lung consists of ten segments. There are three segments in the RUL (apical, anterior and posterior), two in the RML (medial and lateral), and five in the RLL (superior, medial, anterior, lateral, and posterior). The oblique fissure separates the RUL from the RML, and the horizontal fissure separates the RLL from the RML and RUL.

      There are eight to nine segments on the left depending on the division of the lobe. In general, there are four segments in the left upper lobe (anterior, apicoposterior, inferior and superior lingula) and four or five in the left lower lobe (lateral, anteromedial, superior and posterior). The medium sized airways offer the maximum airway resistance, not smaller ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.   Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old woman has had progressive reduction of visual acuity over the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman has had progressive reduction of visual acuity over the past 3 years. She has now almost lost all of her vision. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      Retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic disorder of the eyes that causes loss of vision. Symptoms include trouble seeing at night and decreased peripheral vision. Onset of symptoms is generally gradual.
      – In keratitis, there will be pain, redness and photophobia but vision is not affected
      – In macular degeneration, near blindness does not occur rather the inability to identify faces or read small print
      – Cataracts are more common in elderly
      – It is not angle closure glaucoma as angle closure glaucoma occurs usually after the age of 50; In open angle glaucoma visual loss is not gradual but rather occurs suddenly following progression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 29-year-old accountant presents to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old accountant presents to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain. He has not been able to wear his contact lenses for the past 24 hours due to the pain. He describes the pain as severe and wonders whether he has 'got something stuck in his eye'. On examination, there is diffuse hyperaemia of the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy and pupillary reaction is normal. Visual acuity is reduced on the left side and a degree of photophobia is noted. A hypopyon is also seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      Hypopyon can be seen in anterior uveitis, however the combination of a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use make a diagnosis of keratitis more likely. Keratitis describes inflammation of the cornea, and features include red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, and foreign body/gritty sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will...

    Incorrect

    • A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the...

    Incorrect

    • A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in developed countries. In contrast, worldwide, the most common cause of hypothyroidism is an inadequate dietary intake of iodine. This disease is also known as chronic autoimmune thyroiditis and chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding macular degeneration is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wet macular degeneration carries the worst prognosis

      Explanation:

      Traditionally two forms of macular degeneration are seen:
      – Dry (geographic atrophy) macular degeneration is characterized by drusen – yellow round spots in Bruch’s membrane.
      – Wet (exudative, neovascular) macular degeneration is characterized by choroidal neovascularization. Leakage of serous fluid and blood can subsequently result in a rapid loss of vision. This carries the worst prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the molecule that acts as the co-receptor for cells expressing antigens linked with MHC class I molecules:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD8

      Explanation:

      CD8+ T cells recognize antigens in the form of short peptide fragments bound to major histocompatibility complex class I (MHCI) molecules on the target cell surface.1 Specific engagement of peptide-MHCI (pMHCI) complexes via the clonotypically expressed αβ T-cell receptor (TCR) triggers a range of effector functions that play a critical role in protective immunity against intracellular infections and various malignancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the following, which cancer is least likely to be inherited?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      Of all the listed options, gastric cancer is least likely to be inherited.

      The above mentioned tumours are ruled out as explained below:
      1. Breast and Ovarian cancers: Between 5%–10% of all breast cancers are thought to be hereditary. Mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes also increase the risk of ovarian cancer.

      2. Colorectal and Endometrial cancers: About 5% of cases of colorectal cancer are caused by hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC) and 1% are due to familial adenomatous polyposis. Women who have HNPCC also have a markedly increased risk of developing endometrial cancer—around 5% of endometrial cancers occur in women with this risk factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and cough. Over the past three weeks she has also developed painful erythematous nodules on both shins. Respiratory examination is normal. A chest x-ray is performed which is reported as follows: Bilateral mediastinal nodal enlargement. No evidence of lung parenchymal disease. Normal cardiac size. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects one or more organs but most commonly affects the lungs and lymph glands. The inflammation may change the normal structure and possibly the function of the affected organ(s).
      The presentation in sarcoidosis varies with the extent and severity of organ involvement, as follows:
      Asymptomatic (incidentally detected on chest imaging): Approximately 5% of cases.
      Systemic complaints (fever, anorexia): 45% of cases
      Pulmonary complaints (dyspnoea on exertion, cough, chest pain, and haemoptysis [rare]): 50% of cases

      Löfgren syndrome (fever, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and polyarthralgias): Common in Scandinavian patients, but uncommon in African-American and Japanese patients.

      Dermatologic manifestations may include the following:
      – Erythema nodosum
      – A lower-extremity panniculitis with painful, erythematous nodules (often with Löfgren syndrome)
      – Lupus pernio (the most specific associated cutaneous lesion)
      – Violaceous rash on the cheeks or nose (common)
      – Maculopapular plaques (uncommon)

      Staging of sarcoidosis is as follows:
      Stage 0: Normal chest radiographic findings
      Stage I: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
      Stage II: Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and infiltrates
      Stage III: Infiltrates alone
      Stage IV: Fibrosis

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are indicated for the treatment of arthralgias and other rheumatic complaints. Patients with stage I sarcoidosis often require only occasional treatment with NSAIDs.

      Treatment in patients with pulmonary involvement is as follows:
      Asymptomatic patients may not require treatment
      In patients with minimal symptoms, serial re-evaluation is prudent
      Treatment is indicated for patients with significant respiratory symptoms
      Corticosteroids can produce small improvements in the functional vital capacity and in the radiographic appearance in patients with more severe stage II and III disease.

      This patient has Stage 1 Sarcoidosis so observation is the most appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3.   What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where

      a = Number of exposed cases

      b = Number of exposed non-cases

      c = Number of unexposed cases

      d = Number of unexposed non-cases

      OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • Empagliflozin was found to reduce the risk of cardiovascular deaths, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke when added to standard treatment plans in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. This information was shared in 2015 by The New England Journal of Medicine and the results were expressed per 1000 patient years. In fact, empagliflozin had an event rate of 37.3/1000 patient years and placebo an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years. How many patients who are at high cardiovascular risk need to be treated with empagliflozin to prevent a cardiovascular death, a non-fatal myocardial infarction or a non-fatal stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 150

      Explanation:

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is an absolute effect measure that has been used to assess beneficial and harmful effects of medical interventions. In this case the NNT can be calculated as follows: NNT = 1/ Absolute risk reduction (ARR). ARR=(Control event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) – (Experimental event rate expressed per 1000 patient years) = 43.9-37.3 = 6.6/1000 patient years

      NNT=(Patient years)/ARR = 1000/ 6.6 = 151.5. The closest to 151.5 is 150, thus it is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old pharmacist with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with a two day history of a red right eye. There is no itch or pain. Pupils are 3mm, equal and reactive to light. Visual acuity is 6/5 in both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Episcleritis

      Explanation:

      Ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are common, with 25% of patients having eye problems. These manifestations include keratoconjunctivitis sicca (most common), episcleritis (erythema), scleritis (erythema and pain), corneal ulceration, and keratitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies

      Explanation:

      CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:

      DVT likely: 2 points or more
      DVT unlikely: 1 point or less

      This system of points is based on the following clinical features:
      1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
      2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
      3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
      4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
      5. Entire leg swollen—1
      6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
      7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
      8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
      9. Previously documented DVT—1
      10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2

      If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
      If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’

      Management

      1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
      2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
      3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
      4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
      5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
      6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.

      As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
      1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
      2. Chest X-ray
      3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
      4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
      5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30–56% and 11–28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with Type-2 diabetes mellitus is not responding to dietary modifications and weight reduction. He needs to be started on an oral hypoglycaemic agent. Which among the following statements regarding oral hypoglycaemic agents is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acarbose inhibits α-glucosidase

      Explanation:

      Different Oral Hypoglycaemic Agents (OHAs) and their respective mechanism(s) of action include:
      • Sulfonylureas (such as, glipizide, gliclazide, glimepiride) – bind to ATP sensitive Potassium channels (K – ATP channels) in the ? cells of the islets of the pancreas. Inhibition of these channels lead to an altered resting membrane potential in these cells causing an influx of calcium which increases insulin secretion.
      • Meglitinides (like Repaglinide) through a different receptor, they similarly regulate K – ATP channels thereby causing an increase in insulin secretion.
      • Biguanides (e.g., Metformin) increase the hepatic AMP-activated protein kinase activity leading to reduced gluconeogenesis and lipogenesis and increased insulin-mediated uptake of glucose in muscles. (it doesn’t increase insulin secretion)
      • Thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone, pioglitazone) bind to PPAR-? and increase peripheral uptake of glucose and decrease hepatic glucose production.
      • α-Glucosidase inhibitors (such as acarbose, miglitol, voglibose) competitively inhibit α-glucosidase enzymes in the intestine that digest the dietary starch thus, inhibiting the polysaccharide reabsorption as well as metabolism of sucrose to glucose and fructose.
      • DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin, saxagliptin, vildagliptin, linagliptin, alogliptin) prolong the action of glucagon-like peptide. This leads to inhibition of glucagon release, increase in insulin secretion and a decrease in gastric emptying leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels.
      • SGLT2 inhibitors (dapagliflozin and canagliflozin) inhibit glucose reabsorption in the proximal tubules of the renal glomeruli leading to glycosuria which in-turn reduces blood glucose levels.
      Note: Side effects of pioglitazone are weight gain, pedal oedema, bone loss and precipitation of congestive cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid. TFTs show the following: Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23), Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6), TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5). What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2–3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with severe renal failure undergoes a kidney transplant. However, after a few hours, she develops fever and anuria. The doctors are suspecting hyperacute organ rejection. Which are the cells primarily responsible for hyperacute organ rejection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B Cells

      Explanation:

      Hyperacute rejection appears in the first minutes following transplantation and occurs only in vascularized grafts. This very fast rejection is characterized by vessel thrombosis leading to graft necrosis. Hyperacute rejection is caused by the presence of antidonor antibodies existing in the recipient before transplantation. These antibodies induce both complement activation and stimulation of endothelial cells to secrete Von Willebrand procoagulant factor, resulting in platelet adhesion and aggregation. The result of these series of reactions is the generation of intravascular thrombosis leading to lesion formation and ultimately to graft loss. Today, this type of rejection is avoided in most cases by checking for ABO compatibility and by excluding the presence of antidonor human leukocyte antigen (HLA) antibodies by cross-match techniques between donor graft cells and recipient sera. This type of rejection is also observed in models of xenotransplantation of vascularized organs between phylogenetically distant species when no immunosuppressive treatment is given to the recipients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
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